Courseiva

Certified Incident Handler (212-89) (212-89) — Questions 175

206 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQmedium

During the lessons learned phase of a P1 incident, you notice that the incident handling policy failed to define clear 'Rules of Engagement' for containment, leading to accidental service disruption. Which document should be updated to address this deficiency?

A.The Corporate Acceptable Use Policy
B.The Incident Response Plan (IRP)
C.The Network Topology Map
D.The Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
AnswerB

The IRP is the operational document that dictates how containment actions are performed and the rules governing them.

Why this answer

The Incident Response Plan (IRP) contains the specific procedures and rules for containment, and it must be updated to prevent future operational failures.

2
MCQmedium

You are performing incident response on a web server compromised via Directory Traversal. What command is most useful for identifying the specific files accessed in the logs?

A.grep -r "../" /var/log/apache2/access.log
B.grep -r "SELECT" /var/log/apache2/access.log
C.grep -r "<script>" /var/log/apache2/access.log
D.tail -f /var/log/auth.log
AnswerA

This command searches for the standard parent directory traversal sequence.

Why this answer

Using grep to search for traversal sequences like '../' within the access logs is the standard method for finding these attempts.

3
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors should be considered when tuning a WAF to reduce false positives for an application?

Select 3 answers
A.The number of users accessing the site
B.The specific needs and expected input patterns of the application
C.The geographic location of the servers
D.The impact of the proposed exception on the overall security posture
E.The frequency and type of false positives being logged
AnswersB, D, E

Understanding the application helps create accurate and valid rules.

Why this answer

Tuning must balance security requirements, application behavior, and maintenance of the rule set.

4
MCQeasy

When identifying stakeholders to notify during an incident, which group should be notified first?

A.The local police.
B.The incident response team.
C.The company board of directors.
D.The public.
AnswerB

Activation of the response team is the first step in the formal process.

Why this answer

The technical incident response team must be activated immediately to manage the incident.

5
MCQeasy

What is the primary risk associated with 'Executive Spoofing' or BEC (Business Email Compromise)?

A.Financial loss via unauthorized transfers
B.System performance degradation
C.Infrastructure downtime
D.Spam distribution
AnswerA

This is the primary motive.

Why this answer

BEC targets employees to perform unauthorized financial transfers through social engineering.

6
MCQeasy

During initial triage, you identify that a system's time is significantly out of sync with the NTP server. Why is this critical to record during the first response?

A.It is a sign of an active buffer overflow attack.
B.Because it indicates the BIOS battery is failing.
C.It affects the ability of the system to join the Active Directory domain.
D.To ensure that file system timestamps can be accurately correlated with other logs.
AnswerD

Inaccurate clocks make log correlation nearly impossible without a known time offset.

Why this answer

Timeline analysis is central to IR; inaccurate system clocks will misrepresent the sequence of events in logs.

7
MCQeasy

Which action should be taken after an email incident is contained and the indicators are identified?

A.Update security controls and user awareness programs
B.Ignore the event to focus on the next
C.Decommission the email server
D.Immediately delete all logs
AnswerA

This is the standard post-incident step.

Why this answer

Post-incident activities include updating policies and procedures to prevent recurrence.

8
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered 'behavioral' indicators of a malware infection?

Select 3 answers
A.Unexplained outbound network connections to unknown IP addresses
B.A valid digital signature on a system file
C.High CPU utilization by an unknown background process
D.Frequent modifications to system-protected files
E.Presence of a file with a .txt extension
AnswersA, C, D

This indicates beaconing or exfiltration behavior.

Why this answer

Behavioral indicators involve the actions the malware takes, such as modifying system files, changing network configurations, or unexpected outbound connections.

9
MCQhard

Which log file should you examine if you suspect an attacker is modifying the web server configuration files?

A.Audit logs (e.g., /var/log/audit/audit.log)
B.Application error logs
C.Web server status logs
D.Access logs
AnswerA

Audit logs record system calls and file modifications, which are necessary for identifying unauthorized configuration changes.

Why this answer

System-level audit logs like 'auditd' or file integrity monitoring logs track changes to sensitive configuration files.

10
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of evidence are considered 'volatile'?

