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Cisco Certified Support Technician - Networking (100-150) — Questions 226–297

297 questions total · 4 pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of applying this ACL to a router interface, and what is its implication for other traffic?

A.Permits all traffic including HTTP.
B.Permits only HTTP and blocks others.
C.Permits all traffic except HTTP.
D.Allows all traffic by default.
AnswerB

The first line allows TCP port 80 (HTTP) from any source to any destination. The second line explicitly denies all other IP traffic. This effectively creates a strict filter that only allows web browsing, blocking all other protocols like FTP, SSH, or DNS, which are not explicitly permitted.

Why this answer

The ACL permits HTTP traffic and implicitly denies everything else due to the 'deny ip any any' statement. This is a common 'whitelist' approach used to secure interfaces by allowing only necessary services. Understanding this logic is vital because every Cisco ACL has an implicit deny at the end; failing to explicitly permit required traffic will result in connectivity issues, making careful ACL planning essential for maintaining network functionality.

Exam trap

Candidates often forget the implicit 'deny all' rule. They assume that if they permit one thing, everything else is allowed by default, which is the exact opposite of Cisco ACL behavior.

227
MCQmedium

A technician is examining a frame captured on a switch port and sees the destination MAC address field set to FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What is the purpose of this address in an Ethernet network?

A.It is a loopback address that causes the frame to be sent back to the originating device.
B.It is a multicast address used to send frames to a specific group of devices that have joined a multicast group.
C.It is a special address that identifies the default gateway for the local subnet.
D.It is a broadcast address that is delivered to all devices on the local network segment.
AnswerD

FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the reserved Ethernet broadcast address. When a frame carries this destination, every device on the same broadcast domain (VLAN) accepts and processes it. This is used by protocols such as ARP requests and DHCP Discover, which need to reach all hosts because the sender does not yet know a specific unicast MAC address.

Why this answer

The all-FF MAC address is the Ethernet broadcast address. When a frame uses it as the destination, all devices in the same broadcast domain receive and process the frame. This is essential for address resolution and dynamic configuration protocols where the sender does not yet know the unicast MAC address of the intended recipient.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the broadcast MAC address with multicast or gateway addresses, which use different prefixes and serve entirely different delivery scopes.

228
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring IPv6 on a Cisco router interface. The engineer wants to ensure that the interface can automatically generate a link-local address and participate in neighbor discovery without manual configuration. Which IPv6 address type is automatically generated on the interface when IPv6 is enabled?

A.Unique local address
B.Link-local address
C.Multicast address
D.Global unicast address
AnswerB

Enabling IPv6 on an interface, with 'ipv6 enable' or by configuring any IPv6 address, automatically creates a link-local address in FE80::/10, on Cisco routers usually from the MAC address using modified EUI-64. Link-local addresses are used for neighbour discovery, router advertisements and routing protocol neighbours, and are never routed. Many engineers set them manually, such as FE80::1, to make gateways easier to read.

Why this answer

Enabling IPv6 on an interface automatically creates a link-local address, which is essential for neighbor discovery and local link communication. Global unicast and unique local addresses require additional configuration or router advertisements. Multicast addresses are not unicast addresses assigned to the interface.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a global unicast address is automatically configured, when in fact only the link-local address is generated without external input.

229
MCQmedium

A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue where a workstation cannot communicate with a server on a different subnet. The workstation has an IP address of 192.168.1.5/24 and the server is at 192.168.2.10/24. Which component is strictly responsible for routing traffic across these disparate subnets?

A.The local Layer 2 switch
B.The router or Layer 3 gateway
C.The network interface card (NIC)
D.The ARP cache on the workstation
AnswerB

The router functions as the default gateway that examines the destination IP address of packets. It performs route lookups in its routing table to determine the next hop for the destination subnet, enabling communication across separate logical networks and bridging the broadcast domain separation.

