Courseiva

CCNA Infrastructure Questions

53 questions · Infrastructure topic · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQmedium

What is the function of the Default Gateway in an IP configuration?

A.To resolve domain names to IP addresses
B.To manage the local broadcast domain traffic
C.To provide a path for traffic destined for remote networks
D.To perform dynamic IP address assignment
AnswerC

The default gateway represents the router interface that knows how to route traffic to external subnets. By directing non-local traffic to this address, devices ensure their data reaches its destination beyond the local segment, enabling global connectivity for all local endpoints.

Why this answer

The default gateway is the IP address of the local router interface that provides the path to external networks. When a device attempts to send data to an IP address outside its own subnet, it encapsulates the frame for the gateway's MAC address. Without a correctly configured default gateway, endpoints remain isolated within their local segment and cannot reach the internet or other remote subnets.

Exam trap

Candidates mistakenly believe the default gateway resolves MAC addresses or handles local subnet traffic, confusing it with ARP or local switching mechanisms.

2
MCQeasy

Which transmission medium is best suited for long-distance data communication with high immunity to electromagnetic interference?

A.Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
B.Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
C.Fiber Optic Cable
D.Coaxial Cable
AnswerC

Fiber optics use light to transmit data, providing total immunity to electromagnetic interference. This allows for significantly longer distances and higher data rates than copper-based alternatives, making it the ideal choice for backbone connections and outdoor high-performance network segments in noisy environments.

Why this answer

Fiber optic cable is the best choice for long-distance data communication with high immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI) because it transmits data as pulses of light through a glass or plastic core rather than electrical signals. Since light is unaffected by electromagnetic fields, fiber is completely immune to EMI and radio frequency interference (RFI). Additionally, fiber has much lower attenuation than copper, allowing signals to travel many kilometers without repeaters, making it ideal for long-haul networks.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'shielded' with 'immune'—candidates often think STP or coaxial cable, which have shielding, are immune to EMI, but shielding only reduces interference; fiber is inherently immune because it uses light, not electricity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) uses metallic shielding to reduce EMI, but it is not immune—it only mitigates interference, and its high attenuation limits distance to about 100 meters for standard Ethernet. Option B is wrong because Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is highly susceptible to EMI and has even greater attenuation, making it unsuitable for long-distance runs beyond 100 meters. Option D is wrong because Coaxial Cable, while better shielded than UTP/STP, still uses electrical signals over copper and is not immune to EMI; it also suffers from higher attenuation than fiber over long distances.

3
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO functions are performed by a Cisco switch at the Data Link layer? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Calculating the best path based on IP addresses
B.Forwarding frames based on destination MAC addresses
C.Learning MAC addresses by inspecting ingress frames
D.Translating between different network topologies
E.Encapsulating data packets into segments
AnswersB, C

Switching operations rely on the MAC address table to map destination hardware addresses to specific ports. When a frame enters, the switch examines the destination MAC and directs the frame only to the appropriate physical interface, reducing traffic congestion across the local network.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because a Cisco switch operates at Layer 2 and forwards frames by looking up the destination MAC address in its MAC address table to select the correct egress port. Option C is correct because the switch learns source MAC addresses from the ingress frames it receives and records them along with the receiving port in its MAC address table, which builds the basis for future forwarding decisions. Option A is incorrect because best-path calculation based on IP addresses is a Layer 3 routing function performed by routers, not switches.

Option D is incorrect because translating between different network topologies is not a standard Data Link layer switch function; such translation is typically handled by gateways or specific translation devices. Option E is incorrect because encapsulating data packets into segments is a Layer 4 (Transport layer) function, such as TCP or UDP segmentation, not a switch operation.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Layer 2 and Layer 3 functions; candidates may pick 'best path based on IP addresses' because they associate switches with forwarding, but that is a router function.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is reviewing how a Cisco switch builds and maintains its MAC address table as frames arrive from attached devices. Which TWO statements correctly describe this Layer 2 forwarding behavior? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.If the destination MAC address is not in the table, the switch floods the frame out all ports except the one it arrived on.
B.The switch records the source MAC address of an incoming frame and associates it with the port on which the frame arrived.
C.The switch forwards a frame only after the entire frame has been received and the CRC verified, regardless of configuration.
D.The switch assigns an IP address to each connected device and stores it in the MAC address table.
E.MAC address table entries are permanent and are never removed unless the administrator manually clears them.
AnswersA, B

When no table entry matches the destination, the switch has no known path, so it floods the frame to every other port in the same VLAN. This unknown-unicast flooding ensures delivery while the destination is still unknown. Once the destination replies, its source address is learned and subsequent frames are forwarded only to the correct port.

Why this answer

A Layer 2 switch learns by examining the source MAC address of each incoming frame and mapping it to the ingress port. When the destination MAC is absent from the table, the switch floods the frame out all other ports in the VLAN so delivery can still occur. These two behaviors together allow the table to populate dynamically and traffic to be forwarded efficiently once paths are known.

Exam trap

The trap here is mixing up source and destination addresses, assuming the switch learns from the destination MAC rather than the source MAC of arriving frames.

5
MCQmedium

Which component of the Cisco network architecture is specifically designed to provide high-speed switching and fast transport between different parts of the network?

A.Access Layer
B.Distribution Layer
C.Core Layer
D.Edge Layer
AnswerC

The Core layer is the high-speed backbone of the network. It is built for raw performance and reliability, ensuring that traffic between distribution layers is moved as quickly as possible. It avoids complex packet manipulation to maintain the highest possible throughput across the enterprise campus environment.

Why this answer

The Core Layer of the Cisco network architecture is designed for high-speed switching and fast transport between different parts of the network. It acts as the backbone, connecting distribution layer devices and providing a high-capacity, low-latency path for data. The core should be highly resilient and avoid processing-intensive tasks like access control lists.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the Distribution layer's role in inter-VLAN routing with the Core layer's role in high-speed transport; candidates may pick Distribution because it handles routing, but the question emphasizes speed and backbone transport.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Access Layer connects end devices to the network and provides port security, PoE, and VLAN access; it is not optimized for high-speed backbone transport. Option B is wrong because the Distribution Layer provides policy-based routing, filtering, and inter-VLAN routing, but it is not the high-speed core. Option D is wrong because 'Edge Layer' is not a standard layer in the Cisco three-tier model; edge typically refers to the network perimeter, not the high-speed backbone.

6
MCQmedium

Which primary benefit does the implementation of VLANs provide to a corporate network infrastructure?

A.Increased physical cabling requirements
B.Reduction of broadcast domain size
C.Automatic encryption of all traffic
D.Elimination of the need for routers
AnswerB

VLANs segment a physical switch into isolated logical broadcast domains. This restricts the scope of broadcast frames to only those ports assigned to the same VLAN, significantly reducing network overhead and preventing performance degradation caused by excessive background traffic on large networks.

Why this answer

VLANs divide a single physical switch into multiple logical broadcast domains. This segmentation reduces the size of broadcast domains, which minimizes unnecessary traffic processing on end devices and improves overall network stability. By grouping devices logically rather than physically, administrators gain greater control over resource access and improve security by isolating traffic between different departments or functional roles.

Exam trap

Students often believe VLANs provide complete security isolation like a firewall, forgetting that inter-VLAN routing is required for devices in different VLANs to communicate.

7
MCQhard

A network engineer is troubleshooting high CPU utilization on a core switch caused by excessive broadcast traffic across multiple VLANs. Which infrastructure technology should be deployed to contain broadcast domains while maintaining Layer 3 connectivity?

A.Deploy Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol across all core trunk links to prune redundant physical paths dynamically.
B.Configure inter-VLAN routing using Layer 3 interfaces to restrict broadcast propagation between separate logical segments.
C.Implement Port Security with maximum address limits on all access ports to drop unauthorized endpoint broadcasts.
D.Activate Storm Control with custom rising and falling threshold percentages for multicast and broadcast traffic.
AnswerB

Splitting the flat network into separate VLANs creates distinct broadcast domains, so broadcasts no longer flood every segment. Layer 3 interfaces then route traffic between those segments, preserving connectivity. This directly contains broadcast propagation while retaining inter-VLAN reachability.

