Courseiva

Certified Incident Handler (212-89) (212-89) — Questions 1–75

321 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQmedium

You are a first responder dispatched to a compromised Windows 10 workstation. The system is still powered on and the user is logged in. Before isolating the machine from the network, you need to capture the current state of active network connections and the processes that own them. Which command should you run first?

A.netsh interface set interface "Ethernet" disable
B.netstat -anob
C.ipconfig /release
D.arp -a
AnswerB

The -a switch lists all connections and listening ports, -n prevents DNS resolution so results are immediate and unaltered, -o shows the owning process ID, and -b displays the executable name. Running this before network isolation preserves ephemeral connections tied to malicious processes that would otherwise be lost or reset.

Why this answer

Capturing active network connections with their owning processes is a high-priority volatile data collection step. The netstat command with all, numeric, owner, and binary switches reveals listening ports, established sessions, and the executables behind them. Doing this before isolating the host preserves evidence that disappears the moment connections are reset or the interface is disabled.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that isolation must happen before any collection, when network state is among the most volatile evidence and must be captured while the host is still connected.

2
MCQhard

During the containment phase of a ransomware incident, you must decide whether to disconnect the infected host from the network or keep it connected for monitoring. The host is encrypting files on a shared network drive. Which action should you take FIRST to limit the spread while preserving evidence?

A.Run a full antivirus scan on the infected host to remove the malware.
B.Immediately power off the infected host to stop encryption.
C.Disconnect the host from the network by unplugging the Ethernet cable or disabling Wi-Fi.
D.Leave the host connected and monitor network traffic to identify the command-and-control server.
AnswerC

Disconnecting the host from the network immediately stops the ransomware from reaching shared drives and other systems, limiting spread. It also preserves the host's volatile memory and running state for forensic analysis. Unlike powering off, this action maintains evidence integrity while containing the incident. It is the fastest and least destructive way to isolate the infected system during active encryption.

Why this answer

Disconnecting the host from the network is the most effective first step to stop the spread of ransomware to shared drives while preserving volatile evidence. It isolates the threat without destroying memory or running processes, allowing later forensic analysis. Powering off or leaving it connected both have significant drawbacks that could worsen the incident or hinder investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that powering off the machine is the quickest way to stop encryption, but that action destroys volatile evidence and can corrupt data, making it a poor first choice.

3
MCQmedium

During the lessons learned phase of a P1 incident, you notice that the incident handling policy failed to define clear 'Rules of Engagement' for containment, leading to accidental service disruption. Which document should be updated to address this deficiency?

A.The Corporate Acceptable Use Policy
B.The Incident Response Plan (IRP)
C.The Network Topology Map
D.The Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
AnswerB

Rules of Engagement define the scope, authority and boundaries for containment actions, so they belong within the Incident Response Plan. Updating the IRP addresses the deficiency directly, giving responders pre-approved containment limits that prevent the accidental service disruption seen during this P1 incident.

Why this answer

The Incident Response Plan (IRP) contains the specific procedures and rules for containment, and it must be updated to prevent future operational failures.

4
MCQeasy

You are the first responder assigned to a suspected insider data theft case on a corporate Windows laptop. The machine is powered off and was handed to you by security personnel. Which step should you take first to preserve the integrity of the evidence?

A.Ask the suspect to provide their login password so you can access the profile directly.
B.Document the scene, photograph the laptop and its ports, and record the chain of custody before touching the device.
C.Remove the hard drive and connect it to your analysis workstation for immediate imaging.
D.Boot the laptop into Windows to check whether the suspect is still logged in and review recent files.
AnswerB

Documenting the physical state and initiating chain of custody before any interaction preserves the evidentiary value of the device. Photographs and written records establish that the laptop was received in a known condition, and the custody log creates an auditable trail that supports admissibility if the case proceeds to legal action.

Why this answer

Evidence preservation begins with documenting the scene and establishing chain of custody before any interaction with the device. Photographs, notes on ports and indicators, and a signed custody record create the foundation that makes later forensic work defensible. Only after this documentation should imaging or examination proceed, ensuring the device state is captured as received.

Exam trap

The trap here is jumping straight to imaging or booting the device, skipping the documentation and chain-of-custody steps that establish the evidence was untouched when received.

5
MCQhard

During a network incident, you observe that an internal host is communicating with an external IP address on TCP port 8080. The traffic is HTTP and contains periodic GET requests to '/update.php' with a custom User-Agent string 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64) AppleWebKit/537.36' but the response body is encrypted binary data. You suspect this is command-and-control (C2) communication. Which network forensic artifact would most directly reveal the C2 protocol structure and commands being sent?

A.The HTTP request headers and URI parameters in the packet capture.
B.The decrypted payload of the HTTP response body after applying the malware's decryption routine.
C.The DNS queries made by the host to resolve the external IP address.
D.The TCP sequence numbers and window sizes in the packet capture.
AnswerB

The response body is encrypted binary data, which likely contains the actual C2 commands. To understand the protocol structure and extract commands, you must decrypt the payload using the malware's decryption algorithm. This requires reverse engineering the malware or knowing the key. Once decrypted, the structure and commands become visible, providing direct insight into the C2 communication.

Why this answer

The correct answer is to decrypt the HTTP response body using the malware's decryption routine. Since the C2 commands are transmitted in an encrypted binary payload, only decryption can reveal the protocol structure and commands. Other artifacts like headers, TCP metadata, or DNS queries do not contain the encrypted command data and thus cannot provide the necessary insight.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on easily visible HTTP headers or metadata, which may show the C2 server but not the encrypted commands that define the protocol.

6
MCQmedium

A user reports their Windows 10 workstation is running very slowly and displaying unexpected pop-up ads in the browser. The incident handler suspects an adware infection. After isolating the machine, which Windows tool should the handler use to identify the malicious process consuming CPU and its associated network connections?

A.Resource Monitor
B.Task Manager
C.Performance Monitor
D.Event Viewer
AnswerA

Resource Monitor provides detailed real-time information about CPU, memory, disk, and network usage per process. It shows network connections and which process is using them, allowing the handler to identify the adware process and its communication. This is more comprehensive than Task Manager for correlating resource consumption with network activity, directly addressing the slow performance and pop-ups.

Why this answer

Resource Monitor offers a granular view of per-process resource utilization and network activity, enabling the handler to pinpoint the adware process causing high CPU usage and pop-ups. It shows which process is making network connections, which is critical for understanding the adware's behavior. Task Manager lacks network details, Event Viewer lacks real-time process data, and Performance Monitor is not designed for quick per-process network correlation.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that Task Manager provides sufficient network connection details to identify the malicious process, when it actually lacks per-process network mapping.

7
MCQmedium

An attacker compromises a user's Microsoft 365 mailbox and creates an inbox rule that moves all messages from the CFO to the 'RSS Feeds' folder and marks them as read. The user never sees these messages. Which type of email incident does this behavior most directly represent?

A.Spam campaign targeting multiple recipients
B.Business email compromise (BEC) with mailbox rule abuse
C.Malware outbreak via a malicious attachment
D.Phishing email delivered to the user's inbox
AnswerB

This is correct because the attacker used a compromised mailbox to silently divert CFO communications, a hallmark of BEC. The hidden rule enables invoice fraud and wire transfer manipulation by preventing the victim from seeing warnings or replies. The rule hiding messages from a senior executive is a classic post-compromise persistence and collection technique in business email compromise incidents.

Why this answer

The attacker compromised a mailbox and configured a hidden inbox rule to suppress messages from the CFO, which is a signature of business email compromise with mailbox rule abuse. This allows the attacker to intercept financial communications, impersonate the executive, and initiate fraudulent transfers without the user noticing. The other options describe earlier-stage or unrelated email threats that do not match the post-compromise mail-flow manipulation shown.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any suspicious email activity is phishing, when in fact the scenario describes post-compromise mailbox rule abuse characteristic of business email compromise.

8
MCQmedium

During an email incident investigation, an analyst needs to determine the originating IP address of a message that passed through multiple mail servers. The message headers contain several 'Received' fields. Which action should the analyst take to identify the true origin?

A.Check the 'Message-ID' header, which encodes the originating IP in its domain portion.
B.Read the 'Received' headers from bottom to top, as the bottom-most entry is the first server that handled the message.
C.Read the 'Received' headers from top to bottom, because the top-most entry is the originating server.
D.Use the 'Return-Path' header, which always contains the originating IP address.
AnswerB

Received headers are added as the message passes through each mail server, with the oldest entry at the bottom. Reading from bottom to top traces the path from the originating server to the final delivery. The bottom-most Received header typically contains the IP address of the sender's mail server, which is the closest to the true origin.

Why this answer

Received headers are appended by each mail server that handles the message, with the oldest at the bottom. To find the originating IP, the analyst should read from bottom to top. The bottom-most Received header usually contains the IP address of the sender's mail server, providing the best indication of the true origin.

Exam trap

The trap here is reading the Received headers in the wrong direction, which leads to identifying the final delivery server instead of the originating server.

9
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors should be considered when tuning a WAF to reduce false positives for an application?

Select 3 answers
A.The number of users accessing the site
B.The specific needs and expected input patterns of the application
C.The geographic location of the servers
D.The impact of the proposed exception on the overall security posture
E.The frequency and type of false positives being logged
AnswersB, D, E

Tuning rules to match the application's legitimate input patterns — expected parameter formats, field lengths and character sets — lets the WAF distinguish genuine traffic from attacks, so benign requests are not blocked. This directly reduces false positives while preserving detection of genuine malicious payloads.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because effective WAF tuning must start from the application's own expected input patterns—legitimate parameter formats, file types, URL structures, and payload sizes—so that rules can be scoped to what the app actually receives rather than blocking benign traffic. Option D is correct because every exception or rule relaxation weakens protection, so the security team must weigh the reduced false-positive rate against the risk of allowing real attacks such as SQL injection or XSS through the newly opened gap. Option E is correct because tuning should be driven by the actual false-positive telemetry in the WAF logs—which rules fire, how often, and on which endpoints—so that high-noise rules are identified and adjusted based on evidence rather than guesswork.

Option A is not a tuning factor because user volume affects capacity and rate-limiting decisions, not the accuracy of WAF rule matching, and Option C is irrelevant because server geography has no bearing on whether a request is a legitimate application input or a malicious payload.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that infrastructure or traffic volume factors (like number of users or server location) influence WAF tuning, when in fact tuning is driven by application-specific input analysis and security trade-offs.