Why this answer

Routing traffic between distinct subnets requires a Layer 3 device capable of making forwarding decisions based on destination IP addresses. While switches operate at Layer 2 for local segments, they cannot bridge traffic across different broadcast domains without an inter-VLAN routing interface or a dedicated router. Understanding this boundary is fundamental to network architecture and ensuring proper traffic flow in multi-segment environments.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume that standard Layer 2 switches can automatically bridge traffic between different subnets without routing capabilities.

230
Multi-Selectmedium

A small office wants to reduce the risk of malware arriving through email and malicious websites while keeping administration simple. Which two measures provide the strongest protection against these threats? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Install and regularly update endpoint antivirus and anti-malware software on all workstations.
B.Share a single administrator account among all staff so everyone can fix problems quickly.
C.Disable automatic operating system updates to prevent unexpected reboots.
D.Deploy a secure web gateway or DNS filtering service that blocks known malicious domains.
E.Allow all outbound traffic from the internal network to simplify troubleshooting.
AnswersA, D

Endpoint protection detects and blocks known malicious files and behaviors on the host itself, which is the last line of defense if a dangerous attachment or download slips past other controls. Regular signature and engine updates are essential because new malware variants appear constantly, so this directly addresses the stated risk with modest administrative effort.

Why this answer

The strongest pairing couples host-level defense with network-level filtering. Endpoint antivirus catches payloads that reach the workstation, while a secure web gateway or DNS filtering service blocks the malicious domains that deliver those payloads. Together they cover both the email and web vectors named in the scenario without heavy administrative overhead, whereas disabling updates, permitting all outbound traffic, and sharing administrator accounts all increase exposure.

Exam trap

The trap here is choosing measures that merely simplify operations, such as disabling updates, when the question asks for the strongest threat protection.

231
MCQmedium

Users on VLAN 20 report that they can reach servers on VLAN 30 but cannot reach any hosts on VLAN 40. The administrator confirms that inter-VLAN routing is configured on a Layer 3 switch with switched virtual interfaces for all three VLANs. Which action should the administrator take first to isolate the problem?

A.Reconfigure the default gateway on all hosts in VLAN 20 to point to the VLAN 40 SVI address.
B.Verify that the VLAN 40 SVI is up and has the correct IP address and subnet mask.
C.Replace the Layer 3 switch with a router that has physical interfaces for each VLAN.
D.Disable inter-VLAN routing and rely on Layer 2 flooding to deliver traffic between VLANs.
AnswerB

If the switched virtual interface for VLAN 40 is down or misaddressed, hosts in other VLANs cannot route to it even though VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 work fine. Checking the SVI status and addressing is the most direct first step because it targets the specific failing destination. A down SVI commonly results from no active access ports or a missing VLAN definition.

Why this answer

Because routing between VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 already works, the Layer 3 switch is functioning as a router. The fault is specific to VLAN 40, so the logical first check is whether its switched virtual interface is up and correctly addressed. An SVI stays down when the VLAN has no active member ports or when the VLAN itself has not been created.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming the routing feature is broken globally, when the working VLAN-to-VLAN path proves routing functions and the fault is isolated to one destination.

232
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO protocols are commonly used to remotely manage Cisco network devices? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.SSH
B.Telnet
C.SNMP
D.ICMP
E.SMTP
AnswersA, C

SSH provides encrypted, secure remote access to the CLI. It is the industry standard for managing network infrastructure because it prevents eavesdropping on administrative sessions, ensuring that credentials and configuration commands remain private as they traverse the network between the technician and the device.

Why this answer

Secure remote management is critical for operational efficiency and network security. Administrators use terminal emulation protocols to access the Command Line Interface (CLI) from anywhere on the network. While older methods were insecure, modern standards prioritize encryption, ensuring that administrative traffic remains protected against sniffing and credential theft during routine configuration or monitoring tasks in an enterprise environment.