Select 2 answers
A.Optical disc contents.
B.System memory (RAM).
C.Hard drive data.
D.Network connection state tables.
E.Printed log files.
AnswersB, D

Memory is the most volatile evidence.

Why this answer

RAM and network connections are lost when power is removed or the system is reset.

11
MCQhard

You have identified an active C2 beacon on a corporate server. You are instructed to implement 'Containment' via network segmentation. Which configuration change on a Cisco ASA firewall provides the most effective containment while still allowing for remote forensic forensic analysis?

A.Disable the interface in the server's OS.
B.Change the server's default gateway to a null route.
C.Apply an ACL to the ingress interface that permits traffic only from the IR forensic workstation IP.
D.Shut down the switch port connected to the server.
AnswerC

This allows the responder to maintain access while stopping the C2 communication and lateral movement.

Why this answer

Creating a restrictive ACL that allows only the IR team's management IP to access the compromised server while blocking all other traffic is the best practice for controlled containment.

12
MCQmedium

Which protocol is used in conjunction with SPF and DKIM to provide instructions to the receiver on how to handle emails that fail authentication?

A.SMTPS
B.IMAP
C.DMARC
D.POP3
AnswerC

DMARC defines the policy.

Why this answer

DMARC provides the policy instructions for SPF and DKIM failures.

13
MCQhard

When investigating an incident on a virtualized platform (VMware), what is the first step to capture the state of the VM for analysis?

A.Take a VM snapshot with memory included.
B.Export the VM to OVF.
C.Power off the VM.
D.Clone the VM disk file.
AnswerA

This preserves both the disk and the RAM in a single, forensic-ready package.

Why this answer

Taking a VM snapshot captures the memory and disk state of the VM, which is the equivalent of a live acquisition.

14
MCQhard

You are reviewing logs from an EDR and see an indicator of 'Living off the Land' (LotL). Which tool usage would be considered an LotL attack?

A.Running a commercial vulnerability scanner
B.Installing a custom rootkit driver
C.Downloading an EXE from an unknown site
D.Executing encoded PowerShell scripts
AnswerD

This abuses trusted native binaries to execute malicious code.

Why this answer

Using 'PowerShell.exe' to execute base64-encoded scripts directly from memory is a quintessential LotL technique.

15
MCQhard

When DKIM signature verification fails, what is the most likely technical cause?

A.The sender's IP address is on a blocklist
B.The body of the message was modified in transit
C.The user clicked a phishing link
D.The SPF record is missing
AnswerB

Modification breaks the cryptographic hash.

Why this answer

DKIM verification fails if the body content or headers were altered after signing.

16
MCQhard

During network forensics, you need to reconstruct an HTTP file transfer from a PCAP. Which Wireshark feature allows you to extract the file object directly from the stream?

A.Statistics > HTTP > Reassemble
B.File > Export Objects > HTTP
C.Edit > Follow > Stream Extract
D.Analyze > Extract File
AnswerB

This menu path is the standard method for extracting files from HTTP streams.

Why this answer

The 'Export Objects' feature in Wireshark is designed to reassemble and extract files from protocols like HTTP, SMB, and DICOM.

17
MCQhard

During an investigation, you need to verify the integrity of a system configuration file. You have the original known-good hash. What does it mean if the hash of the current file matches the known-good hash?

A.The system is definitely not compromised
B.The file contents are identical to the known-good state
C.The file was recently updated by an administrator
D.The file is free of malware
AnswerB

Cryptographic hashes verify that the file data has not been altered.

Why this answer

If the hashes match, the file content has not changed, ensuring the file's integrity.

18
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample that uses 'API Hooking'. What is the goal of this technique?

A.Increasing CPU priority
B.Bypassing network authentication
C.Interception and manipulation of system calls
D.Preventing the system from hibernating
AnswerC

Hooking allows the malware to intercept and alter system API execution.

Why this answer

API Hooking intercepts calls to system functions to modify their return values or redirect them, often used by malware to hide files or processes.

19
MCQeasy

A user's session is hijacked. Which log attribute is most helpful in confirming the hijack occurred?

A.User-Agent string
B.Request timestamp
C.Remote IP address
D.HTTP Referer
AnswerA

A sudden change in the User-Agent for a persistent session ID strongly suggests an attacker has taken over the session.