Why this answer

Implementing routing between VLANs using switched virtual interfaces or routed ports naturally isolates broadcast domains. Broadcast frames operate strictly at Layer 2 and are dropped by routers and Layer 3 switches, preventing localized broadcast storms from propagating across the enterprise network infrastructure and degrading overall system performance.

Exam trap

Engineers often attempt to fix broadcast storms by adding more switches or configuring more VLAN trunks, which actually expands the Layer 2 broadcast domain instead of containing it.

8
MCQmedium

An enterprise network design incorporates Power over Ethernet to supply power to VoIP desk phones and wireless access points. A technician notes that the power supply unit inside the switch is operating near maximum capacity. Which feature should be configured to prevent unexpected power drops?

A.Configure port-level PoE priority to ensure critical devices retain power during budget exhaustion events.
B.Enable BPDU Guard across all access switch ports connected to powered VoIP telephone hardware.
C.Activate Storm Control with strict multicast drop thresholds to reduce switch power draw.
D.Implement Port Security with maximum static MAC address bindings to restrict power usage.
AnswerA

PoE priority assigns each port a critical, high, or low ranking, so when the power budget is exhausted the switch sheds low-priority ports first and preserves power to critical devices. This directly prevents unexpected drops for VoIP phones and access points during budget exhaustion.

Why this answer

Power over Ethernet policing and priority mechanisms allow administrators to manage power budgets intelligently. Configuring port power priorities ensures that if total power consumption exceeds switch power supply limits, critical infrastructure devices maintain power while less critical ports are shut down safely.

Exam trap

Candidates often suggest replacing the switch or adding more standard power cables, overlooking software-based power budgeting and prioritization features built into PoE switches.

9
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring Power over Ethernet on an enterprise access switch to power IP security cameras requiring up to 25.5 watts of power each. Which IEEE standard must the switch ports support?

A.IEEE 802.3af delivering a maximum of 15.4 watts of direct current power per individual port interface.
B.IEEE 802.3bt Type 3 delivering up to 60 watts of power across all four wire pairs within the structured copper cable.
C.IEEE 802.3at delivering up to 30 watts of direct current power per individual port interface.
D.IEEE 802.3ab defining Gigabit Ethernet physical layer transmission parameters over copper infrastructure.
AnswerC

IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) delivers up to 30 watts per port, exceeding the 25.5-watt draw of each camera. The earlier 802.3af standard supplies only 15.4 watts, which is insufficient, so the switch ports must support 802.3at to power these devices reliably.

Why this answer

IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) delivers up to 30 watts of DC power per port, which comfortably exceeds the 25.5-watt requirement of the IP cameras. This standard uses two pairs of Cat5e or better cabling to provide the higher power budget while maintaining backward compatibility with 802.3af devices. The switch port must support 802.3at to guarantee sufficient power for each camera without overloading the power budget.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the power delivered by the standard with the power available at the device; 802.3af provides 15.4W at the port but only about 12.95W at the device, and 802.3at provides 30W at the port but 25.5W at the device, so candidates might incorrectly select 802.3af or 802.3bt based on port power alone.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IEEE 802.3af only provides 15.4 watts per port, which is insufficient for devices requiring 25.5 watts. Option B is wrong because IEEE 802.3bt Type 3 delivers up to 60 watts, which is overkill for 25.5-watt devices and not the minimum required standard; it also uses all four pairs, which may not be necessary here. Option D is wrong because IEEE 802.3ab defines Gigabit Ethernet over copper twisted-pair cabling and has nothing to do with Power over Ethernet.

10
MCQmedium

A network technician is configuring a new Cisco switch port for a server that must support both voice and data traffic on separate VLANs. The server's network interface card is VLAN-aware and will tag its own frames. The technician wants to ensure the switch port can carry traffic for multiple VLANs. Which type of switch port configuration should the technician apply?

C.Routed port
AnswerD

A trunk port carries traffic for multiple VLANs by tagging frames with IEEE 802.1Q VLAN identifiers. Since the server's NIC is VLAN-aware and will tag its own frames, a trunk port allows the switch to correctly forward traffic for both voice and data VLANs. This configuration is essential for interconnecting devices that need to participate in multiple VLANs.

Why this answer

A trunk port is designed to carry traffic for multiple VLANs using 802.1Q tagging. Because the server's NIC is VLAN-aware and will tag frames, the switch port must be configured as a trunk to accept and forward those tagged frames. Access ports support only a single VLAN, and routed ports operate at Layer 3 without VLAN tagging.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a VLAN-aware server should connect to an access port because servers typically reside in a single VLAN, overlooking the need for multiple VLANs and tagging.

11
Multi-Selectmedium

A network technician is configuring a new Cisco switch for a small business. The technician needs to ensure that the switch can be managed remotely from a different subnet. Which TWO configurations are required to enable remote management access? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Assign an IP address to a VLAN interface (SVI).
B.Enable CDP on all interfaces.
C.Set the switch to transparent VTP mode.
D.Configure a default gateway on the switch.
E.Configure port security on the management interface.
AnswersA, D

To manage a switch remotely, it must have an IP address. On a Layer 2 switch, this is typically assigned to a switched virtual interface (SVI), such as VLAN 1 or a dedicated management VLAN. Without an IP address, the switch cannot be reached via the network. This is a fundamental requirement for remote management.

Why this answer

Remote management of a switch from a different subnet requires an IP address assigned to an SVI for network reachability, and a default gateway so the switch can route management traffic off its local subnet. These two configurations provide the necessary Layer 3 connectivity for protocols like SSH or Telnet.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing management access requirements with security or discovery features like port security or CDP, which do not provide IP reachability.

12
MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot access any network resources, including the internet. A technician checks the user's workstation and finds that it has an IP address of 169.254.10.5 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. The technician verifies that the switch port is active and the cable is connected. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A.The workstation has a static IP address that conflicts with another device.
B.The workstation failed to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.
C.The default gateway is misconfigured on the workstation.
D.The DNS server is unreachable, preventing name resolution.
AnswerB

The IP address 169.254.x.x is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address, which Windows assigns when it cannot reach a DHCP server. This indicates that the workstation did not receive a valid IP configuration. The user cannot communicate beyond the local subnet because APIPA addresses are not routable. The technician should check DHCP server availability or connectivity.

Why this answer

An IP address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range is an APIPA address, automatically assigned when a DHCP server cannot be reached. This prevents normal network communication. The technician should investigate DHCP server availability, relay agent configuration, or physical connectivity to the DHCP server.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any connectivity issue is due to DNS or gateway problems, but the APIPA address specifically indicates a DHCP failure, not a name resolution or routing issue.

13
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco router interface that connects to an ISP. The ISP has assigned the engineer a single public IP address of 203.0.113.10 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.252 and a default gateway of 203.0.113.9. The engineer needs to configure the router interface with the correct IP address and mask. Which configuration should be applied?

A.ip address 203.0.113.9 255.255.255.252
B.ip address 203.0.113.10 255.255.255.0
C.ip address 203.0.113.10 255.255.255.252
D.ip address 203.0.113.10 255.255.255.248
AnswerC

The subnet mask 255.255.255.252 corresponds to a /30 prefix, which provides four addresses: network, two usable host addresses, and broadcast. In the 203.0.113.8/30 subnet, the usable addresses are 203.0.113.9 and 203.0.113.10, with 203.0.113.11 as the broadcast address. Assigning 203.0.113.10 with that mask places the router in the same subnet as the ISP gateway, which is the correct configuration.