10
MCQeasy

When identifying stakeholders to notify during an incident, which group should be notified first?

A.The local police.
B.The incident response team.
C.The company board of directors.
D.The public.
AnswerB

The incident response team must be activated first because it owns containment, eradication and recovery. Notifying executives, legal or communications before the responders delays technical action, allowing the incident to spread while no one is yet investigating or containing it.

Why this answer

The incident response team (IRT) should be notified first because they are the designated group responsible for containing, investigating, and mitigating the incident. Early notification enables the IRT to assess the scope, activate the incident response plan, and coordinate all subsequent communications and actions. Notifying external parties or executives before the IRT can lead to uninformed decisions, delayed technical response, and potential escalation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the escalation hierarchy: candidates often think executives or law enforcement should be notified first due to authority, but the IRT must be engaged first to handle the technical response.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because law enforcement is typically notified after the IRT has assessed the incident and determined that a crime may have occurred; premature notification can compromise evidence and waste resources. Option C is wrong because the board of directors is an executive oversight body that should be informed after the IRT has a preliminary understanding and containment strategy, not during the initial detection. Option D is wrong because the public should only be notified if the incident has a direct impact on them and after legal and PR guidance, as premature disclosure can cause panic and legal liabilities.

11
MCQeasy

What is the primary risk associated with 'Executive Spoofing' or BEC (Business Email Compromise)?

A.Financial loss via unauthorized transfers
B.System performance degradation
C.Infrastructure downtime
D.Spam distribution
AnswerA

BEC attacks impersonate executives to trick staff into wiring funds or changing payment details, so the primary business impact is direct financial loss through unauthorised transfers. Other consequences such as reputational damage or data theft are secondary to the immediate monetary fraud this scenario targets.

Why this answer

BEC targets employees to perform unauthorized financial transfers through social engineering.

12
MCQeasy

During initial triage, you identify that a system's time is significantly out of sync with the NTP server. Why is this critical to record during the first response?

A.It is a sign of an active buffer overflow attack.
B.Because it indicates the BIOS battery is failing.
C.It affects the ability of the system to join the Active Directory domain.
D.To ensure that file system timestamps can be accurately correlated with other logs.
AnswerD

NTP drift skews local file system timestamps, so recording the offset lets investigators correct them before correlating against firewall, IDS and server logs. Without this, the timeline of intrusion events becomes unreliable, undermining attribution and scope determination during the first-response triage.

Why this answer

File system timestamps (MAC times — modify, access, change) are only meaningful when correlated against logs from other systems such as firewalls, IDS, and authentication servers. If the suspect host's clock is skewed, every timestamp it produces is offset by an unknown amount, making it impossible to build an accurate timeline of the intrusion. Recording the offset during first response lets investigators normalise the data later, preserving its evidentiary value.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates focus on the operational symptom (AD join failure, hardware fault) rather than the forensic reason — the exam wants you to recognise that time skew destroys timeline correlation, not that it breaks authentication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because clock drift is not a signature of a buffer overflow — buffer overflows manifest as crashes, memory corruption, or anomalous process behaviour, not time skew. Option B is wrong because a failing CMOS battery is a hardware maintenance issue; while it can cause clock drift, that is not why the offset matters forensically, and it is not the reason to record it during triage. Option C is wrong because Kerberos tolerates a default five-minute skew; AD join failures are a symptom, not the forensic rationale for documenting the time discrepancy.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

You are leading the eradication phase of a malware incident. Which TWO activities are essential to ensure the malware is completely removed and the system is restored to a trusted state? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Deleting all files in the temporary directories of the affected system.
B.Running a single antivirus scan and quarantining detected threats.
C.Disconnecting the system from the network and leaving it offline for 30 days.
D.Applying all missing security patches and updates to the affected system and its dependencies.
E.Reimaging the affected system from a known-good baseline image.
AnswersD, E

Applying missing patches closes the vulnerability that allowed the initial compromise, preventing immediate reinfection. Eradication is not complete without addressing the root cause. Patching the system and its dependencies ensures that the same attack vector cannot be reused, and it is a critical step before restoring the system to production.

Why this answer

Reimaging from a known-good baseline and applying all missing security patches are essential for complete eradication. Reimaging removes all malware artifacts, while patching eliminates the vulnerability that allowed the compromise. Together, they ensure the system is restored to a trusted state and reduce the risk of reinfection.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a single antivirus scan or deleting temporary files is sufficient for eradication, when in fact these actions often miss persistent malware components.

14
MCQhard

During an incident involving a web application, you discover that an attacker has uploaded a web shell to the server. You need to determine how the attacker uploaded the file. Which log source would provide the MOST relevant information about the upload mechanism?

A.Database logs showing INSERT statements into a files table.
B.Web server access logs showing POST requests to file upload endpoints.
C.Firewall logs showing outbound connections from the web server.
D.Operating system logs showing file creation events in the web root.
AnswerB

Web server access logs capture the HTTP method and URL of requests. A POST request to a file upload endpoint is the primary way files are uploaded. By examining these logs, you can identify the timestamp, source IP, and target endpoint used for the upload. This directly addresses how the web shell was placed on the server.

Why this answer

Web server access logs are the most direct source for identifying file upload attempts. They record the HTTP method, URL, and source IP of requests. By searching for POST requests to known upload endpoints around the time the web shell was created, you can pinpoint the upload mechanism and the attacker's IP.

Other logs may provide supporting context but are less specific.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on file creation events in OS logs, which show when but not how the file was uploaded, missing the HTTP request details in web server logs.

15
MCQhard

During a network incident, your IDS alerts on a series of TCP packets with the SYN flag set and a source IP of 10.20.5.14, but packet captures on the internal switch show that the actual Ethernet source MAC address belongs to a workstation in the finance VLAN, while the IP 10.20.5.14 is assigned to a server in the DMZ. The workstation's ARP cache lists the DMZ server's IP as being at the workstation's own MAC address. Which network-based attack technique is the workstation most likely performing?

A.MAC flooding
B.ARP cache poisoning
C.VLAN hopping
D.DHCP starvation
AnswerB

The workstation is sending forged ARP replies to associate the DMZ server's IP with its own MAC address, causing traffic destined for the server to be redirected to the attacker. The mismatch between the Ethernet source MAC and the IP source in captured packets confirms this Layer 2 redirection, which is the defining behavior of ARP cache poisoning in a switched network.

Why this answer

The workstation is poisoning ARP caches to redirect traffic intended for the DMZ server to itself. The telltale sign is that the Ethernet source MAC belongs to the finance workstation while the IP source is the DMZ server's address, and the workstation's ARP cache incorrectly maps that IP to its own MAC. This man-in-the-middle positioning allows the attacker to intercept or alter traffic before forwarding it.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing ARP cache poisoning with MAC flooding, because both manipulate Layer 2 addressing; the distinguishing evidence is that ARP poisoning creates specific IP-to-MAC mismatches, whereas MAC flooding overwhelms the switch CAM table.

16
MCQeasy

Which action should be taken after an email incident is contained and the indicators are identified?

A.Update security controls and user awareness programs
B.Ignore the event to focus on the next
C.Decommission the email server
D.Immediately delete all logs
AnswerA

Updating security controls and user awareness programmes directly addresses the root cause once containment and indicator identification are complete. This satisfies the stem's post-incident requirement by preventing recurrence, closing the gap that allowed the email incident, and hardening both technical defences and human behaviour against the same attack vector.

Why this answer

After containment and identification of indicators of compromise (IOCs), the post-incident phase requires updating security controls (e.g., email filters, blocklists, detection rules) and strengthening user awareness training to prevent recurrence. This aligns with the lessons-learned step of the incident response lifecycle.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing an extreme or dismissive action (decommission, delete logs, ignore) instead of the standard post-incident hardening and awareness step that the IR lifecycle prescribes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because ignoring the event forfeits the opportunity to harden defenses and allows the same attack to succeed again. Option C is wrong because decommissioning the email server is a disproportionate, destructive action that would disrupt business operations and is not a standard post-incident step. Option D is wrong because deleting logs destroys forensic evidence needed for investigation, compliance, and future detection — logs should be preserved and analyzed.

17
MCQhard

During an email incident investigation, an analyst extracts a suspicious macro-enabled document from a reported message. The document contains obfuscated VBA code that downloads a payload from a remote host. The analyst wants to safely determine the payload's network behavior without allowing execution on a production workstation. Which approach BEST supports this goal?

A.Open the document on an isolated virtual machine with macros enabled and monitor outbound connections
B.Use a static analysis tool to extract the VBA code and manually decode the obfuscated strings
C.Run the document in a production virtual desktop with endpoint detection enabled and collect alerts
D.Submit the document to a sandboxed malware analysis service and review the network indicators it reports
AnswerD

A sandboxed malware analysis service executes the sample in an instrumented, isolated environment and captures network traffic, dropped files, and process behavior. This allows the analyst to identify the payload's remote hosts and protocols without risking production systems. It is the most controlled and repeatable way to determine network behavior for a macro-enabled document in an incident response context.

Why this answer

Submitting the sample to a sandboxed malware analysis service provides a controlled environment where the document's macro can execute and its network activity can be observed without endangering production systems. The service captures DNS queries, HTTP requests, and other indicators that the analyst can use for blocking and scoping. Manual static decoding and production execution either miss runtime behavior or introduce unacceptable risk.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating static VBA extraction as equivalent to dynamic analysis, when only controlled execution reveals the actual network behavior of the payload.

18
MCQhard

A handler is documenting a confirmed breach of a customer database. Legal counsel needs to know the earliest point at which the organization 'knew' the incident occurred for regulatory reporting deadlines. During which phase of the incident handling process does this formal determination of incident occurrence typically get made?

A.Eradication
B.Preparation
C.Containment
D.Identification
AnswerD

Identification is where detected events are triaged and validated to determine whether they constitute a genuine incident. This validation point is when the organization effectively 'knows' an incident exists, which is what regulators and counsel use to start notification clocks. Documenting the time of this determination inside the incident ticket provides the defensible timestamp legal needs for breach reporting.

Why this answer

The moment an organization validates that a detected event is a real incident marks its awareness, and that determination is made during the identification phase. This timestamp is what legal and compliance teams use to calculate regulatory notification windows. Preparation precedes any event, while containment and eradication happen after awareness is already established, so none of those phases can define when the organization first knew.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming the legal reporting clock starts when cleanup finishes; in reality it starts at the identification-phase validation that a reportable incident exists.