Why this answer

Observing a change in the User-Agent string while the session ID remains constant is a strong indicator of session hijacking.

20
MCQhard

While analyzing an email header, you observe an SPF 'softfail'. What does this imply?

A.The sending IP is not listed in the domain's SPF record
B.The message was spoofed and must be blocked
C.The email has been encrypted with TLS
D.The email passed DKIM verification
AnswerA

This is the definition of a softfail.

Why this answer

A softfail (~all) indicates the server is not explicitly authorized but the domain owner is not strictly enforcing rejection.

21
MCQeasy

When segmenting a network to contain an incident, what is the best practice for a 'Jump Server' in a DMZ to limit the attack surface?

A.Whitelisting source IPs that can access the jump server
B.Enabling telnet for administrative flexibility
C.Disabling all logging to save space
D.Assigning the jump server a public IP address
AnswerA

Limiting source access is a fundamental security control.

Why this answer

Restricting access to the jump server to only known source IPs significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

22
MCQeasy

Which role in the Incident Response Team is primarily responsible for ensuring that the incident handling activities remain aligned with organizational legal and privacy requirements?

A.Legal Counsel
B.Technical Investigator
C.Incident Lead
D.Communications Officer
AnswerA

Legal counsel ensures the team does not violate privacy laws or organizational liability policies.

Why this answer

The legal counsel or representative ensures that all actions taken during an incident are compliant with applicable laws.

23
MCQeasy

What is the 'First Responder Toolkit' used for during an incident?

A.To install new security software.
B.To permanently delete malicious files.
C.To provide remote access for the attacker.
D.To collect forensic artifacts without modifying the target system.
AnswerD

The kit ensures data integrity and consistency.

Why this answer

A first responder toolkit provides pre-configured, trusted tools for incident triage and data collection.

24
MCQmedium

You have identified a malicious DLL that is being loaded by a legitimate process. Which tool allows you to view which DLLs are loaded by a specific process?

A.Task Scheduler
B.Disk Cleanup
C.Device Manager
D.Process Explorer
AnswerD

The 'Show DLLs' feature in Process Explorer identifies all loaded modules.

Why this answer

Process Explorer's lower pane (when configured for DLLs) provides a clear list of all loaded modules/DLLs for any selected process.

25
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample that uses Domain Generation Algorithms (DGA). What is the primary purpose of DGA in malware?

A.Evading static C2 blocklists
B.Spreading via local network shares
C.Encrypting the malware payload
D.Hiding processes from Task Manager
AnswerA

By constantly rotating domains, the malware avoids reliance on a single static IP/domain.

Why this answer

DGA is used to generate a large number of domain names daily, making it difficult for defenders to block the command-and-control server effectively.

26
MCQmedium

You are setting up a secure communication channel for the IR team during a major incident. Why is it recommended to use an out-of-band communication method?

A.To comply with the Acceptable Use Policy
B.To simplify documentation for the final report
C.To increase bandwidth for file transfers
D.To prevent the attacker from monitoring team communications
AnswerD

Attackers who have compromised internal systems often monitor internal emails and chat platforms.

Why this answer

If the primary network is compromised, internal communication (email/Slack) may be monitored by the attacker.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be recorded on a Chain of Custody (CoC) form when collecting a device?

Select 3 answers
A.Detailed physical description and identifiers (e.g., serial number).
B.Exact time and date of collection.
C.Name and signature of the individual collecting the item.
D.The social media passwords of the owner.
E.The home address of the user.
AnswersA, B, C

Ensures the correct item is tracked.

Why this answer

CoC must track who collected it, when, and where it came from.

28
MCQhard

You are using NetFlow to identify lateral movement. You see a high volume of connections from a web server to an internal database server on port 3306. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

A.Examine the process list on the web server to identify the source of the connection
B.Reset the database server credentials
C.Block the web server access entirely
D.Increase the flow timeout settings
AnswerA

Connecting the network flow to a specific process ID is essential for attribution.

Why this answer

Identifying the specific process initiating these connections on the web server is critical to determining if it is a legitimate application or a compromised process.

29
MCQhard

You are reviewing a suspicious macro in a Word document attachment. Which tool is best suited for static analysis of the macro code?

A.Oledump
B.Nmap
C.Wireshark
D.Volatility
AnswerA

Designed for macro analysis.