Why this answer

The ISP assigned a /30 subnet, so the correct mask is 255.255.255.252. Within 203.0.113.8/30, the usable host addresses are 203.0.113.9 and 203.0.113.10, and the gateway uses 203.0.113.9. The router interface must therefore be configured with 203.0.113.10 and the /30 mask to be in the same subnet as the ISP gateway and establish connectivity.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming a default classful mask or a /24 instead of using the exact prefix length the ISP assigned.

14
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to connect two switches using a link that allows multiple VLANs to traverse a single physical path. Which configuration step is essential to ensure this functionality is enabled properly?

A.Set the switch port mode to access and assign it to VLAN 1.
B.Configure the port as a static EtherChannel member.
C.Configure the switch port mode to trunk.
D.Enable Spanning Tree Protocol on all interfaces.
AnswerC

Setting the port to trunk mode triggers the 802.1Q encapsulation process. This allows the switch to insert a 4-byte tag into the Ethernet frame header, which specifies the VLAN ID. This tag is interpreted by the receiving switch to maintain traffic segmentation across the physical link.

Why this answer

To allow multiple VLANs across a single physical link, the ports must be configured as trunks using the 802.1Q encapsulation protocol. This process involves tagging frames to identify their originating VLAN. Understanding trunking is critical for scalable network design, as it eliminates the need for individual cables for every VLAN, thereby optimizing port density and simplifying cabling management across enterprise distribution and core layers.

Exam trap

Candidates often suggest configuring 'Allowed VLANs' or 'VTP' as the essential step. While those are relevant, the fundamental requirement to transport multiple VLANs is setting the port mode to trunk.

15
MCQmedium

A network technician is configuring a new Cisco switch and needs to assign an IP address to the management VLAN interface so the switch can be reached remotely via SSH. The switch currently has no VLAN interfaces configured. Which command must the technician use to create the management interface and enter interface configuration mode?

A.vlan 1
B.interface fastethernet 0/1
C.ip address 192.168.1.10 255.255.255.0
D.interface vlan 1
AnswerD

This command creates the switched virtual interface (SVI) for VLAN 1 and enters interface configuration mode. In Cisco IOS, the management IP is typically assigned to an SVI, and VLAN 1 is the default management VLAN. After entering this command, the technician can use ip address to assign the IP and no shutdown to enable it.

Why this answer

To assign a management IP to a Cisco switch, an SVI must be configured. The command interface vlan 1 creates the SVI for VLAN 1 and enters interface configuration mode, where an IP address can be assigned. Physical ports are Layer 2 and cannot hold IP addresses, and the vlan command only creates VLANs, not interfaces.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing VLAN creation with SVI creation: the vlan command defines a VLAN, but the interface vlan command creates the Layer 3 interface needed for management IP assignment.

16
MCQhard

Which mechanism does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) use to detect and prevent Layer 2 loops in a network with redundant links?

A.Broadcast storm suppression
B.Exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)
C.Source MAC address learning
D.Packet TTL expiration
AnswerB

Switches use BPDUs to communicate topology information and determine the spanning tree. By electing a root bridge and calculating port roles, STP identifies and disables redundant links that would otherwise cause infinite broadcast loops, ensuring the network remains stable and functional under all conditions.

Why this answer

STP prevents loops by designating certain redundant ports as 'blocked'. It uses Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) to communicate between switches, elect a Root Bridge, and calculate the shortest path to that root. By logically disabling redundant paths, STP ensures a loop-free topology while maintaining the ability to automatically restore connectivity if a primary link fails, providing essential resilience for switched LANs.

Exam trap

Candidates often select MAC address learning or ARP tables as the mechanism STP uses, confusing standard switching logic with loop-prevention topology calculations.

17
MCQmedium

A network technician is configuring a Cisco switch for a new VLAN. The technician wants to verify that the VLAN has been created and is active, and also see which ports are assigned to it. Which command should the technician use?

A.show mac address-table
B.show running-config
C.show interfaces status
D.show vlan brief
AnswerD

The 'show vlan brief' command displays a summary of all VLANs, including their IDs, names, status, and assigned ports. This directly provides the information needed to verify VLAN creation and port assignments. It is the most efficient command for this purpose, as it gives a concise overview without extra detail.

Why this answer

The 'show vlan brief' command provides a concise list of all VLANs, their status, and the ports assigned to each. This directly answers the technician's need to verify VLAN creation and port membership. Other commands like 'show interfaces status' or 'show running-config' provide related but less direct or complete information.

Exam trap

The trap here is choosing 'show running-config' because it shows VLAN configuration, but it does not display operational status or a clear port-to-VLAN mapping.

18
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to implement a security policy that prevents unauthorized devices from accessing the network via open switch ports. Which feature should be enabled to achieve this?

AnswerB

Port security allows an administrator to define specific allowed MAC addresses or limit the count of devices per port. If a violation occurs, the switch can shut down the port, effectively blocking unauthorized hardware and maintaining the integrity of the network access segment.

Why this answer

Port security is a critical Layer 2 feature that limits the number of MAC addresses allowed on a port or binds specific MAC addresses to a port. This prevents MAC flooding attacks and ensures that only authorized hardware can connect to the infrastructure. By enforcing these policies at the access layer, administrators significantly reduce the risk of unauthorized lateral movement within the network.

Exam trap

Candidates often guess dynamic ARP inspection or DHCP snooping when thinking of general device authorization, failing to recognize port security as the direct mechanism for MAC address access control.

19
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of the Cisco IOS CLI environment that facilitate efficient network administration?

Select 3 answers
A.Context-sensitive help using the question mark symbol.
B.Automatic translation of all commands into GUI equivalents.
C.Command completion using the Tab key.
D.Direct integration with external cloud storage for backups.
E.Detailed error messages indicating invalid syntax.
AnswersA, C, E

The question mark (?) allows engineers to view available commands at any point in the configuration process. This feature provides real-time guidance on syntax and parameters, significantly reducing the learning curve and helping to prevent configuration mistakes during complex manual tasks performed on switch or router interfaces.

Why this answer

The Cisco IOS CLI provides robust tools for configuration and troubleshooting, including contextual help, command completion, and error feedback. These features are designed to speed up the work of network engineers by reducing the need for documentation lookups and minimizing syntax errors. Mastering these CLI features is essential for any technician tasked with managing Cisco infrastructure, as it improves accuracy and efficiency during high-pressure maintenance windows.

Exam trap

Candidates often select non-existent or incorrect CLI features, mistaking standard operating system utilities or advanced GUI tools for built-in Cisco IOS command-line shortcuts.

20
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the status of interface FastEthernet 0/1?

A.The interface is disabled and needs to be enabled.
B.The interface is working correctly at the physical and data link layers.
C.The interface has no IP address assigned to it.
D.There is a physical layer problem preventing connectivity.
AnswerB

The status 'up' means the physical link is detected, and the protocol 'up' means that the Layer 2 keepalives are being successfully received and processed. This confirms that the cable is connected, the duplex/speed settings are compatible, and the interface is ready to route traffic immediately.

Why this answer

The output shows the interface is administratively up and the line protocol is up, indicating a functional physical link with an active Layer 2/3 configuration. This is the ideal state for a production interface. Being able to interpret 'show ip interface brief' is a mandatory skill for quickly diagnosing whether issues are physical, configuration-related, or protocol-based in enterprise network troubleshooting scenarios.

Exam trap

Candidates sometimes overthink the output, looking for errors that aren't there. When both status and protocol are 'up', the interface is functioning correctly at the physical and data link layers.

21
MCQhard

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco switch and needs to ensure that only the MAC address 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E is allowed to communicate through interface GigabitEthernet0/1. The engineer enters the command 'switchport port-security mac-address 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E' on the interface. However, the switch rejects the command. What is the most likely cause?