19
MCQmedium

During an incident, a security analyst discovers that a compromised workstation is communicating with a known malicious IP address. The analyst wants to block the IP at the perimeter firewall. Which phase of the incident handling process does this action fall under?

A.Recovery
B.Eradication
C.Containment
D.Identification
AnswerC

Containment aims to limit the scope and impact of an incident. Blocking malicious communication at the firewall prevents further spread or data exfiltration, which is a classic containment action. It isolates the threat without necessarily eradicating it, aligning with the goal of stopping the incident from expanding.

Why this answer

Blocking a malicious IP at the firewall is a containment action because it stops the incident from spreading or causing further damage. Containment is about limiting the blast radius, and this step prevents additional communication with the attacker. Eradication would involve removing the threat, while identification and recovery have different goals.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing containment with eradication, as both involve taking action against the threat.

20
MCQmedium

A first responder arrives at a workstation where an employee is suspected of exfiltrating data via a USB device. The machine is powered on with a screensaver active. The responder must capture the current physical memory contents for later analysis. Which action should the responder take first?

A.Perform a hard shutdown by holding the power button, then remove the drive for forensic imaging.
B.Document the screen contents with a photograph, then reboot into a forensic Linux distribution to capture memory.
C.Press Ctrl+Alt+Delete to unlock the session, then run a memory acquisition tool from a USB drive.
D.Use a validated hardware-based memory acquisition device that captures RAM without altering the running system.
AnswerD

Hardware acquisition tools interface directly with the memory bus or use DMA to read RAM without executing code on the host, preserving the integrity of volatile data. This minimizes changes to the system state while capturing the exact contents needed for analysis. It is the preferred method when live memory capture is required and the system must remain powered on.

Why this answer

Capturing physical memory from a live system requires a method that does not significantly alter the system state. A hardware-based acquisition device reads RAM directly, preserving volatile evidence such as running processes and network connections. Other options either destroy memory or introduce changes that compromise the evidence, making them unsuitable for this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any live memory capture tool is acceptable, when in fact introducing software or rebooting alters the evidence and defeats the purpose of volatile data collection.

21
MCQmedium

During the first response to a compromised Windows workstation, you must capture volatile memory before shutting the system down. Which tool or technique is designed to acquire the full physical memory image while preserving its integrity for later analysis?

A.Create a System Restore point and then copy the pagefile.sys file.
B.Use WinPmem or a similar memory acquisition tool to dump physical memory to a removable drive.
C.Export the Windows Event Logs to a CSV file on the local disk.
D.Run a full antivirus scan from a write-protected USB drive.
AnswerB

WinPmem and comparable tools are specifically designed to acquire a forensic image of physical memory while minimizing changes to the system. They produce a raw memory dump that can be analyzed for running processes, network connections, and injected code. This directly satisfies the requirement to capture volatile memory before shutdown, preserving evidence that would otherwise be lost.

Why this answer

Capturing physical memory is critical in incident response because it contains running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and malware that may exist only in RAM. Tools like WinPmem are purpose-built to create a forensic image of memory without significantly altering the system state. Other options either capture different data types or modify the system, which would compromise the integrity of the volatile evidence needed for analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing memory acquisition with general forensic imaging or log collection, which do not capture the full contents of RAM.

22
MCQmedium

An incident handler is preparing to collect volatile evidence from a compromised Linux server that is still running. The handler must decide which data to capture first before memory-resident artifacts are lost. Which of the following should be collected FIRST?

A.The contents of /var/log directory including syslog and auth.log.
B.A full disk image of the server's primary storage volume.
C.The server's system configuration files from /etc.
D.Memory contents including running processes and active network connections.
AnswerD

The order of volatility places system memory, running processes, network connections, and other RAM-resident artifacts at the top. These are lost on shutdown or reboot, so they must be captured first. On a running Linux server, this includes process lists, open sockets, loaded modules, and memory images, all of which can reveal attacker activity not present on disk.

Why this answer

The order of volatility requires the most perishable evidence to be collected first. Memory-resident artifacts such as running processes and active network connections disappear on shutdown or reboot, so they must be captured before persistent data like logs, configuration files, or disk images. This preserves the most time-sensitive evidence for later analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that disk-resident logs or configuration files are the most important evidence, when they persist while volatile memory does not.

23
MCQeasy

A user reports that they received an email from 'IT Support' asking them to click a link to reset their password. The link goes to a domain that looks similar to the company's but has a different top-level domain. The user did not click the link. What is the FIRST action the incident handler should take?

A.Instruct the user to delete the email and then run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.
B.Immediately reset the user's password and revoke all active sessions.
C.Collect the email headers and the full message for analysis, and report the phishing attempt to the security team.
D.Block the sender's email address at the gateway and close the incident.
AnswerC

This is correct because the first step in handling a suspected phishing email is to preserve evidence and escalate. Collecting the full email with headers allows analysts to extract indicators, verify the sender, and determine if others received the same message. Reporting to the security team initiates the incident response process and enables blocking and user awareness actions.

Why this answer

The first action should be to preserve the email and escalate to the security team. Collecting headers and the full message enables analysis of the sender, links, and potential scope without altering evidence. Premature containment steps like password resets or deletions can disrupt the investigation and may not address the actual threat if the user did not interact with the link.

Exam trap

The trap here is jumping to containment actions like password resets or deletion before preserving and analyzing the email, even though the user did not click the link.

24
MCQhard

An analyst is investigating an email incident where several users received messages with a link to a legitimate file-sharing service. The link points to a document hosted on that service, and the document contains a macro that downloads a payload. The email gateway did not block the message because the link domain is reputable. Which technique is the attacker most likely using to evade email security controls?

A.Domain fronting to hide the true destination behind a trusted CDN.
B.Encrypting the email with S/MIME so the gateway cannot inspect the content.
C.Sending the message from a compromised internal account to bypass SPF checks.
D.Using a legitimate cloud service to host the malicious document, which bypasses reputation-based filtering.
AnswerD

Attackers increasingly host malicious documents on trusted cloud services because email gateways often allow links to well-known domains. The gateway sees a reputable URL and does not block it, while the hosted document contains the malicious macro. This technique leverages the trust placed in the cloud service's domain to evade reputation-based detection.

Why this answer

Hosting malicious documents on legitimate cloud services is an effective evasion because email gateways often trust well-known domains. The gateway sees a reputable URL and allows the message, while the document itself contains the malicious macro. Incident handlers should treat links to trusted services with the same scrutiny as any other link, especially when the document requests macro enablement.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a link to a well-known file-sharing service is safe simply because the domain has a good reputation, when the hosted content can still be malicious.

25
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered 'behavioral' indicators of a malware infection?

Select 3 answers
A.Unexplained outbound network connections to unknown IP addresses
B.A valid digital signature on a system file
C.High CPU utilization by an unknown background process
D.Frequent modifications to system-protected files
E.Presence of a file with a .txt extension
AnswersA, C, D

Unexplained outbound connections to unknown IP addresses indicate command-and-control beaconing or data exfiltration, a runtime behaviour rather than a static file signature. This makes it a behavioural indicator, distinguishing it from artefact-based detection such as file hashes or signatures.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because unexplained outbound network connections to unknown IP addresses are a behavioral indicator—they reflect the malware's runtime activity, such as command-and-control (C2) beaconing or data exfiltration, rather than a static artifact. Option C is correct because high CPU utilization by an unknown background process is behavioral: sustained resource consumption by an unrecognized process often signals cryptomining, worm propagation, or other malicious execution. Option D is correct because frequent modifications to system-protected files are behavioral, indicating ongoing tampering such as persistence mechanisms, rootkit installation, or system file replacement.

Option B does not belong because a valid digital signature on a system file is a static integrity attribute, not an observed behavior, and it actually suggests the file is legitimate. Option E does not belong because the mere presence of a .txt file is a static file attribute with no behavioral context and is not indicative of malware.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the distinction between static artifacts (file extensions, signatures) and dynamic behaviors, and candidates mistakenly select static attributes as behavioral indicators.

26
MCQhard

Which log file should you examine if you suspect an attacker is modifying the web server configuration files?

A.Audit logs (e.g., /var/log/audit/audit.log)
B.Application error logs
C.Web server status logs
D.Access logs
AnswerA

Audit logs record file access and modification events via the kernel audit subsystem, capturing writes to web server configuration paths such as httpd.conf or nginx.conf. This directly satisfies the scenario's need to identify who altered configuration files, since standard access logs only record HTTP requests, not filesystem changes.

Why this answer

Audit logs (e.g., /var/log/audit/audit.log) are the correct source because they capture system-level events including file modifications, permission changes, and access to critical configuration files via the Linux Audit subsystem. When an attacker tampers with web server configuration files such as httpd.conf or nginx.conf, the audit daemon (auditd) records the write, rename, or attribute-change syscalls against those file paths. This makes audit logs the authoritative record for detecting configuration tampering, unlike application-layer logs that only reflect the web server's own runtime behavior.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing application-layer logs (access, error, status) with host-level audit logs — candidates assume the web server's own logs would show configuration changes, but only OS-level auditing captures filesystem writes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because application error logs only record runtime errors, exceptions, and stack traces produced by the web application itself — they do not track filesystem writes to configuration files. Option C is wrong because web server status logs (e.g., Apache mod_status or nginx stub_status) report request throughput, worker state, and connection counts, not file integrity events. Option D is wrong because access logs record HTTP requests (client IP, method, URI, status code) and have no visibility into local file modifications on the server.

27
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of evidence are considered 'volatile'?

Select 2 answers
A.Optical disc contents.
B.System memory (RAM).
C.Hard drive data.
D.Network connection state tables.
E.Printed log files.
AnswersB, D

System memory (RAM) is volatile because its contents are lost when power is removed, satisfying the stem's requirement for evidence that degrades quickly. RAM holds running processes, encryption keys and network connections that vanish on shutdown, so it must be captured first, before disk imaging, to preserve forensic artefacts.

Why this answer

RAM and network connections are lost when power is removed or the system is reset.

28
MCQmedium

Which protocol is used in conjunction with SPF and DKIM to provide instructions to the receiver on how to handle emails that fail authentication?