Why this answer

Oledump is the industry standard tool for identifying and extracting macros from Office documents.

30
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE components are typically involved in a web application's logging infrastructure that an incident responder should audit?

Select 3 answers
A.Web server access and error logs
B.WAF audit logs
C.Printer spooler logs
D.Application-level audit logs
E.Hardware router logs
AnswersA, B, D

These provide the foundational data for web application activity.

Why this answer

A complete audit requires reviewing the web server, the security layer (WAF), and the application itself.

31
MCQeasy

An incident responder is using NetFlow to identify a data exfiltration event. What specific field in a NetFlow v9 record provides the best indication of the total volume of data moved between two internal hosts?

A.PROTOCOL
B.IPV4_SRC_ADDR
C.IN_BYTES
D.LAST_SWITCHED
AnswerC

IN_BYTES accurately reports the volume of data in the captured flow.

Why this answer

The 'BYTES' or 'IN_BYTES' field in NetFlow records tracks the total octets transferred during the flow, critical for identifying large data transfers.

32
MCQmedium

A malware infection has encrypted several network shares. You decide to restore from backups. What is the most critical step to perform before restoring data to the production environment?

A.Scan the backup media with the same AV used previously
B.Reboot the domain controllers
C.Restore data to a sandbox or isolated VLAN
D.Change all user passwords
AnswerC

Isolation prevents reinfection of the production network.

Why this answer

Restoring data into a clean, isolated environment is critical to ensure that the malware is not re-introduced or that the backup itself is not infected.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

When eradicating malware, which TWO of the following steps are essential to ensure the host is fully cleaned and the entry point is secured?

Select 2 answers
A.Change the background wallpaper to a default image
B.Identify and patch the vulnerability that allowed entry
C.Install a new browser plugin
D.Delete all identified malicious artifacts
E.Clear the browser cache
AnswersB, D

Without patching the entry point, the system will be reinfected.

Why this answer

Removing the malware payload is necessary, but identifying and closing the vulnerability that allowed entry is equally important to prevent reinfection.

34
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following steps are required when performing a post-mortem analysis of an email incident?

Select 2 answers
A.Promoting the security analyst involved
B.Contacting the local law enforcement authorities
C.Evaluating the performance of security controls
D.Reviewing the incident response timeline and logs
E.Deleting all evidence to maintain privacy
AnswersC, D

Necessary to improve future detection.

Why this answer

Reviewing incident logs and evaluating the effectiveness of security controls are critical post-mortem steps.

35
MCQeasy

An analyst is reviewing logs from an EDR solution. They see a 'process hollowing' event. What is the primary purpose of this malware technique?

A.Brute-forcing system credentials
B.Hiding malicious code inside a legitimate process
C.Encrypting local user files
D.Creating a hidden user account
AnswerB

This technique masquerades malicious code as a trusted process.

Why this answer

Process hollowing is used to hide malicious code within the memory space of a legitimate, running process to evade detection by security software.

36
MCQmedium

You are analyzing a malware sample using Cuckoo Sandbox. The report shows the malware is attempting to modify the 'HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run' registry key. What is the intent of this activity?

A.Injecting code into explorer.exe
B.Escalating user privileges
C.Establishing system persistence
D.Disabling the Windows Firewall
AnswerC

This registry key is the standard Windows autorun location for persistence.

Why this answer

Modifying this registry key is a classic technique for establishing persistence, ensuring the malware executes automatically upon system startup.

37
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be part of a first responder's physical toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.A copy of all user passwords.
B.Bootable forensic collection drive.
C.Hardware write blocker.
D.A commercial email marketing tool.
E.A wireless router.
AnswersB, C

Used for off-system collection of evidence.

Why this answer

A write blocker and a bootable forensic drive are essential for physical evidence collection.

38
MCQeasy

During the identification phase, you notice a high volume of traffic from an unknown IP to your web server. What is the most appropriate action to take first?

A.Block the IP at the firewall immediately
B.Notify the local law enforcement
C.Analyze the traffic logs to determine the nature of the activity
D.Shut down the web server
AnswerC

Identification requires analysis to confirm the incident and scope.

Why this answer

Analyzing the traffic confirms whether it is an attack or benign activity before taking disruptive action.