A.The MAC address format is incorrect; Cisco switches require dot notation.
B.The interface is currently in trunk mode, and port security requires access mode.
C.Port security has not been enabled on the interface with the 'switchport port-security' command.
D.Port security must be enabled globally before configuring MAC addresses.
AnswerC

Before adding secure MAC addresses, port security must be enabled on the interface using the 'switchport port-security' command. Without this step, the switch does not recognize the context for secure MAC address configuration and rejects the command. The engineer must first enable port security, then add the MAC address.

Why this answer

Port security must be enabled on an interface before specific secure MAC addresses can be configured. The command 'switchport port-security' activates the feature, allowing subsequent commands like 'switchport port-security mac-address' to be accepted. Without this step, the switch rejects attempts to add secure MAC addresses, as the feature is not active on that port.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that port security is enabled by default or globally, when in fact it must be explicitly enabled on each interface before adding secure MAC addresses.

22
MCQmedium

What is the primary function of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a network with redundant links?

A.To increase the total bandwidth of multiple links.
B.To prevent Layer 2 loops.
C.To assign IP addresses to switches.
D.To route traffic between different VLANs.
AnswerB

STP maintains a loop-free network topology by dynamically disabling redundant paths. If a primary path fails, STP can re-enable a blocked path to restore connectivity. This functionality is essential for avoiding broadcast storms and MAC table corruption that occur when multiple redundant Layer 2 links exist.

Why this answer

STP's primary function is to prevent Layer 2 loops by creating a loop-free logical topology. In a network with redundant links, STP elects a root bridge, determines root ports and designated ports, and blocks redundant ports to eliminate loops. This prevents broadcast storms and MAC address table instability that would otherwise occur due to frames circulating indefinitely.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing STP with link aggregation or routing protocols; candidates might think STP increases bandwidth or routes traffic, but its core purpose is loop prevention.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing total bandwidth is achieved through link aggregation (e.g., EtherChannel), not STP; STP actually blocks redundant links, reducing available bandwidth. Option C is wrong because IP address assignment is a Layer 3 function performed by DHCP servers or manual configuration, not by STP, which operates at Layer 2. Option D is wrong because routing between VLANs is a Layer 3 function handled by routers or Layer 3 switches, not STP.

23
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a network switch's 'store-and-forward' switching method?

A.To forward frames as soon as the destination address is read
B.To verify the frame integrity before forwarding
C.To route packets between different IP subnets
D.To provide high-speed connections for wireless access
AnswerB

Store-and-forward mandates that the entire frame is buffered and the Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) verified before retransmission. This ensures that only valid, error-free frames proceed to their destination, which is the preferred method for maintaining network reliability and performance stability.

Why this answer

Store-and-forward is a high-integrity switching method where the switch receives the entire frame, verifies its checksum (FCS), and only then forwards it. This approach ensures that corrupted frames are discarded at the switch level, preventing them from propagating across the network. This method is critical for maintaining high reliability in environments where physical layer errors might otherwise cause complex intermittent issues.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse 'store-and-forward' with 'cut-through' switching, assuming switches forward frames instantly without error checks to prioritize speed over integrity.

24
MCQhard

A network administrator is reviewing the MAC address table on a Cisco access switch and notices that the same MAC address appears on two different access ports in the same VLAN. The administrator confirms that the device with that MAC address is connected to only one port. What is the most likely cause of this duplicate entry?

A.The device is using a virtual MAC address for redundancy, so the switch learns it on every port in the VLAN.
B.The MAC address table has reached its aging time and is flushing entries faster than they can be relearned.
C.A switching loop exists in the VLAN, causing frames to be learned on multiple ports as they circulate.
D.Port security has been configured with a sticky MAC address, which copies the address to all ports in the VLAN.
AnswerC

When a Layer 2 loop exists, broadcast and unknown unicast frames circulate endlessly, and the switch can learn the same source MAC address on more than one port as copies of the frame arrive from different directions. Spanning Tree Protocol is designed to prevent this by blocking redundant paths, but if STP is disabled, misconfigured, or a loop forms through an unmanaged device, duplicate MAC entries appear. This matches the scenario of one physical device appearing on two ports.

Why this answer

A duplicate MAC address entry on two ports in the same VLAN is a classic symptom of a Layer 2 switching loop. Frames circulate through the redundant path, and the switch learns the device's MAC address from frames arriving on different ports. Spanning Tree Protocol normally prevents this by blocking redundant links, so the administrator should verify STP operation and check for unauthorized devices creating loops.

Exam trap

The trap here is blaming MAC address aging or port security for duplicate entries instead of recognizing a Layer 2 loop.

25
MCQeasy

Which device is primarily responsible for performing inter-VLAN routing in a modern enterprise network?

A.Layer 2 Switch
B.Hub
C.Layer 3 Switch
D.Repeater
AnswerC

A Layer 3 switch is capable of hardware-based routing, which allows it to handle inter-VLAN traffic at line speed. By using SVI or routed interfaces, it can effectively bridge the gap between different VLANs while maintaining high performance, which is ideal for modern, high-density network environments.

Why this answer

A Layer 3 switch is primarily responsible for performing inter-VLAN routing in modern enterprise networks. It combines the functionality of a switch and a router, allowing it to route traffic between VLANs at wire speed using hardware-based routing. This is more efficient than using a traditional router for inter-VLAN routing.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming a Layer 2 switch or a router is needed for inter-VLAN routing; candidates must recognize that Layer 3 switches are the modern standard for this task.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Layer 2 switch operates at the data link layer and forwards frames based on MAC addresses; it does not perform routing between VLANs. Option B is wrong because a hub is a legacy device that broadcasts all traffic to all ports and operates at Layer 1, with no routing capability. Option D is wrong because a repeater regenerates signals at Layer 1 and does not perform any routing or switching.

26
MCQeasy

A technician is deploying a new Cisco switch in a wiring closet and needs to connect it to a distribution switch so that it can carry traffic for VLAN 5, VLAN 15, and VLAN 25 between the two devices. The link must carry frames from all three VLANs simultaneously. Which type of port configuration should be applied to the uplink interface on both switches?

A.A trunk port using 802.1Q encapsulation, which tags frames so multiple VLANs can traverse the single link.
B.A routed port with an IP address on each VLAN subnet, because routing is required to carry multiple VLANs.
C.An access port assigned to VLAN 5, because the native VLAN will automatically carry the other VLANs.
D.A switch virtual interface for each VLAN, because SVIs automatically extend VLANs across physical links.
AnswerA

A trunk port using 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a VLAN tag into each frame, allowing the single physical uplink to carry traffic for many VLANs simultaneously. This is the standard method for connecting switches that must transport multiple VLANs, and it is supported on Cisco switches. Tagging VLAN 5, VLAN 15, and VLAN 25 on the trunk lets both switches keep the traffic separated while sharing one link.

Why this answer

To carry traffic for multiple VLANs across a single physical link between switches, the interface must be configured as a trunk using 802.1Q encapsulation. The trunk tags each frame with its VLAN identifier, keeping VLAN 5, VLAN 15, and VLAN 25 traffic logically separate while sharing the uplink. Access, routed, and SVI configurations each fail to provide this multi-VLAN transport.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing a trunk port with an access port or assuming that creating SVIs extends VLANs across a physical uplink.

27
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. If a third device with a different MAC address is connected to this port, what will occur?

A.The port will remain active and log a syslog message.
B.The port will transition to an err-disabled state.
C.The packet from the third device will be dropped, but the port remains active.
D.The switch will allow the third device and remove the oldest MAC.
AnswerB

Because the maximum number of MAC addresses allowed on the port is two, the arrival of a third unique MAC address triggers a security violation. With the violation mode configured as shutdown, the switch automatically disables the interface to secure the network segment from unauthorized traffic.

Why this answer

The configuration specifies a maximum of 2 learned MAC addresses, with a violation mode of shutdown. When the limit is exceeded by a third device, the port will immediately transition to the err-disabled state. This is a vital security feature to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the switch and to mitigate MAC flooding attacks that could compromise the integrity of the Layer 2 network.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume the switch will simply drop the third packet or ignore the new MAC address, failing to realize the 'shutdown' violation mode forces the interface into an err-disabled state.