Exam trap

Candidates often include Telnet as a valid management protocol, overlooking that it is insecure and should not be used in modern enterprise environments compared to SSH and SNMP.

233
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are considered best practices for hardening a Cisco network device?

Select 3 answers
A.Disabling unused services and ports
B.Using Telnet for remote access
C.Implementing a strong password policy
D.Configuring SNMPv1 with 'public' string
E.Securing the console port
AnswersA, C, E

Minimizing active services and ports reduces the overall attack surface of a device. Each enabled service, such as HTTP or Finger, represents a potential vulnerability. By shutting down everything that is not explicitly required for operation, you eliminate unnecessary entry points that attackers could otherwise leverage.

Why this answer

Hardening a device is a continuous process of reducing the attack surface. Disabling unused services, using strong authentication, and physical security are foundational. These steps are crucial because many attacks exploit default configurations or legacy, insecure services.

By proactively minimizing the services running on a device and enforcing rigorous access controls, administrators significantly lower the risk of unauthorized exploitation and ensure the device remains compliant with security standards.

Exam trap

Candidates often select options that keep default configurations or legacy management protocols active, failing to recognize that hardening requires minimizing the attack surface.

234
MCQhard

A network administrator is configuring a switch port that connects to a server. The administrator wants to ensure that the port does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) and immediately transitions to the forwarding state when the link comes up. Which feature should be configured on this port?

A.Root Guard
B.Loop Guard
C.BPDU Guard
D.PortFast
AnswerD

PortFast is a Cisco feature that allows an access port to bypass the listening and learning STP states, immediately entering the forwarding state. It is designed for ports connected to end devices like servers or workstations, reducing the time they wait for network connectivity. However, it should not be used on ports connecting to switches to avoid loops.

Why this answer

PortFast is the correct feature because it allows an access port to skip the STP listening and learning states and go straight to forwarding, which is ideal for server connections. BPDU Guard, Root Guard, and Loop Guard are STP enhancement features that protect the topology but do not provide immediate forwarding.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing PortFast, which speeds up STP convergence for access ports, with BPDU Guard, which protects the port but does not affect transition timing.

235
MCQhard

A network technician is troubleshooting intermittent connectivity to a server. The technician suspects a duplex mismatch on a switch port connected to the server. Which command should be used to check the duplex setting and error statistics on the switch port?

A.show cdp neighbors gigabitEthernet 0/1
B.show controllers gigabitEthernet 0/1
C.show ip interface gigabitEthernet 0/1
D.show interfaces gigabitEthernet 0/1
AnswerD

show interfaces gigabitEthernet 0/1 displays detailed statistics for the specified interface, including duplex mode, speed, and error counters such as late collisions, FCS errors, and runts. These errors are characteristic of a duplex mismatch. This command provides the necessary information to confirm or rule out duplex issues on that port.

Why this answer

A duplex mismatch often causes late collisions, FCS errors, and runts on the side configured for half-duplex. The show interfaces command provides duplex mode and error counters for a specific interface. By examining these statistics, the technician can confirm whether a mismatch exists and take corrective action, such as setting both sides to auto-negotiate or matching duplex settings manually.

Exam trap

The trap here is using Layer 3 or neighbor discovery commands to diagnose a physical layer duplex issue, missing the need for interface error counters and duplex status.

236
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A workstation is experiencing intermittent connectivity and slow network speeds. Based on the provided CLI output, what is the most likely cause of the performance issue?

A.A faulty SFP module in the switch
B.Excessive cable length beyond 100 meters
C.Electromagnetic interference from nearby power lines
D.A duplex mismatch between the switch and the host
AnswerD

The presence of late collisions is the classic indicator of a duplex mismatch. This happens when the switch port sends data assuming full-duplex, but the endpoint is operating in half-duplex mode. The endpoint detects a collision after the initial transmission window has passed, leading to the specific error counters shown.