A.SMTPS
B.IMAP
C.DMARC
D.POP3
AnswerC

DMARC builds on SPF and DKIM alignment, letting the domain owner publish a policy telling receivers whether to quarantine, reject or monitor messages failing authentication. SPF and DKIM alone verify origin but carry no handling instructions.

Why this answer

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) builds on SPF and DKIM by allowing domain owners to publish a policy that instructs receivers on how to handle emails that fail SPF and/or DKIM alignment checks. It also provides reporting mechanisms. SPF authenticates the sending server, DKIM cryptographically signs the message, and DMARC ties them together with a policy.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the relationship between SPF, DKIM, and DMARC, tricking candidates into choosing a transport or mailbox protocol (SMTPS, IMAP, POP3) when the question asks about authentication policy instructions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SMTPS is simply SMTP over TLS, providing encryption in transit, not authentication policy instructions. Option B is wrong because IMAP is a mailbox access protocol for retrieving email, unrelated to sender authentication. Option D is wrong because POP3 is also a mailbox retrieval protocol and has no role in email authentication or handling policies.

29
MCQhard

When investigating an incident on a virtualized platform (VMware), what is the first step to capture the state of the VM for analysis?

A.Take a VM snapshot with memory included.
B.Export the VM to OVF.
C.Power off the VM.
D.Clone the VM disk file.
AnswerA

A snapshot with memory captures the VM's volatile state, including running processes and RAM contents, alongside disk. This preserves forensic evidence that a disk-only snapshot or live login would alter, satisfying the requirement to capture the VM's state before any analysis begins.

Why this answer

For a virtualized platform like VMware, the first step to capture the state of a running VM for analysis is to take a snapshot that includes memory. This preserves the VM's disk and RAM state at a point in time, allowing later forensic analysis without altering the original. It is the virtual equivalent of capturing volatile memory and disk together.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing to power off or clone the disk; candidates must remember that memory capture is essential and snapshots with memory preserve the live state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because exporting to OVF captures the VM's configuration and disk but not the running memory state, and it may require powering off. Option C is wrong because powering off the VM destroys volatile memory and changes the system state, losing evidence. Option D is wrong because cloning the disk file only captures disk data, not memory, and may not preserve the running state.

30
MCQhard

You are reviewing logs from an EDR and see an indicator of 'Living off the Land' (LotL). Which tool usage would be considered an LotL attack?

A.Running a commercial vulnerability scanner
B.Installing a custom rootkit driver
C.Downloading an EXE from an unknown site
D.Executing encoded PowerShell scripts
AnswerD

Encoded PowerShell executes malicious instructions through a trusted, signed system binary, hiding intent in base64 and evading signature-based detection. This typifies Living off the Land, which abuses legitimate built-in tools rather than dropping custom malware, matching the EDR indicator described in the stem.

Why this answer

Using 'PowerShell.exe' to execute base64-encoded scripts directly from memory is a quintessential LotL technique.

31
MCQmedium

A healthcare organization's endpoint detection tool alerts on a workstation that is repeatedly connecting to a domain generated by a domain generation algorithm (DGA). The incident handler wants to proactively block future DGA domains before they are weaponized. Which containment strategy is most effective?

A.Add the specific DGA domain observed in the alert to the firewall's blocklist.
B.Disable outbound DNS traffic from all workstations except through an approved proxy.
C.Implement network segmentation to isolate the infected workstation from the rest of the network.
D.Configure the DNS resolver to block domains with high entropy and low reputation scores.
AnswerD

DGA domains are algorithmically generated and typically exhibit high entropy and poor reputation. Blocking such domains at the DNS resolver prevents resolution of future DGA domains without needing to know them in advance, effectively disrupting command-and-control communication. This is a proactive, scalable containment measure that does not rely on static blocklists and is appropriate for this scenario where the attacker rotates domains frequently.

Why this answer

DGA malware relies on generating many domain names to evade static blocklists. The most effective containment is to block domains based on characteristics like high entropy and low reputation at the DNS resolver, which can preemptively stop resolution of future DGA domains. This proactive approach disrupts C2 communication without requiring knowledge of specific domains.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that adding the observed DGA domain to a blocklist is sufficient, when in fact DGA generates many domains and only dynamic, behavior-based blocking can be effective.

32
MCQeasy

A user reports that their Windows 10 workstation is displaying a message claiming that all files have been encrypted and demanding payment in Bitcoin. The incident handler suspects ransomware. Which immediate action should the handler take first to prevent further encryption?

A.Restore the workstation from the most recent backup.
B.Disconnect the workstation from the network.
C.Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.
D.Pay the ransom to obtain the decryption key.
AnswerB

Disconnecting the workstation from the network immediately stops the ransomware from communicating with its C2 server and prevents it from encrypting files on network shares or spreading to other systems. This is the first containment step to limit the scope of the incident. It also preserves the state for forensic analysis and potential decryption.

Why this answer

The immediate priority in a ransomware incident is to contain the threat by disconnecting the infected system from the network. This prevents further encryption of local and network files, stops communication with command-and-control servers, and limits lateral movement. Other actions like antivirus scans or restoration should follow after containment.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that running antivirus or restoring backups is the first step, when in fact network isolation is critical to prevent the ransomware from spreading and causing more damage.

33
MCQhard

When DKIM signature verification fails, what is the most likely technical cause?

A.The sender's IP address is on a blocklist
B.The body of the message was modified in transit
C.The user clicked a phishing link
D.The SPF record is missing
AnswerB

DKIM signs selected headers and the body, so any alteration to the message body after signing invalidates the hash comparison. This directly satisfies the stem's constraint that verification failed due to content modification in transit.

Why this answer

DKIM uses a cryptographic signature over specified headers and the message body. If the body is modified in transit, the hash computed by the receiver will not match the signature, causing verification to fail. This is the most likely technical cause of DKIM failure.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing DKIM with SPF or IP reputation; candidates must remember DKIM is a signature over content, so body modification breaks it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an IP blocklist affects delivery or spam scoring, not DKIM signature verification; DKIM is independent of IP reputation. Option C is wrong because a user clicking a phishing link is a post-delivery action and does not affect DKIM verification. Option D is wrong because SPF is a separate email authentication mechanism; a missing SPF record does not cause DKIM failure.

34
MCQmedium

You are the first responder dispatched to a workstation suspected of being compromised by a phishing payload. The user is still logged in and a suspicious process is actively communicating over the network. Before you begin any data collection, what should you do first?

A.Run a full antivirus scan to identify and remove the malicious files before collecting evidence.
B.Document the current state of the screen, running applications, and visible network activity using a camera or screenshot tool.
C.Immediately power off the workstation to prevent further malware execution and data exfiltration.
D.Disconnect the workstation from the network and then begin collecting the hard drive for forensic imaging.
AnswerB

Capturing the live screen state preserves volatile visual evidence such as open windows, command prompts, and error messages that may disappear once the system is powered down or the user logs off. This documentation is a critical first step in first response, as it provides context and corroboration for later forensic analysis without altering the system.

Why this answer

The first action in first response is to document the scene and capture volatile evidence before it is lost. Photographing or screenshotting the screen preserves visible indicators like open applications and network activity. Powering off, scanning, or disconnecting prematurely can destroy or alter critical volatile data that is essential for understanding the incident and supporting later forensic analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that immediately powering off or disconnecting the system is the best way to preserve evidence, when in fact it destroys volatile data that should be documented first.

35
MCQmedium

During an incident involving a compromised web application, you review an Apache access.log entry that shows a request for /admin/config.php with a response code of 200, but the request originated from an external IP address never seen before. The application is configured to require authentication for that path. Which incident response action is MOST appropriate to determine the scope of the compromise?

A.Correlate the external IP with authentication logs to verify whether a valid session or credential was used.
B.Immediately block the external IP at the firewall and consider the incident contained.
C.Review the web server error logs for any 500 errors that occurred around the same time.
D.Check the file integrity of config.php to see if it was modified recently.
AnswerA

Correlating the external IP with authentication logs determines whether the request was authenticated, which is critical to understanding if credentials were compromised or if an authentication bypass occurred. This directly establishes the scope and method of the compromise, guiding containment and remediation. Without this correlation, you cannot distinguish between a legitimate user and an attacker exploiting a vulnerability.

Why this answer

The key to scoping this incident is determining whether the external request to a protected path was authenticated. Correlating the source IP with authentication logs reveals if a valid session or credential was used, which indicates whether credentials were compromised or an authentication bypass occurred. This directly informs containment and remediation efforts.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a 200 response to a protected resource always means the attacker bypassed authentication, when it could also indicate stolen credentials or a misconfigured access control.

36
MCQhard

During network forensics, you need to reconstruct an HTTP file transfer from a PCAP. Which Wireshark feature allows you to extract the file object directly from the stream?

A.Statistics > HTTP > Reassemble
B.File > Export Objects > HTTP
C.Edit > Follow > Stream Extract
D.Analyze > Extract File
AnswerB

Export Objects reconstructs transferred files by reassembling the HTTP response body from the TCP stream, giving the analyst the original object. This directly satisfies the requirement to extract a file from a PCAP without manually following and decoding each stream.

Why this answer

Wireshark's File > Export Objects > HTTP feature reconstructs and extracts files transferred over HTTP by reassembling TCP streams and parsing HTTP headers (Content-Type, Content-Length, Content-Disposition). It presents a list of all objects seen in the capture and allows saving them directly to disk, which is the standard method for recovering files from a PCAP during network forensics.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates know the exact Wireshark menu path for object extraction, and candidates confuse 'Follow TCP Stream' (which displays but doesn't save files) with 'Export Objects' (which reconstructs and saves files).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because there is no 'Statistics > HTTP > Reassemble' menu path in Wireshark; Statistics > HTTP shows request/response statistics, not file extraction. Option C is wrong because 'Edit > Follow > Stream Extract' does not exist — Follow TCP Stream is under Analyze, and it displays stream content but does not extract file objects. Option D is wrong because 'Analyze > Extract File' is not a Wireshark feature; file extraction is done via Export Objects.

37
MCQhard

During an investigation, you need to verify the integrity of a system configuration file. You have the original known-good hash. What does it mean if the hash of the current file matches the known-good hash?

A.The system is definitely not compromised
B.The file contents are identical to the known-good state
C.The file was recently updated by an administrator
D.The file is free of malware
AnswerB

A cryptographic hash is a fixed-length digest derived deterministically from the file's bytes. Any alteration—even a single character—produces a completely different digest. Matching the stored known-good value therefore confirms the current file's contents are byte-for-byte identical to the verified baseline.