28
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer observes that the interface status for Vlan100 is listed as 'up' but the protocol status is 'down'. What is the most likely root cause of this operational state?

A.The SVI administrative configuration contains a mismatched IP subnet mask compared to the connected default gateway.
B.No active physical access ports exist within that VLAN, or all assigned ports are currently in the spanning-tree blocking state.
C.The global routing command has not been enabled on the multilayer switch using the ip routing configuration command.
D.The physical transceiver connected to GigabitEthernet0/1 has experienced a complete hardware optical laser failure.
AnswerB

A Switched Virtual Interface requires at least one active physical port in the corresponding VLAN to bring the line protocol up. If all ports are down or blocked by Spanning Tree, the SVI protocol status remains down.

Why this answer

An interface protocol state of down while the physical or logical status is up indicates that Layer 2 or higher encapsulation parameters are failing. For a Switched Virtual Interface, this typically occurs when no active physical ports are assigned to that VLAN or when all assigned access ports are currently in a blocked or disabled state.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume an IP address conflict or a routing issue. However, for an SVI, the 'protocol down' status is almost always related to the lack of active Layer 2 ports.

29
MCQmedium

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two hosts on the same VLAN. The administrator uses the 'show mac address-table' command on the switch and notices that the MAC address of one host appears on multiple ports. What is the most likely cause of this behavior?

A.A switching loop exists in the network.
B.Port security is misconfigured and allowing the MAC address on multiple ports.
C.The switch's CAM table is corrupted and needs to be cleared.
D.The host is connected to multiple switch ports via a dual-homed NIC.
AnswerA

When a switching loop exists, broadcast frames circulate endlessly, causing the switch to learn the same MAC address on multiple ports as frames arrive from different directions. This is a classic symptom of a Layer 2 loop. Spanning Tree Protocol should prevent loops, but if it is disabled or misconfigured, loops can occur, leading to MAC address flapping.

Why this answer

A MAC address appearing on multiple ports is a strong indicator of a switching loop. In a loop, broadcast and unknown unicast frames are flooded endlessly, and the switch learns the source MAC address from different ports as frames traverse the loop in both directions. This causes MAC address flapping, which can destabilize the network.

Exam trap

The trap here is attributing the symptom to a corrupted CAM table or dual-homing, when the most frequent cause is a Layer 2 loop that must be resolved by enabling or fixing Spanning Tree Protocol.

30
MCQeasy

A network administrator is setting up a small office network with a single Cisco router and multiple switches. The administrator wants to ensure that devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other. Which feature should be configured on the router?

A.Spanning Tree Protocol on the router
B.Port mirroring on the switch
C.Dynamic ARP Inspection on the switch
D.Router-on-a-stick with subinterfaces
AnswerD

Router-on-a-stick uses a single physical router interface divided into logical subinterfaces, each assigned to a VLAN. This allows the router to route traffic between VLANs without needing multiple physical interfaces. It is a common and efficient method for inter-VLAN routing in small to medium networks, exactly matching the administrator's goal.

Why this answer

Router-on-a-stick is a technique that uses a single physical router interface with multiple subinterfaces, each configured for a different VLAN. The router then routes traffic between these subinterfaces, enabling inter-VLAN communication. This is an efficient and common solution for small networks where multiple physical router interfaces are not available.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing security or monitoring features like port mirroring or DAI with routing capabilities, which are unrelated to inter-VLAN communication.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is deploying a new Cisco switch in a small office and wants to apply basic security hardening to protect the management plane. The administrator plans to restrict remote access and prevent unauthorized configuration changes. Which two actions should the administrator take to secure management access to the switch? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Assign the management VLAN to an unused access port and leave it in the default VLAN 1.
B.Configure a strong enable secret and use local usernames with privilege levels for authentication.
C.Restrict management access by applying an access list to the VTY lines that permits only trusted management subnets.
D.Enable Telnet on all VTY lines so that administrators can manage the switch from any network segment.
E.Configure the switch to use the default enable password with no secret so that recovery is easier.
AnswersB, C

Setting an enable secret protects privileged EXEC mode with a hashed password, and creating local usernames with appropriate privilege levels ensures that only authenticated administrators can log in and make configuration changes. This directly hardens the management plane by requiring credentials for access. It is a fundamental step in securing a Cisco switch and is recommended in Cisco hardening guidance.

Why this answer

Securing the management plane requires strong authentication and restricted access. Configuring an enable secret with local usernames and privilege levels ensures only authenticated administrators can reach privileged EXEC mode. Applying an access list to the VTY lines limits remote management sessions to trusted source subnets.

Together these controls protect the switch from unauthorized configuration changes and remote access attempts.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating default settings such as VLAN 1 management or Telnet access as acceptable hardening measures.

32
MCQmedium

Which type of cabling is best suited for long-distance data transmission that requires high bandwidth and is immune to electromagnetic interference?

A.Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
B.Coaxial Cable
C.Single-mode Fiber
D.Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
AnswerC

Single-mode fiber uses a thin core to transmit a single light mode, allowing for extremely high bandwidth over distances spanning kilometers. It is completely immune to EMI and is the standard choice for high-speed, long-distance inter-building connections, ensuring reliable data transfer where copper would fail.

Why this answer

Fiber-optic cabling uses light pulses to transmit data, providing immense bandwidth over long distances without being affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI). This makes it superior to copper-based media for backbone connections. Understanding the differences between fiber and copper is crucial for planning infrastructure, especially in environments where cable runs exceed standard Ethernet limits or require high-speed data integrity across large facilities.

Exam trap

Candidates frequently confuse single-mode with multi-mode fiber. They may recall fiber is fast but fail to distinguish that single-mode is the specific type required for long-distance transmission.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary benefits of implementing a hierarchical network design like the Cisco Three-Tier Model?

Select 2 answers
A.It eliminates the need for routing protocols.
B.It provides improved scalability and modularity.
C.It simplifies fault isolation and troubleshooting.
D.It completely prevents all Layer 2 loops.
E.It ensures that all devices use a flat addressing scheme.
AnswersB, C

Each layer has a defined role: access connects users, distribution aggregates and applies policy, and core moves traffic quickly between blocks. New buildings or floors are added as new access and distribution blocks connected to the core, without redesigning the rest of the network, so growth is predictable and modular, and each block can be standardised and replicated.

Why this answer

Hierarchical designs provide scalability, modularity, and simplified management by dividing the network into Core, Distribution, and Access layers. This structure limits the scope of failure domains and makes troubleshooting more predictable. Mastering these concepts is essential for building robust networks that can grow with organizational needs without requiring a complete redesign of the underlying topology or complex routing protocols.

Exam trap

Test-takers frequently choose answers related to lowering hardware costs or increasing raw end-user throughput, forgetting that hierarchical design primarily targets scalability and troubleshooting.

34
MCQhard

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two switches connected via a trunk link. The administrator notices that the trunk link is up, but VLAN 10 traffic is not passing. The administrator runs the show interfaces trunk command and sees that VLAN 10 is not listed in the 'VLANs allowed and active in management domain' output. What is the most likely cause?

A.The native VLAN is mismatched on the trunk.
B.VLAN 10 is not created on the switches.
C.VLAN 10 is not allowed on the trunk port.
D.Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking VLAN 10 on the trunk.
AnswerC

The output of show interfaces trunk indicates which VLANs are allowed and active on the trunk. If VLAN 10 is not listed, it means the trunk is not permitting VLAN 10. This can be due to the switchport trunk allowed vlan command excluding VLAN 10. The administrator must add VLAN 10 to the allowed list on both ends of the trunk for traffic to pass.