Why this answer

A duplex mismatch occurs when one side of a link is set to full-duplex while the other is set to half-duplex. This leads to the half-duplex side detecting collisions late in the frame transmission process, while the full-duplex side records CRC errors because the incoming frames are interrupted or corrupted by the collision attempts.

Exam trap

Test-takers frequently misattribute CRC errors and slow speeds to faulty cabling or attenuation, overlooking configuration mismatches like duplex settings between connected interfaces.

237
MCQhard

A technician needs to identify which endpoint is connected to a specific switch port. Which command should be used to see the Layer 2 address of the connected device and the port it is associated with?

A.show ip route
B.show mac address-table
C.show interfaces status
D.show running-config
AnswerB

This command displays the switch's CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table, listing every learned MAC address and its corresponding physical interface. It is the primary way to verify which endpoint is physically reachable on a specific port and to troubleshoot connectivity at the Data Link layer.

Why this answer

The show mac address-table command displays the switch's MAC address table, which maps MAC addresses to switch ports and VLANs. This allows a technician to identify which endpoint (by its Layer 2 MAC address) is connected to a specific port. It is the standard Cisco IOS command for Layer 2 endpoint-to-port mapping.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Layer 2 and Layer 3 commands: candidates may pick show ip route or show interfaces status, but only show mac address-table reveals the MAC-to-port association.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because show ip route displays the Layer 3 routing table (destination networks, next-hop IPs, metrics), not MAC-to-port mappings. Option C is wrong because show interfaces status shows port status (connected/notconnect), speed, duplex, and VLAN, but not the MAC addresses of connected devices. Option D is wrong because show running-config displays the active configuration file, which may include static MAC entries or interface configs but does not dynamically list learned MAC addresses per port.

238
MCQmedium

A technician is terminating a UTP cable. One end is terminated using the T568A standard, and the other end is terminated using the T568B standard. What type of cable has been created?

A.Straight-through cable
B.Crossover cable
C.Rollover cable
D.Console cable
AnswerB

By terminating one end as T568A and the other as T568B, the technician has manually swapped the transmit (pins 1 and 2) and receive (pins 3 and 6) pairs. This results in a crossover cable, which was traditionally used to connect two switches or two PCs together directly.

Why this answer

A crossover cable is created when one end uses T568A pinout and the other uses T568B, which swaps the transmit and receive pairs (pins 1&2 with 3&6). This allows two like devices (e.g., switch-to-switch or PC-to-PC) to communicate without a crossover-capable port. The mismatched standards on each end is the defining characteristic of a crossover cable.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that any cable with different pinouts is a rollover cable; candidates must remember that T568A-to-T568B specifically creates a crossover, while rollover reverses all eight pins.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a straight-through cable uses the same standard (T568A on both ends or T568B on both ends), keeping transmit and receive pairs in the same positions. Option C is wrong because a rollover cable (Cisco console cable) reverses all eight pins (pin 1 to pin 8, etc.) and uses a flat light-blue cable with RJ-45 to DB-9/DB-25 or USB — it is not defined by T568A/T568B mixing. Option D is wrong because a console cable is a rollover cable used to connect a terminal to a device's console port; it is a use case, not the result of mixing T568A and T568B.

239
MCQmedium

Which feature is best suited to prevent VLAN hopping attacks where an attacker sends double-tagged 802.1Q frames to reach a restricted VLAN?

A.Disabling DTP and setting ports to 'switchport mode access'.
B.Implementing a standard Access Control List.
C.Configuring PortFast on all access ports.
D.Enabling VTP pruning on the switch.
AnswerA

Disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol and forcing ports into access mode prevents the switch from negotiating a trunk link with connected devices. Without a trunk link, the switch will not process double-tagged frames as intended by the attacker, effectively neutralizing the double-tagging attack vector at the switch port level.