Why this answer

If the hashes match, the file content has not changed, ensuring the file's integrity.

38
MCQeasy

A first responder arrives at a workstation where a user is suspected of exfiltrating data via a USB drive. The machine is still powered on. The responder must preserve the most volatile evidence first. Which artifact should be captured immediately?

A.The Windows Event Log files stored in C:\Windows\System32\winevt\Logs
B.A forensic image of the entire hard drive using a write-blocker
C.The contents of the pagefile.sys and hiberfil.sys files on the local disk
D.The current contents of physical memory (RAM) and running processes
AnswerD

RAM holds running processes, open network sockets, encryption keys, and volatile registry hives that vanish when power is removed. In a live USB exfiltration scenario, the responder must capture memory first because it contains the most perishable evidence, such as the process that accessed the USB device and any in-memory malware. This aligns with the order of volatility taught in incident handling.

Why this answer

The order of volatility dictates that the most perishable evidence be collected first. Physical memory and running processes are lost when the system is powered off, so they must be captured before any disk-based artifacts. Pagefile, hibernation files, disk images, and event logs are persistent and can be acquired afterward without losing their content.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that disk-based artifacts like the pagefile or event logs are as volatile as RAM because they may contain recent activity, when in fact they persist and can be collected later.

39
Multi-Selecthard

During a malware incident investigation, you observe a Windows host establishing periodic outbound HTTPS connections to an unknown IP address every 60 seconds, with small, uniform packet sizes. Which two characteristics most strongly indicate this is command-and-control (C2) beaconing rather than legitimate traffic? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The host has a valid digital certificate for the destination domain.
B.The connections occur at regular, fixed intervals with consistent timing.
C.The traffic uses HTTPS on port 443 to blend with normal web traffic.
D.The packet payload sizes are small and uniform across each connection.
E.The destination IP address belongs to a cloud hosting provider.
AnswersB, D

Fixed-interval connections with low jitter are a hallmark of automated beaconing, where malware sleeps for a set period before checking in with its C2 server. Legitimate applications typically exhibit variable timing driven by user activity or event-driven updates. Consistent periodicity, especially combined with other anomalies, strongly supports a C2 beaconing determination during network forensic analysis.

Why this answer

C2 beaconing is characterized by automated, periodic check-ins with consistent timing and small, uniform payloads. These behavioral patterns reflect the malware's sleep-and-callback logic rather than user-driven traffic. Neither the use of HTTPS, the cloud hosting provider, nor the presence of a valid certificate distinguishes malicious beaconing from legitimate encrypted web traffic, so those characteristics must not be treated as indicators on their own.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating encrypted HTTPS traffic or cloud-hosted destinations as inherently malicious, when those are common traits of legitimate services and only timing and payload consistency reveal beaconing behavior.

40
Multi-Selectmedium

A network incident responder is analyzing a suspected ARP poisoning attack on a local subnet. Which two indicators would most likely be observed in the network traffic or ARP cache? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Frequent ICMP redirect messages from the default gateway
B.A sudden increase in DNS query failures
C.A high volume of TCP SYN packets from a single host
D.Gratuitous ARP replies claiming an IP address already in use
E.Multiple IP addresses mapped to the same MAC address in the ARP cache
AnswersD, E

Gratuitous ARP replies are sent without a request to update ARP caches. In ARP poisoning, the attacker sends gratuitous ARP replies to overwrite legitimate entries, claiming that their MAC address corresponds to an IP like the gateway. This is a direct indicator of ARP spoofing and is often observed in packet captures.

Why this answer

ARP poisoning involves manipulating ARP caches to redirect traffic. Two key indicators are multiple IP addresses mapping to the same MAC address (often the attacker's) and gratuitous ARP replies that overwrite legitimate mappings. These directly reflect the attack mechanism.

Other indicators like DNS failures, ICMP redirects, or TCP SYN floods are not specific to ARP poisoning and would mislead the investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing ARP poisoning with other network attacks like DNS or TCP-based attacks, and overlooking the layer 2 specifics of ARP cache manipulation.

41
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample that uses 'API Hooking'. What is the goal of this technique?

A.Increasing CPU priority
B.Bypassing network authentication
C.Interception and manipulation of system calls
D.Preventing the system from hibernating
AnswerC

API hooking intercepts calls to system or library functions and redirects them to attacker-controlled code, letting malware hide files, registry keys or network activity while returning fabricated results. This manipulation of system calls defeats monitoring tools that rely on those APIs.

Why this answer

API hooking is a technique where malware intercepts calls to system or library functions (APIs) by redirecting execution to attacker-controlled code, allowing it to monitor, modify, or block the original function's behavior. The goal is interception and manipulation of system calls — for example, hiding files, suppressing AV alerts, or stealing credentials passed to APIs. This is a core evasion and data-theft mechanism.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates understand that API hooking is about intercepting and altering function calls — not about performance, networking, or power management, which are the obvious throwaway distractors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing CPU priority is a scheduling manipulation (e.g., SetPriorityClass) unrelated to hooking APIs. Option B is wrong because bypassing network authentication involves credential theft or protocol exploitation, not API interception. Option D is wrong because preventing hibernation is a power-management setting with no relationship to API hooking.

42
MCQeasy

A web application incident has been confirmed, and the responder needs to determine whether the attacker accessed sensitive customer records through a vulnerable API endpoint. Which log source should be examined first to identify the specific API calls and parameters used?

A.The web server access log containing request method, URI, status code, and user agent.
B.The database server error log capturing failed queries and connection issues.
C.The application server log that records API request payloads and response sizes.
D.The operating system authentication log recording successful and failed logins.
AnswerC

Application-level logs that capture request payloads and response metadata provide the detail needed to identify which API calls were made, what parameters were supplied, and how much data was returned. This directly supports determining whether sensitive records were accessed and which ones.

Why this answer

To determine whether specific customer records were accessed through an API, the responder needs application-level logs that capture request payloads and response details. These logs show the parameters and the volume of data returned, which allows correlation with database records. Web server access logs, database error logs, and OS authentication logs lack the necessary application context.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that web server access logs contain request bodies and parameters, when they typically record only method, URI, status, and user agent.

43
MCQhard

While analyzing an email header, you observe an SPF 'softfail'. What does this imply?

A.The sending IP is not listed in the domain's SPF record
B.The message was spoofed and must be blocked
C.The email has been encrypted with TLS
D.The email passed DKIM verification
AnswerA

This is the definition of a softfail.

Why this answer

A softfail (~all) indicates the server is not explicitly authorized but the domain owner is not strictly enforcing rejection.

44
MCQeasy

When segmenting a network to contain an incident, what is the best practice for a 'Jump Server' in a DMZ to limit the attack surface?

A.Whitelisting source IPs that can access the jump server
B.Enabling telnet for administrative flexibility
C.Disabling all logging to save space
D.Assigning the jump server a public IP address
AnswerA

Whitelisting permitted source IP addresses on the jump server ensures only authorised administrative hosts can initiate connections, sharply reducing exposed services in the DMZ. This directly limits the attack surface, satisfying the stem's segmentation best-practise requirement for containing an incident.

Why this answer

Restricting access to the jump server to only known source IPs significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

45
MCQeasy

Which role in the Incident Response Team is primarily responsible for ensuring that the incident handling activities remain aligned with organizational legal and privacy requirements?

A.Legal Counsel
B.Technical Investigator
C.Incident Lead
D.Communications Officer
AnswerA

Legal Counsel interprets applicable statutes, privacy regulations, and contractual obligations, then advises the team on evidence handling, notification duties, and disclosure limits. This keeps containment and investigation actions within legal boundaries, satisfying the requirement that incident handling align with organisational legal and privacy requirements.

Why this answer

The legal counsel or representative ensures that all actions taken during an incident are compliant with applicable laws.

46
MCQeasy

What is the 'First Responder Toolkit' used for during an incident?

A.To install new security software.
B.To permanently delete malicious files.
C.To provide remote access for the attacker.
D.To collect forensic artifacts without modifying the target system.
AnswerD

The First Responder Toolkit contains write-blocked acquisition utilities that capture volatile memory, disk images and logs while preserving evidential integrity. Collecting artefacts without modifying the target system maintains the chain of custody, which is the toolkit's defining purpose during the initial incident response phase.

Why this answer

A first responder toolkit provides pre-configured, trusted tools for incident triage and data collection.

47
MCQeasy

A user reports an email claiming to be from the IT helpdesk that asks them to click a link and re-enter their credentials because their mailbox is full. The user has not clicked the link. According to the Certified Incident Handler process, what is the most appropriate immediate action?

A.Instruct the user to delete the email and empty the deleted items folder.
B.Click the link from a sandboxed virtual machine to see where it leads.
C.Report the email to the security team and preserve it as evidence without clicking any links.
D.Forward the email to all staff as a warning about phishing.
AnswerC

The first step in handling a suspected phishing email is to report it to the security team and preserve the original message, including full headers, so it can be analyzed. Instructing the user not to interact with the message prevents credential compromise. This aligns with the containment and evidence preservation phases of incident handling.

Why this answer

When a user reports a suspected phishing email, the immediate priority is to prevent credential theft and preserve evidence. The user should not interact with the message, and the security team should be notified so the message can be analyzed and the campaign blocked. Deleting or forwarding the email prematurely can destroy evidence or spread the threat.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating a reported phishing email as a simple nuisance to delete or forward, rather than as potential evidence that must be preserved and analyzed.

48
MCQhard

A first responder is documenting a compromised Linux server. The server's system clock is accurate, but the file timestamps show inconsistencies. The responder needs to preserve the file system metadata for later analysis. Which action should be taken first to ensure the integrity of the metadata?

A.Copy the files to an external drive using cp -p to preserve timestamps.
B.Create a forensic image of the disk using dd and then analyze the image.
C.Use the touch command to update the timestamps to the current time for consistency.
D.Run the stat command on each file and save the output to a text file on the same server.
AnswerB

Creating a forensic image with dd preserves the exact state of the file system, including metadata such as timestamps, permissions, and inodes. Analyzing the image instead of the live system prevents accidental modification of metadata. This is the first step to ensure integrity because it captures a bit-for-bit copy that can be verified with hashes. Subsequent analysis on the image does not alter the original evidence.