Why this answer

The show interfaces trunk command displays the VLANs allowed and active on a trunk. If VLAN 10 is missing from that list, it means the trunk configuration is not permitting VLAN 10. The administrator must use the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 command to include it.

Other issues like missing VLAN creation or native VLAN mismatch would not cause the VLAN to be absent from the allowed list.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a missing VLAN from the allowed list means the VLAN is not created, but it is more likely a trunk allowed list configuration issue.

35
MCQmedium

An enterprise network administrator needs to deploy a secure out-of-band management network for enterprise switches and routers. Which infrastructure design approach provides the highest level of isolation and security?

A.Configure a dedicated management VLAN on the primary production access switches with restricted access control lists.
B.Implement Virtual Routing and Forwarding instances inside the core routing layer for carrying all administrative terminal sessions.
C.Deploy a physically separate management network utilizing dedicated management Ethernet ports and an independent access switch infrastructure.
D.Tunnel all interactive administrative SSH sessions through high-priority IP Service Level Agreements and weighted fair queuing.
AnswerC

Physically isolating management paths ensures complete separation of control planes and data planes. Administrators maintain uninterrupted access during network events like spanning tree reconvergence, routing table corruptions, or major security incidents affecting the production environment.

Why this answer

Dedicated management ports combined with an isolated physical switch infrastructure completely separate management traffic from production data paths. This structural isolation ensures that even if user data planes experience severe congestion, storms, or security compromises, administrators retain reliable access to device consoles and management daemons for troubleshooting and remediation.

Exam trap

Candidates often suggest using VLANs for out-of-band management, failing to recognize that physical separation provides the highest level of isolation required for true secure management access.

36
MCQmedium

A technician connects a new laptop to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch receives a frame destined for a MAC address that is not currently present in its MAC address table. What action will the switch take to ensure the frame reaches its intended destination?

A.The switch drops the frame immediately and sends an ICMP Destination Unreachable message to the source.
B.The switch floods the frame out of all ports within the same VLAN, except for the port where the frame was received.
C.The switch forwards the frame to the default gateway to be resolved by a Layer 3 routing process.
D.The switch buffers the frame and generates an ARP request to determine the correct exit port for the destination MAC.
AnswerB

Flooding the frame out of all active ports in the same VLAN, excluding the ingress port, is the standard behavior for unknown unicast traffic. This allows the destination device to receive the frame and respond, which then allows the switch to learn the destination's MAC address for future frames.

Why this answer

Switches use the MAC address table to make intelligent forwarding decisions. When a destination MAC address is missing from the table, the switch performs an unknown unicast flood. This mechanism ensures that the frame is delivered to the target device wherever it might be located within the broadcast domain.

Understanding this fundamental behavior is critical for troubleshooting connectivity issues and analyzing traffic flow within a local area network environment.

Exam trap

Candidates often guess that the switch drops the frame or sends it to the default gateway. The correct behavior is flooding to ensure the frame reaches the destination if it exists.

37
MCQeasy

A network administrator is setting up a small office network with a Cisco router and several switches. The administrator wants to ensure that devices on the local network can communicate with each other and access the internet. Which IP address configuration parameter must be set on each device to allow communication with remote networks?

AnswerC

The default gateway is the IP address of a router interface on the local subnet. When a device needs to communicate with a remote network, it sends packets to the default gateway, which then routes them. Without a default gateway, a device can only communicate within its local subnet, so this parameter is essential for internet access.

Why this answer

The default gateway is the router's IP address on the local subnet that devices use to forward packets destined for remote networks. Without it, a device can only communicate locally. The subnet mask helps identify local versus remote destinations, but the default gateway provides the actual path to those remote networks.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the role of DNS with that of the default gateway; DNS resolves names but does not route packets to remote networks.

38
MCQmedium

A switch is experiencing high levels of broadcast traffic. Which technology can be used to divide the switch into smaller, independent broadcast domains?

A.VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol)
B.VLANs
D.STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
AnswerB

VLANs allow an administrator to group ports logically, effectively creating separate broadcast domains within a single physical switch. This reduces the impact of broadcast traffic, as broadcasts sent in one VLAN do not propagate to ports associated with other VLANs, thereby enhancing network performance and security.

Why this answer

VLANs logically partition a single physical switch into multiple separate Layer 2 broadcast domains, so broadcast frames from one VLAN are not flooded to ports in another VLAN. This directly reduces the size of each broadcast domain and the overall broadcast traffic per segment. VLANs are defined in IEEE 802.1Q and are the standard method for broadcast domain segmentation on switches.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing VLANs with VTP: candidates see 'VLAN' in both and pick VTP, forgetting that VTP only propagates VLAN configuration and does not itself create broadcast domains.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VTP is only a Cisco proprietary protocol for propagating VLAN configuration changes between switches — it manages VLAN databases but does not itself create or segment broadcast domains. Option C is wrong because Port Security restricts which MAC addresses may appear on a switch port to prevent MAC flooding and unauthorized access; it has no effect on broadcast domain size. Option D is wrong because STP prevents Layer 2 loops by blocking redundant paths; it does not divide a switch into separate broadcast domains and actually operates within a single broadcast domain.

39
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors influence the selection of a specific router interface for traffic forwarding? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Longest prefix match
B.Source MAC address
D.Metric value
E.Switching fabric capacity
AnswersA, C, D

The longest prefix match is the primary rule for routing decisions. When multiple routes match a destination IP, the router chooses the path with the most specific subnet mask, ensuring that traffic is directed to the most precise destination possible within the network hierarchy.

Why this answer

The router selects a forwarding interface through a two-stage process: first it narrows candidate routes using the longest prefix match (Option A), so the route with the most specific matching network prefix wins over less specific ones. If multiple routes to the same destination prefix are learned from different sources, administrative distance (Option C) breaks the tie by preferring the more trustworthy source (e.g., connected, static, or a given routing protocol). Among routes from the same source/protocol, the metric value (Option D) is compared, and the lowest metric determines the best path and thus the egress interface.

The source MAC address (Option B) is a Layer 2 field used for frame delivery and MAC address-table lookups, not for choosing a route or egress interface. The switching fabric capacity (Option E) is an internal hardware throughput characteristic of the device and does not participate in route or interface selection.

Exam trap

The trap is including irrelevant factors like source MAC address or switching fabric capacity; candidates might think any network parameter influences routing, but only specific ones do.

40
MCQmedium

Users on VLAN 20 report that they can reach servers on VLAN 30 but cannot reach any hosts on VLAN 40. The administrator confirms that inter-VLAN routing is configured on a Layer 3 switch with switched virtual interfaces for all three VLANs. Which action should the administrator take first to isolate the problem?

A.Reconfigure the default gateway on all hosts in VLAN 20 to point to the VLAN 40 SVI address.
B.Verify that the VLAN 40 SVI is up and has the correct IP address and subnet mask.
C.Replace the Layer 3 switch with a router that has physical interfaces for each VLAN.
D.Disable inter-VLAN routing and rely on Layer 2 flooding to deliver traffic between VLANs.
AnswerB

If the switched virtual interface for VLAN 40 is down or misaddressed, hosts in other VLANs cannot route to it even though VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 work fine. Checking the SVI status and addressing is the most direct first step because it targets the specific failing destination. A down SVI commonly results from no active access ports or a missing VLAN definition.

Why this answer

Because routing between VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 already works, the Layer 3 switch is functioning as a router. The fault is specific to VLAN 40, so the logical first check is whether its switched virtual interface is up and correctly addressed. An SVI stays down when the VLAN has no active member ports or when the VLAN itself has not been created.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming the routing feature is broken globally, when the working VLAN-to-VLAN path proves routing functions and the fault is isolated to one destination.

41
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO protocols are commonly used to remotely manage Cisco network devices? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
AnswersA, C

SSH provides encrypted, secure remote access to the CLI. It is the industry standard for managing network infrastructure because it prevents eavesdropping on administrative sessions, ensuring that credentials and configuration commands remain private as they traverse the network between the technician and the device.