Why this answer

VLAN hopping via double-tagging occurs when an attacker sends a frame with two tags to a switch, tricking it into bypassing port restrictions. By explicitly configuring ports as access ports and disabling DTP negotiation, administrators prevent the switch from automatically forming trunks with unauthorized devices. This is a critical hardening step because it removes the possibility of a device negotiating a trunk link, which is required for VLAN hopping to succeed.

Exam trap

Candidates often suggest 'VLAN pruning' or 'Root Guard' as solutions for VLAN hopping. These features handle traffic efficiency and STP stability, but they do not prevent double-tagging attacks at the access port.

240
MCQhard

A network engineer is deploying a fiber-optic link between two buildings 550 meters apart. The engineer selects 1000BASE-SX multimode fiber with a wavelength of 850 nm. Which statement accurately describes the expected performance or limitation of this choice?

A.1000BASE-SX uses a 1310 nm wavelength and can reach 550 meters on single-mode fiber only.
B.1000BASE-SX supports distances up to 550 meters on 50-micron multimode fiber, so the link should operate correctly if the fiber meets that specification.
C.1000BASE-SX cannot be used for inter-building links because it is limited to 100 meters regardless of fiber type.
D.1000BASE-SX supports distances up to 10 kilometers on single-mode fiber, so the engineer should use single-mode instead.
AnswerB

1000BASE-SX is designed for short-wavelength (850 nm) transmission over multimode fiber, and the IEEE standard specifies a maximum distance of 550 meters on 50-micron multimode fiber (and 275 meters on 62.5-micron fiber). Since the buildings are 550 meters apart, the link is at the edge of the supported range and should work if the installed fiber is 50-micron multimode with adequate modal bandwidth.

Why this answer

1000BASE-SX is specified for 850 nm transmission over multimode fiber, with a maximum reach of 550 meters on 50-micron multimode fiber. Because the buildings are exactly 550 meters apart, the link is at the limit but still within the standard. The engineer must confirm the fiber core size and modal bandwidth to ensure the link operates reliably.

Exam trap

The trap here is mixing up the distance and wavelength specifications of 1000BASE-SX with those of 1000BASE-LX, or incorrectly applying the 100-meter copper limit to fiber media.

241
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is designing a redundant campus distribution layer to ensure high availability and fast failover. Which TWO infrastructure features should be implemented to achieve sub-second convergence and eliminate routing loops? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Virtual Switching System or StackWise technology to merge multiple physical switches into a single logical control plane.
B.Classic Spanning Tree Protocol with default port-cost metrics and standard 20-second maximum age timers.
C.Bidirectional Forwarding Detection integrated with routing protocols for rapid sub-second link failure detection.
D.Unidirectional Link Detection running in normal mode to log fiber transceiver misbehaviors without interface shutdown.
E.Static routing configurations with floating backup routes pointing to secondary internet service providers.
AnswersA, C

StackWise or Virtual Switching System merges physical switches into one logical control plane, so the distribution layer presents a single loop-free topology. This eliminates Layer 2 loops without blocking links and enables sub-second failover through rapid state synchronisation between chassis.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Virtual Switching System (VSS) or StackWise merges multiple physical switches into one logical control plane, enabling Multichassis EtherChannel (MEC) and eliminating the need for Spanning Tree to block redundant links, which removes Layer 2 loops and supports fast, deterministic failover. Option C is correct because Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) provides sub-second (often 50-300 ms) link failure detection and, when integrated with routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP, triggers rapid reconvergence far faster than default protocol hellos. Option B is not appropriate because classic STP with default 20-second max age and 2-second forward delay yields convergence in tens of seconds, not sub-second, and does not meet the design goal.

Option D is not appropriate because UDLD in normal mode only logs unidirectional link conditions without shutting down the interface, so it does not provide fast failover or loop prevention. Option E is not appropriate because static floating routes to secondary ISPs are for WAN/Internet redundancy and do not address campus distribution-layer loop elimination or sub-second convergence.