39
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an Incident Response (IR) policy?

A.To monitor network traffic for threats
B.To define the budget for new security tools
C.To establish the authority and framework for incident management
D.To provide step-by-step instructions for patching servers
AnswerC

The policy defines the scope, roles, and the mandate for the IR program.

Why this answer

An IR policy provides the high-level authority and framework for how an organization prepares for and responds to incidents.

40
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of the 'Preparation' phase in the incident response lifecycle?

A.To contain the threat
B.To analyze the incident after it happens
C.To establish the capabilities and resources for response
D.To provide training to end users
AnswerC

Preparation ensures the organization is ready to act before an incident occurs.

Why this answer

Preparation involves establishing the tools, teams, and plans necessary to respond effectively when an incident occurs.

41
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following actions are standard steps in the 'Analysis' phase of an incident?

Select 2 answers
A.Identifying the scope and extent of the compromise
B.Training employees on phishing awareness
C.Installing new antivirus software
D.Restoring systems from a backup
E.Correlating logs from multiple sources to reconstruct events
AnswersA, E

Knowing the breadth of the attack is vital for effective containment.

Why this answer

Analysis involves confirming the scope and technical details of the breach.

42
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following email security technologies should be configured to prevent domain spoofing?

Select 3 answers
A.DKIM
B.SPF
C.SSL/TLS
D.HTTP/2
E.DMARC
AnswersA, B, E

Authenticates message integrity.

Why this answer

SPF, DKIM, and DMARC are the three pillars of email authentication to prevent spoofing.

43
MCQhard

You are investigating a Linux server breach. You need to capture the current state of network connections without altering the evidence. Which command-line tool is preferred by first responders?

A.tcpdump -i eth0
B.lsof -i
C.ss -tupn
D.iptables -L
AnswerC

'ss -tupn' shows TCP/UDP connections, processes, and numeric addresses without resolving names.

Why this answer

'ss' (socket statistics) or 'netstat' is used to view network connections, but 'ss' is modern and more efficient for incident response.

44
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following characterize potential lateral movement using RDP in a domain environment?

Select 3 answers
A.Unusual use of NTLM for RDP authentication
B.Increased usage of SNMP
C.High volume of HTTPS traffic
D.Usage of 'mstsc.exe' with unusual command-line flags
E.Unexpected RDP logins from workstations to servers
AnswersA, D, E

NTLM is often used in RDP attacks to bypass Kerberos constraints.

Why this answer

RDP lateral movement involves credential abuse, session hijacking, and standard RDP port usage.

45
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample in a lab. You notice the malware uses the 'CreateRemoteThread' API. What is the objective of this malware activity?

A.Opening a network socket
B.Deleting files on disk
C.Injecting a thread into another process
D.Modifying system time
AnswerC

This function is a standard primitive for cross-process execution.

Why this answer

The 'CreateRemoteThread' API is commonly used to inject a thread into a separate process, which is a fundamental step in DLL injection and code execution.

46
MCQmedium

An organization uses Microsoft 365. Which feature should an admin use to globally remove a malicious phishing email from all user mailboxes?

A.Conditional Access policies
B.Exchange Transport Rules
C.Search and Purge in Microsoft 365 Defender
D.Mail Flow Connector configuration
AnswerC

This tool allows removing emails from mailboxes.

Why this answer

Search and Purge within the Microsoft 365 Defender portal is the standard tool for post-delivery removal.

47
MCQhard

You are analyzing a PCAP file to detect 'Pass-the-Hash' activity. Which SMB message type should you specifically look for in the NTLM authentication exchange?

A.SMB_COM_OPEN
B.NTLMSSP_NEGOTIATE
C.NTLMSSP_AUTH
D.SMB_COM_TREE_CONNECT
AnswerC

This message contains the hashed credentials being passed.

Why this answer

NTLM authentication exchanges often show up in SMBv1 or SMBv2/3 negotiate/session setup requests, specifically looking for NTLMSSP structures.

48
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a Web Application Firewall (WAF) in an incident response scenario?

A.Storing database backups
B.Blocking known malicious patterns at the application layer
C.Encrypting all web traffic
D.Providing user authentication services
AnswerB

WAFs inspect application-layer traffic (Layer 7) and block requests that match known attack signatures.