Why this answer

Secure remote management is critical for operational efficiency and network security. Administrators use terminal emulation protocols to access the Command Line Interface (CLI) from anywhere on the network. While older methods were insecure, modern standards prioritize encryption, ensuring that administrative traffic remains protected against sniffing and credential theft during routine configuration or monitoring tasks in an enterprise environment.

Exam trap

Candidates often include Telnet as a valid management protocol, overlooking that it is insecure and should not be used in modern enterprise environments compared to SSH and SNMP.

42
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is designing a redundant campus distribution layer to ensure high availability and fast failover. Which TWO infrastructure features should be implemented to achieve sub-second convergence and eliminate routing loops? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Virtual Switching System or StackWise technology to merge multiple physical switches into a single logical control plane.
B.Classic Spanning Tree Protocol with default port-cost metrics and standard 20-second maximum age timers.
C.Bidirectional Forwarding Detection integrated with routing protocols for rapid sub-second link failure detection.
D.Unidirectional Link Detection running in normal mode to log fiber transceiver misbehaviors without interface shutdown.
E.Static routing configurations with floating backup routes pointing to secondary internet service providers.
AnswersA, C

StackWise or Virtual Switching System merges physical switches into one logical control plane, so the distribution layer presents a single loop-free topology. This eliminates Layer 2 loops without blocking links and enables sub-second failover through rapid state synchronisation between chassis.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Virtual Switching System (VSS) or StackWise merges multiple physical switches into one logical control plane, enabling Multichassis EtherChannel (MEC) and eliminating the need for Spanning Tree to block redundant links, which removes Layer 2 loops and supports fast, deterministic failover. Option C is correct because Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) provides sub-second (often 50-300 ms) link failure detection and, when integrated with routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP, triggers rapid reconvergence far faster than default protocol hellos. Option B is not appropriate because classic STP with default 20-second max age and 2-second forward delay yields convergence in tens of seconds, not sub-second, and does not meet the design goal.

Option D is not appropriate because UDLD in normal mode only logs unidirectional link conditions without shutting down the interface, so it does not provide fast failover or loop prevention. Option E is not appropriate because static floating routes to secondary ISPs are for WAN/Internet redundancy and do not address campus distribution-layer loop elimination or sub-second convergence.

Exam trap

100-150 often tests the misconception that STP or UDLD normal mode provides fast convergence — candidates must remember that sub-second failover requires VSS/StackWise for loop elimination and BFD for millisecond failure detection, not legacy STP timers or logging-only UDLD.

43
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is deploying a new Cisco switch and needs to configure it for remote management. The engineer wants to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic and that only authorized personnel can access the switch. Which two configuration steps should the engineer perform? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure port security on all access ports.
B.Enable SSH and disable Telnet for remote access.
C.Assign an IP address to a management VLAN interface.
D.Configure a default gateway on the switch.
E.Enable DHCP snooping on the management VLAN.
AnswersB, C

Enabling SSH provides encrypted remote management, while disabling Telnet prevents unencrypted, insecure access. This is a critical step to ensure that only authorized personnel can access the switch securely. It directly addresses the requirement for secure remote management and should be paired with a management IP address.

Why this answer

To enable secure remote management, the switch needs an IP address on a management VLAN interface, and remote access should use SSH while Telnet is disabled. These steps provide a reachable management address and ensure that management sessions are encrypted. Other options, like port security or DHCP snooping, address different security concerns and do not fulfill the specific requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting port security or DHCP snooping as security measures for management access, confusing general switch security with management plane protection.

44
MCQeasy

Which cabling infrastructure standard should an engineer deploy to support 10 Gigabit Ethernet transmissions across a 300-meter horizontal run inside a modern enterprise building?

A.Category 6 unshielded twisted-pair copper cable terminated with standard RJ-45 modular plugs.
B.OM3 laser-optimized multimode fiber optic cabling terminated with LC duplex connectors.
C.Category 5e structured copper cabling tested to 100 MHz bandwidth performance profiles.
D.Coaxial broadband cabling utilizing 50-ohm impedance connectors and barrel adapters.
AnswerB

OM3 laser-optimised multimode fibre supports 10GBASE-SR to 300 metres, exactly meeting the horizontal run constraint. Its 850 nm VCSEL-optimised core handles 10 Gigabit Ethernet where copper twinax caps at shorter distances, and LC duplex termination suits standard SFP+ transceiver ports.

Why this answer

Multimode fiber optic cabling, specifically laser-optimized OM3 or OM4 fiber, supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet up to 300 or 400 meters respectively. Copper cabling such as Category 6 is strictly limited to 100 meters for standard Ethernet, making fiber the mandatory physical medium for distances exceeding that threshold within enterprise horizontal runs.

Exam trap

Candidates frequently select standard copper Category 6 cabling for distances over 100 meters, forgetting the strict physical distance limitations imposed on copper Ethernet standards.

45
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a default gateway in an IP host configuration?

A.To resolve domain names to IP addresses.
B.To act as an exit point for off-subnet traffic.
C.To manage the assignment of dynamic IP addresses.
D.To filter incoming traffic from the internet.
AnswerB

The default gateway serves as the interface on the local network that forwards traffic to other networks. By directing non-local traffic to this gateway, the host ensures that packets can successfully reach their destination even when they reside on a different broadcast domain or remote network.

Why this answer

A default gateway is the router that a host sends packets to when the destination IP is not on the local subnet. It serves as the exit point for off-subnet traffic, allowing communication with external networks such as the internet or other subnets.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the roles of different network services: DNS for name resolution, DHCP for IP assignment, and firewall for filtering, while the default gateway is solely for routing off-subnet traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because domain name resolution is the function of DNS servers, not the default gateway. Option C is wrong because dynamic IP address assignment is handled by DHCP servers, not the gateway. Option D is wrong because filtering incoming traffic is typically performed by firewalls or security appliances, not the default gateway's primary role.

46
MCQmedium

A network technician connects a new Cisco Catalyst switch to an existing production switch using a copper straight-through cable. The link lights on both ends remain off, and the technician confirms the cable is functional. The technician then replaces the cable with a crossover cable, and the link comes up. What is the most likely reason the straight-through cable failed to establish a link?

A.The straight-through cable is wired to T568A on one end and T568B on the other.
B.The switch port on the existing production switch is configured as a trunk port.
C.The existing production switch port is shut down administratively.
D.The new switch does not support Auto-MDIX, and both devices use the same pinout for transmit and receive pairs.
AnswerD

When connecting two switches, the transmit pair on one must connect to the receive pair on the other. Without Auto-MDIX, a straight-through cable connects transmit-to-transmit and receive-to-receive, preventing link. A crossover cable swaps the pairs, enabling communication. Auto-MDIX would automatically detect and correct the pinout, but if the new switch lacks it, a crossover cable is required.

Why this answer

Two switches connected with a straight-through cable without Auto-MDIX will not establish a link because transmit and receive pairs are not crossed. A crossover cable swaps the pairs, allowing the link to come up. The scenario confirms the cable itself is functional, so the issue is the pinout mismatch between similar devices.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any Ethernet cable will work between switches, ignoring the need for crossover pinouts when Auto-MDIX is unavailable.

47
MCQmedium

A small branch office has a Cisco Layer 2 access switch with three access ports assigned to VLAN 10 for the sales team and two access ports assigned to VLAN 20 for the finance team. The finance team reports that they cannot reach the sales team's shared file server, even though both teams are connected to the same physical switch. No router or Layer 3 switch is deployed at this branch. What is the most likely explanation for the connectivity failure?