Exam trap

100-150 often tests the misconception that STP or UDLD normal mode provides fast convergence — candidates must remember that sub-second failover requires VSS/StackWise for loop elimination and BFD for millisecond failure detection, not legacy STP timers or logging-only UDLD.

242
MCQeasy

When connecting a modern PC directly to a modern Cisco switch port, the technician uses a standard straight-through cable and the link comes up immediately. Which feature enabled this connection to work?

A.Full-Duplex Negotiation
B.Auto-MDIX
C.PoE Autonegotiation
D.CSMA/CD
AnswerB

Auto-MDIX (Automatic Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover) is a feature that allows a switch interface to automatically detect the required cable type. It electronically swaps the transmit and receive pairs if necessary, allowing a straight-through cable to work even when a crossover cable would traditionally be required.

Why this answer

Historically, connecting like-devices required crossover cables, while unlike-devices used straight-through cables. Modern networking equipment simplifies this with a feature that automatically detects the required cable type and adjusts the internal transmit and receive pairs accordingly, allowing for greater flexibility and fewer specialized cables in a technician's kit.

Exam trap

Candidates often credit the cable type or the network card speed, failing to identify Auto-MDIX as the specific feature that allows switches to detect and adjust pinouts automatically.

243
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is verifying the hardware installed in a switch. What type of media is required to connect to the 'Te1/1/1' interface based on the SFP type shown?

A.Single-mode fiber optic cable
B.Category 6a copper cable
C.Multi-mode fiber optic cable
D.Twinaxial (DAC) copper cable
AnswerC

The SFP-10G-SR module is designed specifically for multi-mode fiber (MMF). It uses a lower-cost laser to transmit data over the relatively wide core of multi-mode glass, making it the standard choice for high-speed 10 Gbps links within a data center or between adjacent equipment rooms.

Why this answer

The 'Te1/1/1' interface naming indicates a 10 Gigabit Ethernet port, and the SFP type shown in the exhibit is a multi-mode fiber SFP (typically with an OM3/OM4 LC connector and a wavelength like 850 nm). Multi-mode fiber is used for short-reach 10G connections up to ~300–400 m, which matches the SFP's design. Therefore, a multi-mode fiber optic cable is required.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any fiber SFP works with any fiber cable; candidates must distinguish single-mode vs. multi-mode based on the SFP model and the distance/wavelength indicated in the exhibit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because single-mode fiber is used with long-reach SFPs (e.g., 10GBASE-LR/ER, 1310/1550 nm) for distances up to 10 km or more; the exhibit's SFP is not a single-mode type. Option B is wrong because Category 6a copper cable connects to RJ-45 ports (e.g., 10GBASE-T), not to an SFP slot, which accepts optical transceivers. Option D is wrong because a twinaxial DAC cable is a copper direct-attach cable used for short-range 10G/40G connections between switches or servers, but it uses a different SFP+ form factor and is not the fiber media indicated by the SFP type shown.

244
MCQeasy

A small office technician is assigning IPv4 addresses to devices on a network that will not connect to the internet and uses the 192.168.50.0/24 range. The technician needs to pick an address from the valid host range for this network. Which address should the technician choose?

A.192.168.50.1
B.192.168.50.255
C.192.168.50.0
D.192.168.51.1
AnswerA

In the 192.168.50.0/24 network, the first usable host address is 192.168.50.1, since .0 is the network address and .255 is the broadcast address. This address falls within the valid host range of .1 through .254 and can be assigned to a device interface without conflict.

Why this answer

For any subnet, the network address and the broadcast address are reserved and cannot be assigned to hosts. In 192.168.50.0/24, the usable host range is 192.168.50.1 through 192.168.50.254, so the only valid host address listed is 192.168.50.1. The address ending in .0 is the network, .255 is the broadcast, and 192.168.51.1 is in a different subnet.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any address in a private range is automatically a valid host address, ignoring the reserved network and broadcast values within the specific subnet.