Why this answer

To preserve file system metadata integrity, a forensic image should be created before any analysis. Imaging with dd captures all data and metadata without alteration. Commands like stat or cp -p do not provide a complete, verifiable copy and may alter the original.

Modifying timestamps with touch destroys evidence. Therefore, the first step is to create a forensic image.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that copying files with cp -p or running stat is sufficient to preserve metadata, when in fact only a forensic image ensures no alteration and captures all metadata including deleted entries.

49
MCQmedium

You have identified a malicious DLL that is being loaded by a legitimate process. Which tool allows you to view which DLLs are loaded by a specific process?

A.Task Scheduler
B.Disk Cleanup
C.Device Manager
D.Process Explorer
AnswerD

Process Explorer displays a process's loaded modules, including the DLL path, version and digital signature, directly satisfying the requirement to identify which DLLs a legitimate process has loaded. Its lower pane lists all DLLs and memory-mapped files, exposing the malicious DLL's location for removal or analysis.

Why this answer

Process Explorer's lower pane (when configured for DLLs) provides a clear list of all loaded modules/DLLs for any selected process.

50
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample that uses Domain Generation Algorithms (DGA). What is the primary purpose of DGA in malware?

A.Evading static C2 blocklists
B.Spreading via local network shares
C.Encrypting the malware payload
D.Hiding processes from Task Manager
AnswerA

DGA generates large volumes of pseudo-random domain names, so the malware cycles through many candidates until one resolves to a live command-and-control server. This defeats static blocklists, which can only enumerate known domains, directly satisfying the scenario's constraint of evading pre-compiled C2 blocklists.

Why this answer

DGA is used to generate a large number of domain names daily, making it difficult for defenders to block the command-and-control server effectively.

51
MCQhard

A web application is experiencing an incident where attackers are injecting malicious JavaScript into stored user comments. The application reflects the input without proper sanitization. Which mitigation technique, when implemented correctly, is most effective at preventing this type of attack from executing in victims' browsers?

A.Web Application Firewall (WAF) signature blocking
B.Input validation using a allowlist of permitted characters
C.Context-aware output encoding
D.Setting the HttpOnly flag on session cookies
AnswerC

Context-aware output encoding ensures that user-supplied data is treated as text, not code, when inserted into HTML, JavaScript, or other contexts. It neutralizes malicious scripts by converting special characters to their safe HTML entities. This is the primary defense against XSS because it prevents the browser from interpreting injected content as executable, regardless of where the data is reflected or stored.

Why this answer

Context-aware output encoding is the most effective mitigation for XSS because it ensures that any user input is rendered as inert text in the appropriate context (HTML, attribute, JavaScript, etc.). This prevents the browser from executing injected scripts. While input validation and WAFs add layers of defense, they are not foolproof and do not address the root cause.

HttpOnly protects cookies but not the XSS execution itself.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing XSS mitigation with session protection; HttpOnly is often mistakenly believed to prevent XSS, but it only protects cookies from being stolen, not the execution of malicious scripts.

52
MCQmedium

You are setting up a secure communication channel for the IR team during a major incident. Why is it recommended to use an out-of-band communication method?

A.To comply with the Acceptable Use Policy
B.To simplify documentation for the final report
C.To increase bandwidth for file transfers
D.To prevent the attacker from monitoring team communications
AnswerD

Out-of-band channels use separate infrastructure from the compromised production network, so an attacker with persistent access cannot intercept or monitor incident-response coordination. This satisfies the stem's requirement to keep team communications confidential during a major incident.

Why this answer

If the primary network is compromised, internal communication (email/Slack) may be monitored by the attacker.

53
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be recorded on a Chain of Custody (CoC) form when collecting a device?

Select 3 answers
A.Detailed physical description and identifiers (e.g., serial number).
B.Exact time and date of collection.
C.Name and signature of the individual collecting the item.
D.The social media passwords of the owner.
E.The home address of the user.
AnswersA, B, C

Recording a detailed physical description and unique identifiers such as serial numbers ties the evidence to the specific device, preventing substitution or ambiguity later. This supports the CoC requirement that every item be uniquely traceable throughout its custody.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because a Chain of Custody form must uniquely identify the evidence, so a detailed physical description (make, model, color, condition) plus unique identifiers such as the serial number, IMEI, or asset tag is recorded to distinguish the device from all others. Option B is correct because the exact time and date of collection establish when custody transferred and anchor the evidence timeline, which is essential for admissibility and for proving the item was not tampered with. Option C is correct because the name and signature of the individual collecting the item create accountability, showing exactly who took custody and enabling each subsequent transfer to be traced.

Option D is not included because owner social media passwords are not custody information and collecting them would be irrelevant and privacy-invasive. Option E is not included because the user's home address is not required to document the chain of custody of a device.

54
MCQeasy

An incident responder notices that a workstation is communicating with an external IP address on port 4444, and the traffic is encrypted. The workstation's user reports that the computer is running slowly. Which type of network incident is most likely indicated?

A.Peer-to-peer file sharing
B.Command and control (C2) communication
C.Legitimate remote desktop access
D.DNS tunneling
AnswerB

Port 4444 is commonly associated with Metasploit and other penetration testing tools, and encrypted traffic to an external IP on this port is a strong indicator of command and control communication. The slow performance could be due to the malware's activities, such as data exfiltration or resource consumption. This combination of factors points to a compromised host communicating with an attacker-controlled server.

Why this answer

The workstation is communicating with an external IP on port 4444 with encrypted traffic, and the user reports slow performance. Port 4444 is a default port for Metasploit and other attack tools, and encrypted C2 channels are common in malware. The slow performance could be due to the malware's operations.

This is a classic sign of a compromised host under command and control.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that encrypted traffic on a non-standard port is always benign or that slow performance is unrelated to network activity.

55
MCQhard

You are using NetFlow to identify lateral movement. You see a high volume of connections from a web server to an internal database server on port 3306. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

A.Examine the process list on the web server to identify the source of the connection
B.Reset the database server credentials
C.Block the web server access entirely
D.Increase the flow timeout settings
AnswerA

Examining the web server's process list identifies which executable initiated the MySQL connections, distinguishing legitimate application traffic from attacker tooling. NetFlow alone confirms volume and endpoints but not the originating process, so this step satisfies the need to attribute the port 3306 traffic before escalating or containing.

Why this answer

A high volume of connections from a web server to an internal database on port 3306 is suspicious because web servers typically connect to databases, but a sudden spike or unusual pattern may indicate lateral movement or data exfiltration. The most appropriate next step is to examine the process list on the web server to identify which process is initiating the connections — this could reveal a compromised web application, a malicious script, or an attacker's tool. This action is non-disruptive and directly identifies the source.

Exam trap

The trap is jumping to remediation (blocking, resetting credentials) instead of investigation — the exam tests whether you follow the incident response process of identification before containment, and whether you know that NetFlow alone cannot identify the process, requiring host-level analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because resetting database credentials is a disruptive remediation step that should only be taken after confirming a breach; it does not help identify the cause and may break legitimate applications. Option C is wrong because blocking the web server entirely is a drastic containment measure that could cause an outage; it should be a last resort after investigation, not the next step. Option D is wrong because increasing flow timeout settings only affects how long NetFlow records are aggregated; it does not help identify the source of the connections and is irrelevant to the investigation.

56
MCQhard

You are reviewing a suspicious macro in a Word document attachment. Which tool is best suited for static analysis of the macro code?

A.Oledump
B.Nmap
C.Wireshark
D.Volatility
AnswerA

Oledump parses OLE compound-file structures and extracts embedded VBA macro streams from Word documents without executing them, exposing the source code for inspection. This satisfies the static-analysis constraint: the analyst reads the macro's code directly rather than detonating it in a sandbox.

Why this answer

Oledump is a specialized tool for analyzing OLE (Object Linking and Embedding) files, including Word documents with VBA macros. It extracts and decompresses macro streams from the document, allowing static analysis of the macro code without executing it. This makes it the best choice for static analysis of a suspicious macro.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests tool-to-task mapping, tricking candidates into choosing network or memory forensics tools (Nmap, Wireshark, Volatility) when the task is static analysis of a document macro, which requires a specialized OLE parser like oledump.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning tool used for host discovery and port scanning, not for analyzing document macros. Option C is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that captures and inspects network traffic, not file contents. Option D is wrong because Volatility is a memory forensics framework for analyzing RAM dumps, not for static analysis of macro code in a document.

57
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE components are typically involved in a web application's logging infrastructure that an incident responder should audit?

Select 3 answers
A.Web server access and error logs
B.WAF audit logs
C.Printer spooler logs
D.Application-level audit logs
E.Hardware router logs
AnswersA, B, D

Web server access and error logs record inbound requests, response codes and server-side faults, forming the primary evidence source for reconstructing an attack against a web application. Auditing them satisfies the requirement to examine the components handling client traffic directly.

Why this answer

Option A (Web server access and error logs) is correct because these logs record every HTTP request, response code, source IP, and server-side errors, which are essential for reconstructing how an attacker interacted with the web application. Option B (WAF audit logs) is correct because a Web Application Firewall logs blocked, allowed, and flagged requests, revealing attempted exploits such as SQL injection or XSS that may not appear in normal server logs. Option D (Application-level audit logs) is correct because they capture business-logic events like authentication, authorization changes, and user actions, providing the internal context that infrastructure logs lack.

Option C (Printer spooler logs) is not relevant since print services are unrelated to web application request handling or attack surfaces. Option E (Hardware router logs) is not part of the web application's logging infrastructure, as routers operate at the network layer and do not record application-level activity.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates include irrelevant infrastructure logs (printer, router) instead of the three web-application-specific log sources.

58
MCQmedium

A malware infection has encrypted several network shares. You decide to restore from backups. What is the most critical step to perform before restoring data to the production environment?

A.Scan the backup media with the same AV used previously
B.Reboot the domain controllers
C.Restore data to a sandbox or isolated VLAN
D.Change all user passwords
AnswerC

Restoring to a sandbox or isolated VLAN lets you verify backup integrity and confirm malware is absent before production reconnection. This prevents reintroducing the infection or overwriting clean data, directly satisfying the stem's requirement for the most critical pre-restoration step.