Why this answer

The primary function of a WAF during an incident is to provide real-time filtering and blocking of malicious HTTP traffic patterns.

49
MCQmedium

When conducting an interview with a potential witness during an investigation, what is the best practice to follow?

A.Ask leading questions to confirm your suspicions
B.Have the witness sign a statement before they start talking
C.Ask open-ended questions to gather facts without bias
D.Record the interview without telling the witness
AnswerC

Neutral, open-ended questions provide the most reliable information.

Why this answer

Structured, open-ended questions minimize bias and allow the witness to provide their full account.

50
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of 'Network Segmentation' during an active network incident?

A.Eliminating the need for firewalls
B.Automatic removal of malware
C.Containment of the attack by limiting communication paths
D.Increasing network throughput
AnswerC

Segmentation prevents an attacker from moving laterally beyond the compromised zone.

Why this answer

Network segmentation limits the blast radius of an attacker, preventing movement between trusted and compromised segments.

51
MCQmedium

Which of the following activities is best suited for the 'Recovery' phase of the incident handling process?

A.Isolating infected hosts from the network
B.Interviewing employees about the incident
C.Notifying the media of the breach
D.Scanning for vulnerabilities to ensure the exploit vector is closed
AnswerD

Validating security before returning to production is a critical recovery task.

Why this answer

Recovery involves restoring systems to a clean state, which includes verifying patches and security controls.

52
MCQmedium

You are using Wireshark to analyze traffic from an infected host. You notice consistent beaconing activity to an external IP on port 443. How do you isolate this traffic in your capture?

A.ip.addr == [IP_ADDRESS]
B.tcp.port == 80
C.frame.len > 1000
D.http.request
AnswerA

This filter restricts the display to traffic involving the specific IP.

Why this answer

The filter 'ip.addr == [IP_ADDRESS]' specifically isolates all packets associated with the destination IP suspected of being the C2 server.

53
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following should be included in an incident communication plan?

Select 3 answers
A.Rules for communicating with law enforcement
B.The office building floor plan
C.Pre-approved templates for stakeholder notifications
D.The company's marketing department's social media password
E.Emergency contact list for key personnel
AnswersA, C, E

Legal communication must follow strict, pre-defined procedures.

Why this answer

A communication plan defines who to tell, how to tell them, and what to say.

54
Multi-Selecthard

When managing the 'Lessons Learned' phase of the incident response lifecycle, which THREE activities should be conducted to ensure continuous improvement?

Select 3 answers
A.Conducting a penetration test against the entire production network
B.Reviewing the incident timeline to identify gaps in detection
C.Archiving all evidence in a cold storage bucket for 50 years
D.Developing a post-incident report detailing what went right and what went wrong
E.Updating standard operating procedures (SOPs) based on identified operational failures
AnswersB, D, E

Analyzing the timeline helps identify where the process delayed detection or response.

Why this answer

Lessons learned must involve evaluating performance, reviewing documentation for accuracy, and updating defenses to prevent recurrence.

55
MCQhard

You are using an IDS/IPS to detect lateral movement. You notice that your NIDS is not alerting on SSH brute force attempts. Which configuration check is most important to perform?

A.Check if the disk is full
B.Reboot the IDS appliance
C.Verify if the IDS has visibility into the decrypted traffic
D.Ensure NTP is synchronized
AnswerC

Without decryption, the NIDS cannot inspect the SSH payload for brute force patterns.

Why this answer

SSH brute force signatures often require the IDS to perform protocol decoding; if the traffic is encrypted and the IDS lacks the session keys, it can only see the handshake.

56
MCQmedium

You are utilizing NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 to structure your incident response team. During a critical ransomware outbreak, you need to assign a lead who coordinates with legal, PR, and executive leadership. Which role should you designate to ensure organizational communication is handled per the policy?

A.Incident Coordinator
B.Technical Lead
C.Forensics Analyst
D.System Administrator
AnswerA

The Incident Coordinator manages the communication plan and serves as the liaison between the technical team and executive stakeholders.

Why this answer

The Incident Coordinator or Communications Lead is responsible for managing the flow of information during an incident, keeping stakeholders informed without compromising technical investigation efforts.

57
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered 'Legal Considerations' during the Incident Handling process that must be integrated into the response plan?