245
MCQmedium

A network administrator is troubleshooting a switch port that connects to a user's PC. The port shows a status of 'err-disabled' and the reason is 'psecure-violation.' Which action should the administrator take first to resolve this?

A.Shut down and re-enable the interface with the shutdown and no shutdown commands.
B.Configure the port as a trunk to allow multiple MAC addresses.
C.Replace the Ethernet cable connecting the PC to the switch port.
D.Remove the unauthorized device or MAC address causing the port security violation.
AnswerD

The reason 'psecure-violation' indicates that port security detected a MAC address not allowed on the port. The correct first step is to identify and remove the offending device or MAC address, or update the port security configuration if the device is authorized. Re-enabling the port without fixing the violation would just trigger the violation again. Addressing the root cause is the proper resolution.

Why this answer

The 'psecure-violation' reason indicates that port security has detected an unauthorized MAC address on the interface. The administrator must first identify and remove the device or MAC address causing the violation, or adjust the port security configuration if the device is legitimate. Simply re-enabling the port without resolving the violation will cause it to become err-disabled again.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that cycling the interface with shutdown/no shutdown fixes the problem, when it only temporarily clears the state without removing the violation cause.

246
MCQeasy

An organization is upgrading its cabling infrastructure to support Gigabit Ethernet over a distance of 85 meters. Which twisted-pair cable category is the minimum requirement to reliably support 1000 Mbps speeds at this specific distance?

A.Category 3 (Cat3)
B.Category 5 (Cat5)
C.Category 5e (Cat5e)
D.Category 2 (Cat2)
AnswerC

Category 5e is specifically enhanced to handle Gigabit Ethernet speeds up to 1000 Mbps over distances of 100 meters. It features tighter twists and better shielding against near-end crosstalk compared to standard Cat5. This makes it the most cost-effective minimum requirement for a standard office environment needing reliable Gigabit connectivity over 85 meters.

Why this answer

Selecting the correct copper cabling category is vital for meeting bandwidth requirements while adhering to distance limitations defined by TIA/EIA standards. Understanding the capabilities of different categories ensures that the network infrastructure can support modern data rates without signal degradation or excessive crosstalk, which could lead to retransmissions and degraded user experiences across the enterprise.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse Cat5 with Cat5e, forgetting that while both support 100 Mbps, only Cat5e is certified to reliably handle 1000 Mbps (Gigabit Ethernet) at standard distances up to 100 meters.

247
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A company applies this JSON security policy to its edge firewall. What is the primary standard or concept being enforced by this configuration?

A.Data Integrity
B.Confidentiality
C.Availability
D.Physical Security
AnswerB

Encryption provided by HTTPS (port 443) ensures that data remains private and cannot be read by eavesdroppers. This configuration enforces the concept of confidentiality by blocking unencrypted HTTP traffic, which transmits data in cleartext. Protecting sensitive user data or credentials requires this move to secure transport protocols.

Why this answer

This policy demonstrates the enforcement of secure web communication standards. By denying traffic on port 80 (HTTP) and allowing traffic on port 443 (HTTPS), the organization ensures that all web data is encrypted during transit. This is a fundamental security practice to protect sensitive information from being intercepted by unauthorized parties.

Exam trap

Candidates often focus on the syntax of the JSON policy rather than the intent, failing to recognize that disabling HTTP (port 80) enforces encrypted traffic (HTTPS/Confidentiality).

248
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary security benefits of implementing an Access Control List (ACL) on a Cisco router interface?

Select 2 answers
A.Encrypting sensitive data traffic
B.Restricting unauthorized network access
C.Limiting traffic based on specific criteria
D.Automatically updating firmware
E.Providing hardware redundancy
AnswersB, C

ACLs provide a way to define explicit rules that permit or deny traffic based on IP addresses or protocols. By applying these lists to interfaces, you effectively restrict access to network resources, ensuring that only authorized traffic flows between specified endpoints, thus hardening the network against intruders.