Why this answer

Restoring data to a sandbox or isolated VLAN before production is the most critical step because it verifies the backups are clean and free of the ransomware or its persistence mechanisms. Ransomware frequently targets or encrypts backup repositories, and restoring directly to production risks reinfecting the environment. Testing in isolation confirms data integrity and allows scanning without exposing production systems.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that having backups is sufficient — candidates pick AV scanning or password changes, but the exam wants the validation-in-isolation step that prevents reinfection during recovery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because scanning backup media with the same AV that failed to detect the original infection provides false assurance — the malware may be a new variant or use evasion techniques the AV misses. Option B is wrong because rebooting domain controllers does not address the integrity of the backup data and may disrupt authentication services needed for recovery. Option D is wrong because changing user passwords, while a good post-incident hardening step, does not validate that the backups are clean and does not prevent reinfection from compromised data.

59
MCQhard

During a network incident, you observe a large volume of ARP replies from a single MAC address claiming to be the default gateway. Which containment action should you take first to mitigate the immediate threat while preserving evidence for forensic analysis?

A.Shut down the switch port where the malicious MAC address is connected
B.Capture network traffic and ARP tables, then isolate the affected VLAN
C.Configure a static ARP entry for the default gateway on critical hosts
D.Enable Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on all access ports
AnswerB

Capturing network traffic and ARP tables preserves volatile evidence such as the attacker's MAC address, IP, and the frequency of spoofed ARP replies. Isolating the affected VLAN (e.g., by moving it to a quarantine VLAN or applying an ACL) contains the threat by preventing the attacker from reaching other segments, while still allowing forensic investigation. This approach balances immediate mitigation with evidence preservation, which is critical for incident response.

Why this answer

The immediate threat is ARP spoofing, which can lead to man-in-the-middle attacks. The best first action is to capture volatile evidence (network traffic, ARP caches) before taking containment steps, then isolate the affected VLAN to prevent lateral movement. This preserves forensic artifacts while stopping the attack from spreading.

Other options either disrupt evidence, are not immediate, or do not contain the threat at the network level.

Exam trap

The trap here is opting for a quick technical fix like shutting down a port or enabling DAI, which may destroy evidence or cause collateral damage, instead of prioritizing evidence capture followed by network isolation.

60
Multi-Selectmedium

An incident handler is preparing the containment strategy for a compromised workstation that is communicating with a command-and-control server. Which TWO actions are appropriate immediate containment measures? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Reimage the workstation with a clean operating system.
B.Apply a firewall rule to block the known command-and-control IP address.
C.Disconnect the workstation from the network.
D.Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.
E.Power off the workstation immediately.
AnswersB, C

Blocking the command-and-control IP at the firewall prevents further communication from the compromised host and potentially other infected systems. This is a network-level containment measure that can be implemented quickly and does not require touching the endpoint, allowing the handler to maintain visibility while limiting the adversary's control channel.

Why this answer

Containment aims to stop the spread and limit damage while preserving evidence. Disconnecting the workstation from the network and blocking the command-and-control IP at the firewall achieve isolation without destroying volatile data. Powering off, reimaging, or running antivirus scans either destroy evidence or are remediation steps, not containment, and should be deferred until after analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing containment with eradication or recovery, leading to actions like powering off or reimaging that destroy evidence instead of isolating the threat.

61
Multi-Selectmedium

When eradicating malware, which TWO of the following steps are essential to ensure the host is fully cleaned and the entry point is secured?

Select 2 answers
A.Change the background wallpaper to a default image
B.Identify and patch the vulnerability that allowed entry
C.Install a new browser plugin
D.Delete all identified malicious artifacts
E.Clear the browser cache
AnswersB, D

Patching the exploited vulnerability closes the initial access vector, preventing immediate reinfection after cleaning. Eradication is incomplete if the entry point remains open, so remediation must include identifying the specific flaw and applying the vendor fix. This satisfies the stem's requirement to secure the entry point, not merely remove malware artefacts.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because identifying and patching the vulnerability that allowed entry closes the initial access vector, preventing reinfection or re-exploitation by the same malware or attacker. Option D is correct because deleting all identified malicious artifacts—such as malicious executables, registry keys, scheduled tasks, and persistence mechanisms—ensures the host is actually cleaned and no residual malware remains. Option A is not relevant, as changing the wallpaper has no security impact on malware eradication.

Option C is not relevant, since installing a new browser plugin does not address the infection or its entry point. Option E is insufficient on its own, as clearing the browser cache may remove some traces but does not eliminate malware or secure the vulnerability.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates understand that eradication includes root cause remediation — the trap is selecting only artifact deletion and forgetting that patching the entry vulnerability is equally essential to prevent reinfection.

62
MCQeasy

A network incident responder is analyzing a packet capture and notices a large number of TCP SYN packets sent from various source IP addresses to a single destination IP address on port 80, but no corresponding SYN-ACK packets. The destination server is unresponsive. Which type of network incident is most likely occurring?

A.A SYN flood denial-of-service attack.
B.A brute-force attack against a web application.
C.A distributed denial-of-service attack using UDP amplification.
D.A port scan using TCP SYN packets.
AnswerA

The pattern of many SYN packets to a single destination without SYN-ACK responses is classic for a SYN flood. The attacker sends numerous SYN requests, exhausting the server's connection table, causing it to become unresponsive. The lack of SYN-ACKs indicates the server is overwhelmed or the source IPs are spoofed. This is a denial-of-service attack aimed at making the service unavailable.

Why this answer

The correct answer is a SYN flood denial-of-service attack. The key indicators are the high volume of TCP SYN packets to a single destination port, the absence of SYN-ACK responses, and the server becoming unresponsive. This exhausts the server's resources, preventing legitimate connections.

Other options like port scanning, brute-forcing, or UDP amplification do not match the observed TCP SYN pattern and lack of responses.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing a SYN flood with a port scan because both use SYN packets, but a port scan targets multiple ports and expects responses, while a SYN flood targets one service and overwhelms it.

63
MCQmedium

An employee receives a message that appears to come from the CEO asking for an urgent gift card purchase, and the reply-to address is a free webmail account. The employee reports it without clicking anything. Which containment action is most appropriate at this stage?

A.Close the incident because no user interaction occurred and no systems were affected
B.Immediately disable the employee's account and force a password reset
C.Reimage the employee's workstation to remove any potential persistence
D.Block the sender address at the email gateway and search the environment for other recipients of the same message
AnswerD

Blocking the sender and searching for other recipients limits the blast radius of the campaign and identifies colleagues who may have already acted on it. It is proportionate to a reported, unclicked phishing message and gives the handler the scope needed to decide whether further containment, such as credential resets, is warranted.

Why this answer

The message was reported without interaction, so the proportionate response is to block the sender and determine who else received it. This scopes the campaign and identifies any colleague who may have acted, while avoiding disruptive actions such as account disablement or reimaging that the evidence does not support.

Exam trap

The trap here is escalating straight to account disablement or reimaging when the user only reported the message.

64
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following steps are required when performing a post-mortem analysis of an email incident?

Select 2 answers
A.Promoting the security analyst involved
B.Contacting the local law enforcement authorities
C.Evaluating the performance of security controls
D.Reviewing the incident response timeline and logs
E.Deleting all evidence to maintain privacy
AnswersC, D

Post-mortem analysis requires assessing whether existing security controls performed as intended during the incident, identifying gaps that allowed delivery or detection failure. This evaluation directly informs remediation and control hardening, satisfying the review's requirement to determine why controls did not prevent or flag the email threat.

Why this answer

Option C (Evaluating the performance of security controls) is correct because a post-mortem analysis must determine whether existing controls such as email gateways, spam filters, attachment sandboxing, and endpoint detection actually detected, blocked, or failed to stop the malicious email, so that gaps can be remediated. Option D (Reviewing the incident response timeline and logs) is correct because reconstructing the sequence of events from email gateway logs, mail server logs, EDR telemetry, and analyst actions is essential to identify what happened, how quickly the team responded, and where the process can be improved. Option A is not a required post-mortem step; promotions are an HR matter unrelated to analyzing the incident.

Option B is not always required; law enforcement is contacted only when the incident meets legal or organizational thresholds, not as a standard post-mortem step. Option E is wrong because deleting evidence destroys the data needed for root-cause analysis, timeline reconstruction, and any legal or compliance obligations.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the scope of post-mortem activities, tricking candidates into selecting containment or legal actions (like law enforcement contact) that belong to earlier phases or are conditional, rather than the analytical steps of control evaluation and timeline review.

65
MCQmedium

During a web application incident, an analyst observes that an attacker is injecting malicious JavaScript into a comment field that is stored and later displayed to other users. Which type of web application incident is this?

A.Reflected cross-site scripting (XSS)
B.Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
C.SQL injection
D.Stored cross-site scripting (XSS)
AnswerD

Stored XSS occurs when user input containing malicious script is persistently stored by the application (e.g., in a database, comment field, or log) and later rendered to other users without proper sanitization. The scenario describes exactly this: a comment field that stores the script and displays it to others, making it a persistent threat.

Why this answer

Stored XSS is identified when malicious script is saved by the application and later served to other users. The comment field acts as a persistent storage point, and the script executes in the browsers of anyone viewing the comment. This differs from reflected XSS, which is non-persistent, and from other injection types that target different components.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing stored XSS with reflected XSS because both involve script injection, but the key differentiator is persistence in the application's data store.

66
Multi-Selectmedium

You are a first responder tasked with collecting volatile data from a compromised Windows system. Which two of the following commands or tools are appropriate for capturing network connection information? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.route print
B.Get-NetTCPConnection
C.arp -a
D.ipconfig /all
E.netstat -ano
AnswersB, E

Get-NetTCPConnection is a PowerShell cmdlet that lists active TCP connections and their states. It provides similar information to netstat but in a structured, object-oriented format that can be easily exported or filtered. It is a legitimate tool for capturing volatile network connection data on Windows systems, especially in modern environments where PowerShell is available.

Why this answer

Capturing network connection information is critical to identify active communications, such as command-and-control channels. Both netstat -ano and Get-NetTCPConnection provide a list of active TCP connections and listening ports, along with the associated process IDs. These tools are built into Windows and can be run without additional software, making them ideal for first response.

Other commands like ipconfig, route print, and arp -a provide configuration or cache data but not active connection details.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network configuration data (like ipconfig) with actual active connection data, which requires commands that list connections and listening ports.

67
MCQeasy

An analyst is reviewing logs from an EDR solution. They see a 'process hollowing' event. What is the primary purpose of this malware technique?