Select 2 answers
A.Configuring automated IP blocking on the edge firewall
B.Ensuring compliance with data breach notification statutes
C.Updating the organizational server maintenance schedule
D.Establishing and maintaining a formal chain of custody for evidence
E.Running a vulnerability scan on the impacted systems
AnswersB, D

Organizations have a legal duty to notify affected parties and regulators within specific timeframes.

Why this answer

Legal considerations include adhering to privacy regulations (e.g., reporting requirements) and maintaining the integrity of the evidence for potential litigation.

58
MCQmedium

If a phishing email bypassed the perimeter email gateway, what is the next logical step in the incident response process?

A.Document the incident in the SIEM
B.Update the firewall blocklist
C.Attempt to contain the threat by removing the email
D.Wait for the user to report it again
AnswerC

Containment prevents further spread.

Why this answer

After detection, containment is the critical priority to prevent further impact.

59
Multi-Selecthard

When analyzing a potentially malicious script, which THREE of the following techniques help in deobfuscating the code?

Select 3 answers
A.Renaming the file extension to .txt
B.Running the script as an administrator
C.Decrypting embedded strings
D.Using an emulator for script execution
E.Manual code tracing in a debugger
AnswersC, D, E

Malware often hides C2 URLs or commands in encrypted strings.

Why this answer

Static code analysis, string decryption, and executing in a controlled emulator help to reveal the underlying intent of obfuscated scripts.

60
MCQhard

An attacker uses a 'Homograph Attack' to spoof a domain. How does the analyst detect this?

A.Scanning the email for attachments
B.Checking the SPF record
C.Looking for a valid TLS certificate
D.Inspecting the Punycode representation of the domain
AnswerD

Punycode exposes the fake characters.

Why this answer

Homograph attacks use look-alike characters (like Cyrillic 'а' instead of Latin 'a') that are visible when inspecting the Punycode version of the domain.

61
MCQmedium

You are responding to a web-based attack. Which log source is most critical for identifying the origin of a SQL injection attempt?

A.DHCP logs.
B.Windows System Event log.
C.Application crash dumps.
D.Web server access logs.
AnswerD

These logs capture the HTTP requests containing malicious input.

Why this answer

Web server access logs contain the request methods and query strings used to deliver the attack payload.

62
MCQmedium

You have identified an infected machine and need to perform a memory dump before it is wiped. Which tool is the industry standard for acquiring a full memory dump on a Windows machine for incident response?

A.Wireshark
B.Magnet RAM Capture
C.Windows Task Manager
D.Event Viewer
AnswerB

This tool is widely used for creating reliable memory images.

Why this answer

Magnet RAM Capture or WinPmem are standard tools for acquiring full memory dumps in a forensic-sound manner.

63
MCQmedium

When reviewing firewall logs, you see many 'deny' events from an internal host to an external IP. What is the most likely cause?

A.IP address conflict
B.Normal user browsing activity
C.Hardware failure on the firewall
D.Malware attempting to reach a C2 server
AnswerD

Blocked outbound connections to unknown external IPs are a primary indicator of C2 activity.

Why this answer

Internal hosts attempting to reach external IPs blocked by the egress policy are a common indicator of a malware beaconing attempt or an infected host trying to reach a C2.

64
MCQeasy

You are identifying a compromised host by checking for beaconing behavior. Which network metric is most indicative of heartbeat-style beaconing?

A.High-speed connection speed
B.Consistent interval between connections
C.Use of HTTPS
D.Randomized packet size
AnswerB

Fixed-interval timing is a hallmark of automated C2 beaconing.

Why this answer

Beaconing is characterized by consistent timing intervals between connections to a specific C2 server.

65
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following describe the role of an email gateway in incident response?

Select 2 answers
A.Replacing all passwords automatically
B.Filtering and blocking malicious content
C.Manually deleting user account files
D.Providing logs for forensic investigation
E.Encrypting all outgoing traffic
AnswersB, D

Proactive protection.

Why this answer

Email gateways act as a filter for incoming threats and provide logs for post-incident investigation.

66
MCQeasy

An analyst is investigating a suspected SQL injection attack on an IIS server. Which log file should they prioritize to identify the specific URL-encoded payload strings submitted by the attacker?