A.The switch needs the ip routing global configuration command enabled so that it can forward frames between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20.
B.VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 are separate broadcast domains, and inter-VLAN traffic requires a Layer 3 device that is not present in this topology.
C.The access ports must be configured as trunk ports so that frames from both VLANs can be carried between them.
D.Spanning Tree Protocol has blocked the redundant path between the two VLANs, preventing traffic from flowing between them.
AnswerB

Each VLAN is its own broadcast domain, and hosts in different VLANs cannot communicate at Layer 2 because there is no shared broadcast segment. Forwarding between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device such as a router or multilayer switch performing inter-VLAN routing. Because the branch has only a Layer 2 access switch, no device exists to route traffic between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, so the finance hosts cannot reach the sales server.

Why this answer

Because VLANs are independent broadcast domains, hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 cannot exchange traffic at Layer 2 even when they are attached to the same physical switch. Communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device to route packets between the subnets. With only a Layer 2 access switch in the branch, no such device exists, so the finance team cannot reach the sales server.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that two VLANs on the same physical switch can communicate directly because the hardware is shared.

48
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to connect a workstation to a Cisco switch. Which cabling standard and medium should be utilized to ensure full-duplex communication while preventing collision domains?

A.Coaxial cable with half-duplex settings
B.Fiber optic cable with half-duplex settings
C.Category 6 twisted-pair cable with full-duplex settings
D.Category 3 twisted-pair cable with full-duplex settings
AnswerC

Category 6 twisted-pair cabling supports high-speed Ethernet standards and full-duplex operation, which allows simultaneous transmit and receive paths. By isolating these paths, collisions are eliminated, and the port operates as a point-to-point link, maximizing bandwidth utilization and throughput for the workstation.

Why this answer

Category 6 twisted-pair cable with full-duplex settings is the correct combination because modern Ethernet switches support full-duplex on twisted-pair, which eliminates collisions by providing separate transmit and receive paths on different wire pairs. Cat 6 supports gigabit speeds at 100 meters and is the appropriate medium for a workstation-to-switch connection. Full-duplex operation removes the collision domain entirely on that link.

Exam trap

The trap is pairing the wrong medium with the wrong duplex mode — candidates may pick fiber (which sounds faster) but the option incorrectly pairs it with half-duplex, or pick Cat 3 (which sounds adequate) without recognizing its 10 Mbps limit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because coaxial cable with half-duplex is legacy 10BASE2/10BASE5 technology — half-duplex creates a single collision domain and cannot provide full-duplex communication. Option B is wrong because fiber optic cable does support full-duplex, but the question specifies connecting a workstation to a Cisco switch with a standard copper interface, and half-duplex fiber is not a standard configuration — the option pairs fiber with half-duplex, which is incorrect. Option D is wrong because Category 3 cable is rated only for 10 Mbps and cannot support modern full-duplex gigabit communication reliably.

49
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator observes high error counts on a switch port. Based on the output, what is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.A VLAN mismatch between the switch and the connected device.
B.A duplex mismatch on the physical connection.
C.The switch port has been disabled by Port Security.
D.An incorrect IP address assigned to the interface.
AnswerB

A duplex mismatch occurs when one side of a link is set to half-duplex and the other to full-duplex. This causes collisions and frame fragmentation, which result in high CRC and alignment errors. The switch reports these as malformed frames that fail the cyclic redundancy check.

Why this answer

High error counts (CRC errors, late collisions, runts, giants) on a switch port are the classic signature of a duplex mismatch. When one side is set to full-duplex and the other to half-duplex, the full-duplex side transmits whenever it wants while the half-duplex side detects collisions and reports late collisions and FCS errors. The exhibit typically shows 'Late collisions' and 'CRC' counters incrementing.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates see 'high errors' and think VLAN or IP misconfiguration, but CRC and late collision counters specifically point to a Layer 1 duplex mismatch, not a Layer 2/3 problem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a VLAN mismatch causes connectivity failure or broadcast leakage between VLANs, not physical-layer error counters like CRC and late collisions. Option C is wrong because Port Security violations put the port into err-disabled state with a specific log message ('Port Security violation'), not high error counters. Option D is wrong because an incorrect IP address is a Layer 3 issue that affects reachability, not Layer 1/2 error counters on the switch port.

50
MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring a Cisco switch and wants to ensure that only the MAC addresses of known devices are allowed to send traffic on a specific access port. The administrator wants to manually specify the allowed MAC addresses and have the port shut down if a violation occurs. Which feature should be configured?

A.802.1X authentication
B.Port security with static MAC addresses and violation mode shutdown
AnswerB

Port security allows the administrator to restrict which MAC addresses can send traffic on a port. By configuring static MAC addresses and setting the violation mode to shutdown, the port will be disabled if a frame with a different source MAC address is received. This meets the requirement of allowing only known devices and shutting down on violation.

Why this answer

Port security is the correct feature to restrict a switch port to specific MAC addresses and take action on violation. Configuring static MAC addresses and setting the violation mode to shutdown ensures that only known devices can communicate, and any violation disables the port. Other features like DAI, 802.1X, and DHCP snooping serve different security purposes.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing port security with other Layer 2 security features like DAI or DHCP snooping, which do not restrict MAC addresses on a port.

51
MCQmedium

Which protocol is used to provide dynamic, automatic configuration of VLANs across a domain of switches?

A.STP
B.VTP
C.CDP
AnswerB

VTP allows switches to share and synchronize VLAN information within a VTP domain. This reduces the administrative burden by ensuring that all switches are aware of the same VLAN numbering and naming schemes, which is crucial for consistent network operations across a multi-switch campus environment.

Why this answer

VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) enables a centralized management of VLAN configurations across a switched network. By creating, deleting, or modifying VLANs on a server switch, those changes are propagated automatically to all client switches in the domain. Understanding VTP is essential for minimizing configuration errors and maintaining consistent VLAN databases in large-scale environments, though modern networks often prefer manual management for improved security control.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse VTP with other protocols like STP or trunking standards, incorrectly identifying it as a mechanism for traffic forwarding rather than a VLAN database management tool.

52
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the 'show running-config' command on a Cisco switch?

A.To save the current configuration to NVRAM.
B.To view the active configuration stored in RAM.
C.To clear all existing configurations on the device.
D.To view the hardware version and serial number.
AnswerB

This command provides an immediate view of the settings currently being used by the device's operating system. It reflects all changes made in the current session, making it the primary command used for confirming configurations before committing them to non-volatile memory for long-term storage.

Why this answer

The 'show running-config' command displays the current active configuration stored in RAM. This command is vital for verification, as it allows administrators to see exactly how the device is configured in real-time. Knowing how to interpret this output is essential for troubleshooting, as it reveals the current status of interfaces, security settings, and routing protocols before they are saved to the permanent startup configuration.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse the running-config with the startup-config, believing the 'show running-config' command displays the saved persistent configuration rather than the volatile configuration currently in RAM.

53
MCQeasy

Which device is primarily responsible for managing traffic between different IP subnets in a corporate network?

A.Layer 2 Switch
B.Hub
C.Router
D.Repeater
AnswerC

A router acts as a gateway between subnets, analyzing the destination IP address of incoming packets against its routing table. It strips Layer 2 headers and rebuilds them to forward traffic toward the destination network, providing the essential connectivity required for multi-segment infrastructure.

Why this answer

A router operates at Layer 3 (Network layer) and is responsible for forwarding packets between different IP subnets by examining IP addresses and making routing decisions. It maintains a routing table and uses protocols like OSPF or BGP to determine the best path. This makes it the primary device for inter-subnet traffic management in a corporate network.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Layer 2 switches with Layer 3 routing capabilities; candidates might think a switch can route between subnets, but only multilayer switches or routers do that.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Layer 2 switch forwards frames based on MAC addresses within the same subnet and does not perform routing between IP subnets unless it's a multilayer switch, which is not specified. Option B is wrong because a hub is a Layer 1 device that simply repeats signals to all ports, causing collisions and not managing traffic between subnets. Option D is wrong because a repeater regenerates signals to extend distance but does not make forwarding decisions or separate subnets.

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