A.Brute-forcing system credentials
B.Hiding malicious code inside a legitimate process
C.Encrypting local user files
D.Creating a hidden user account
AnswerB

Process hollowing unmounts a legitimate executable's memory and injects malicious code into that reserved space, so the payload executes under a trusted process identity. This satisfies the scenario's requirement to conceal activity from the EDR solution, since monitoring sees a signed, benign parent rather than an unknown binary.

Why this answer

Process hollowing is a code-injection technique in which malware creates a legitimate process in a suspended state, unmaps its original code from memory, and replaces it with malicious code, then resumes execution. The primary purpose is to hide malicious activity inside a trusted, legitimate process so that it evades detection by security tools that trust known executables. This is why EDR solutions flag it as a high-severity event.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates can distinguish malware techniques by objective — the trap is confusing process hollowing (defense evasion via injection) with ransomware encryption or persistence techniques because all three appear in the same incident.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because brute-forcing credentials is a credential-access technique (e.g., password spraying, credential stuffing) and is unrelated to process hollowing, which is a defense-evasion/injection technique. Option C is wrong because encrypting local user files describes ransomware behavior, not process hollowing — although ransomware may use process hollowing as a delivery mechanism, encryption is not its purpose. Option D is wrong because creating a hidden user account is a persistence technique (e.g., via net user or registry manipulation), not the objective of process hollowing.

68
MCQmedium

You are analyzing a malware sample using Cuckoo Sandbox. The report shows the malware is attempting to modify the 'HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run' registry key. What is the intent of this activity?

A.Injecting code into explorer.exe
B.Escalating user privileges
C.Establishing system persistence
D.Disabling the Windows Firewall
AnswerC

Writing to the Run key causes Windows to execute the listed program automatically at every user logon, so the malware survives reboots without any user action. This satisfies the persistence objective by embedding an autostart entry in the registry.

Why this answer

The Windows Run registry key is a well-known autostart location that causes programs to execute automatically when a user logs in. Malware modifying this key is attempting to ensure it runs every time the system starts, which is the definition of establishing persistence. This technique is catalogued in MITRE ATT&CK as T1547.001 (Registry Run Keys / Startup Folder).

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the confusion between persistence and other malware objectives — candidates may pick privilege escalation or code injection when the specific registry key clearly indicates autostart persistence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because code injection into explorer.exe involves process manipulation (e.g., via CreateRemoteThread), not registry modification. Option B is wrong because privilege escalation typically involves exploiting vulnerabilities or misconfigured permissions, not writing to a user-level Run key. Option D is wrong because disabling the Windows Firewall would involve modifying firewall-specific registry keys or service settings, not the Run key.

69
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be part of a first responder's physical toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.A copy of all user passwords.
B.Bootable forensic collection drive.
C.Hardware write blocker.
D.A commercial email marketing tool.
E.A wireless router.
AnswersB, C

A bootable forensic collection drive lets the responder boot the suspect machine into a trusted environment, capturing volatile memory and disk images without altering the installed operating system. This satisfies the stem's physical toolkit requirement by enabling evidence preservation at the scene before any shutdown or tampering occurs.

Why this answer

A first responder's physical toolkit must enable volatile and non-volatile evidence capture without altering the original media, so option B (a bootable forensic collection drive) is correct because it lets the responder boot a trusted forensic environment and run imaging/hashing tools (e.g., dd, FTK Imager, EnCase) to acquire a bit-for-bit copy of the suspect system while preserving integrity. Option C (a hardware write blocker) is also correct because it enforces a read-only connection between the suspect drive and the acquisition host at the hardware level, preventing any writes or metadata changes that would break the chain of custody and violate the order of volatility. Option A is wrong because storing all user passwords is a security and privacy risk and is not a legitimate forensic collection tool; credentials should be obtained through proper legal/administrative channels, not carried by responders.

Option D is wrong because a commercial email marketing tool has no role in evidence acquisition or preservation. Option E is wrong because a wireless router is network infrastructure, not a standard first-responder forensic collection item, and introducing one could alter the environment rather than preserve it.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the difference between tools that preserve evidence integrity (write blockers, bootable forensic media) and items that sound technical but have no forensic role, trapping candidates who pick generic IT gear.

70
MCQmedium

An organization is conducting a post-incident review after a major data breach. The team must document the incident timeline, root cause, and corrective actions. Which phase of the incident handling process does this activity belong to?

A.Post-incident activity
B.Preparation
C.Containment
D.Identification
AnswerA

Post-incident activity, also known as lessons learned, is the phase where the team reviews the incident to improve future response. It involves documenting the timeline, identifying the root cause, and recommending corrective actions. This phase ensures that the organization learns from the incident and updates its procedures, making it the correct phase for the described activity.

Why this answer

The post-incident activity phase encompasses all actions taken after the incident is resolved, including reviewing what happened, why it happened, and how to prevent recurrence. Documenting the timeline, root cause, and corrective actions is central to this phase. Preparation, identification, and containment are earlier phases focused on readiness, detection, and damage limitation, respectively.

Thus, the post-incident review belongs to post-incident activity.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that root cause analysis occurs during identification or containment, when it is actually part of the post-incident review.

71
MCQeasy

During the identification phase, you notice a high volume of traffic from an unknown IP to your web server. What is the most appropriate action to take first?

A.Block the IP at the firewall immediately
B.Notify the local law enforcement
C.Analyze the traffic logs to determine the nature of the activity
D.Shut down the web server
AnswerC

Log analysis establishes whether the traffic is malicious or benign before committing to containment or blocking, which could disrupt legitimate users. It satisfies the identification phase's need to characterise the activity, giving evidence to justify any escalation.

Why this answer

Analyzing the traffic confirms whether it is an attack or benign activity before taking disruptive action.

72
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an Incident Response (IR) policy?

A.To monitor network traffic for threats
B.To define the budget for new security tools
C.To establish the authority and framework for incident management
D.To provide step-by-step instructions for patching servers
AnswerC

An IR policy grants the incident response team formal mandate, defining roles, escalation paths and decision rights. This authority framework lets responders act decisively during incidents without seeking ad hoc approval, which is its primary function.

Why this answer

An IR policy is a high-level governance document that assigns authority, defines the scope of the incident response programme, and establishes the framework within which procedures and plans operate. It answers 'who is in charge and under what mandate', not 'how do I remove malware'. It is approved by executive management and provides the organisational legitimacy for the IR team to act.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing policy with procedure — candidates pick the operational or tactical answer (monitoring, patching) when the question asks about the governance-level document that establishes authority and framework.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because monitoring network traffic is an operational control performed by IDS/IPS and SIEM tools, not the function of a policy document. Option B is wrong because budgeting for security tools is a financial planning activity, not the purpose of an IR policy — the policy may reference resourcing, but it does not define budgets. Option D is wrong because step-by-step patching instructions belong in a procedure or runbook, which sits at the lowest level of the policy hierarchy, well below the policy itself.

73
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of the 'Preparation' phase in the incident response lifecycle?

A.To contain the threat
B.To analyze the incident after it happens
C.To establish the capabilities and resources for response
D.To provide training to end users
AnswerC

Preparation builds the incident response capability before incidents occur: tools, communications channels, trained personnel, playbooks and authority. It establishes the resources and capabilities that later phases depend on, rather than detecting, containing or eradicating a specific incident.

Why this answer

The Preparation phase in the incident response lifecycle exists to build the capabilities, tools, communication paths, and resources needed before an incident occurs, so the organization can respond effectively when one does. It covers establishing the IR team, acquiring tooling, defining policies and playbooks, and conducting training and exercises. This is distinct from the reactive phases (detection, containment, eradication, recovery) that only execute once an incident is underway.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates can distinguish the proactive Preparation phase from reactive phases — the trap is selecting a containment or analysis activity because it sounds like 'response,' when the question specifically asks about the pre-incident phase.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because containment is a distinct, later phase of the IR lifecycle that occurs after detection and analysis, not during preparation. Option B is wrong because post-incident analysis (lessons learned) happens in the post-incident activity phase after recovery, not in preparation. Option D is wrong because while end-user awareness training can be part of preparation, it is only one sub-activity and not the primary purpose — the primary purpose is establishing overall response capabilities and resources, not delivering training.

74
MCQmedium

During a network incident, you observe a compromised host repeatedly connecting to an external IP on TCP port 443. The traffic is encrypted, but the connection duration is unusually short and the bytes transferred are small and consistent. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this traffic pattern?

A.The host is downloading a large file over HTTPS.
B.The host is performing a vulnerability scan against the external IP.
C.The host is using a peer-to-peer file sharing application.
D.The host is communicating with a command-and-control server using HTTPS beaconing.
AnswerD

Short, periodic connections to an external IP on TCP port 443 with small, consistent data transfers are characteristic of beaconing behavior. Malware often uses HTTPS to blend in with normal traffic, and the regular intervals and small payloads are designed to check for commands without attracting attention. This pattern strongly suggests command-and-control communication.

Why this answer

The correct answer is the one describing command-and-control beaconing. The scenario describes short, periodic connections with small, consistent data transfers to an external IP on TCP port 443. This is a classic indicator of malware beaconing, where the compromised host checks in with a C2 server at regular intervals.

The use of HTTPS helps the traffic evade detection by blending with legitimate encrypted traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any encrypted traffic on port 443 is benign web browsing, when in fact attackers frequently use HTTPS for command-and-control to evade detection.

75
MCQmedium

A malware incident has been detected on a Windows server. The incident handler needs to identify the persistence mechanism used by the malware. The handler runs the 'Autoruns' tool and observes an entry in the 'Scheduled Tasks' tab that points to a suspicious executable in the user's AppData folder. Which Windows feature is being abused for persistence?

A.Task Scheduler
B.Startup folder
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) event subscription
D.Registry Run keys
AnswerA

Task Scheduler allows programs to be executed at specific times or in response to events. Malware often creates scheduled tasks to maintain persistence. The presence of a suspicious executable in the Scheduled Tasks tab of Autoruns indicates that the malware is using Task Scheduler for persistence.

Why this answer

The Scheduled Tasks tab in Autoruns displays tasks that are configured to run automatically. Malware can create scheduled tasks to ensure it executes after reboots or at specific intervals. Identifying the task and its associated executable is crucial for eradication.

The other options are different persistence mechanisms that would appear in other tabs of Autoruns.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing different persistence mechanisms that Autoruns can display, such as Registry Run keys or WMI subscriptions, with Scheduled Tasks. The key is to note the specific tab mentioned in the scenario.

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