A.Application Event logs
B.HTTPERR logs
C.Security Event logs
D.W3C Extended Log File Format logs
AnswerD

The W3C logs capture requested URIs and query strings necessary for identifying malicious SQL injection patterns.

Why this answer

W3C extended log files in IIS provide the most granular detail on URL parameters and query strings used in SQL injection.

67
MCQmedium

An attacker is using ICMP tunneling to exfiltrate data. What field in an ICMP echo request packet would contain the unauthorized data?

A.Checksum field
B.Data field
C.Sequence number
D.TTL field
AnswerB

The data field of an ICMP packet is a common carrier for tunneled data.

Why this answer

The ICMP 'data' field (the payload portion) is commonly used to hide non-standard data in tunnels.

68
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are essential components of an effective Incident Response (IR) plan?

Select 2 answers
A.Full backup of the company's financial records
B.Detailed instructions on how to use the HR time-tracking system
C.List of key stakeholders and their contact details
D.Defined roles and responsibilities for the IR team
E.A list of all employees' social security numbers
AnswersC, D

Contact lists are essential for rapid communication during an incident.

Why this answer

An IR plan must have defined roles and clear contact information to be actionable.

69
MCQmedium

You are performing an investigation on a compromised mobile device. What is the primary risk of connecting the device to a standard workstation without a write blocker?

A.The battery will drain faster.
B.The workstation might write metadata or sync files, altering the original evidence.
C.The workstation will be instantly infected.
D.The device will automatically wipe itself.
AnswerB

Operating systems often mount devices and update last access times or index files.

Why this answer

Connecting a mobile device without a physical or software write blocker can lead to automatic synchronization or data modification by the host OS.

70
MCQeasy

An employee receives a suspicious email asking to verify account details by clicking a link. What is the most effective user behavior to mitigate this?

A.Reply to the sender to verify
B.Use the organization's 'Report Phishing' tool
C.Ignore and delete the email without reporting
D.Forward it to a friend for a second opinion
AnswerB

This alerts the security team.

Why this answer

Reporting the suspicious email through the provided 'Report Phishing' button is the most effective user action.

71
MCQmedium

A malware sample was found to use a 'Mutex' to ensure only one instance of the malware runs at a time. What tool would you use to find the Mutex name on an infected host?

A.TCPView
B.Procmon
C.Autoruns
D.Handle
AnswerD

The 'handle' tool lists open handles and identifies Mutex objects.

Why this answer

Sysinternals Handle is designed to list all open handles, including Mutexes, on a running system.

72
MCQhard

You are investigating a suspected rootkit. Which area of the operating system should you examine for unauthorized boot-time execution?

A.The browser cache.
B.The user profile folder.
C.The temporary files directory.
D.The Master Boot Record (MBR) or EFI partition.
AnswerD

Bootkits/rootkits often modify the MBR to gain control before the OS loads.

Why this answer

The Master Boot Record (MBR) or the EFI partition are common targets for rootkits that persist across reboots.

73
MCQmedium

You are documenting an incident and need to record the time of the event. Why is accurate time synchronization critical?

A.To correlate events across different log sources accurately.
B.To ensure the server doesn't crash.
C.To comply with user privacy laws.
D.To make the report look professional.
AnswerA

Log correlation is impossible without synchronized timestamps.

Why this answer

Correlation of logs across different systems requires synchronized clocks, typically via NTP.

74
MCQeasy

When documenting the chain of custody for a seized laptop, which information is mandatory?

A.The name of the suspected attacker.
B.The user's password for the laptop.
C.The serial number of the device.
D.The operating system version.
AnswerC

Accurate identification via serial number is essential for legal evidence handling.

Why this answer

A chain of custody must include the identity of the person collecting the evidence, the time/date, and the specific location of the item.

75
MCQeasy

A web server log shows repeated '403 Forbidden' errors for a specific directory. What is the most likely cause during an incident?

A.The user session has expired
B.The requested file does not exist
C.The server is offline
D.Directory traversal or unauthorized access attempts are being blocked
AnswerD

403 Forbidden specifically indicates the server understands the request but refuses to authorize it due to file permissions.

Why this answer

Repeated 403 errors often indicate an attacker performing forced browsing or directory traversal attempts that are being blocked by server-side permission settings.

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