Why this answer

ACLs are essential tools for traffic filtering and network segmentation. By controlling which packets are permitted or denied based on source, destination, and protocol, administrators enforce security policies at the network edge or between VLANs. Understanding how ACLs manage traffic flow is critical for maintaining network integrity and preventing unauthorized data access, as they provide the fundamental mechanism for restricting communication between sensitive network segments in a controlled and highly audit-able manner.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse ACLs with encryption tools or stateful firewalls, assuming they provide deep packet inspection or confidentiality rather than simple packet filtering based on defined criteria.

249
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the 'ip dhcp snooping trust' command on the designated interface?

A.It forces the port to drop all DHCP traffic.
B.It permits DHCP server messages on the port.
C.It enables port security on the interface.
D.It prevents ARP spoofing on the port.
AnswerB

By default, all ports are untrusted and block DHCP server-originated messages. The 'ip dhcp snooping trust' command explicitly configures the interface as a source of legitimate DHCP traffic, permitting server-side messages to reach clients, which is necessary for proper DHCP functionality in a snooping-enabled environment.

Why this answer

In DHCP Snooping, ports are untrusted by default. The 'trust' command marks an interface as connected to a legitimate DHCP server, allowing DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK messages to pass through. Without this command, the switch would drop these server-originated messages on that port, preventing clients from receiving IP addresses.

This is critical for controlling which DHCP servers are allowed to interact with the network, thereby mitigating unauthorized server attacks.

Exam trap

Test-takers often think this command disables DHCP functionality on the port or trusts client computers, rather than allowing legitimate server messages through.

250
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements correctly describe valid rules for compressing or representing IPv6 addresses?

Select 2 answers
A.Leading zeros in a quartet can be omitted.
B.Consecutive fields of zeros can be replaced by '::' only once.
C.Trailing zeros in a quartet can be omitted to save space.
D.A single quartet of '0000' must always be compressed to '::'.
E.IPv6 addresses use dots to separate quartets for better readability.
AnswersA, B

Removing leading zeros is a standard compression method that simplifies the appearance of an address without changing its value. For example, the quartet '0db8' can be written as 'db8'. This reduces the character count and makes the address easier for network technicians to read and document.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because RFC 4291 permits omitting leading zeros within any 16-bit hexadecimal quartet, so '0db8' can be written as 'db8' and '0001' as '1'. Option B is correct because the '::' shorthand may be used only once in an address; it represents one or more consecutive groups of zeros, and using it twice would make the address ambiguous. Option C is wrong because only leading zeros may be dropped, not trailing zeros, since removing trailing zeros would change the value of the quartet.

Option D is wrong because compression is optional, not mandatory, and a single '0000' quartet may be written as '0' or left uncompressed. Option E is wrong because IPv6 uses colons to separate quartets, while dots appear only in mixed IPv4-embedded notation such as '::ffff:192.168.0.1'.

Exam trap

The trap is mixing up leading and trailing zero rules and assuming :: can be used multiple times; the exam tests precise recall of RFC 4291 compression constraints.

251
MCQmedium

A network administrator is connecting a Cisco switch to another Cisco switch using a copper cable. The administrator wants to avoid manual crossover configuration and ensure the link works regardless of cable type. Which technology should be enabled on the switch ports?

A.Spanning Tree Protocol
B.Auto-MDIX
C.Port security
D.Link Aggregation Control Protocol
AnswerB

Auto-MDIX automatically detects whether a straight-through or crossover cable is connected and adjusts the transmit and receive pins accordingly. This allows a switch-to-switch link to work with either cable type without manual intervention. Enabling Auto-MDIX meets the requirement of avoiding manual crossover configuration.

Why this answer

Auto-MDIX is the correct feature because it automatically adjusts the port's transmit and receive pins to match the cable type, whether straight-through or crossover. This eliminates the need for manual crossover cables on switch-to-switch links. Port security, STP, and LACP serve different purposes and do not resolve cable pinout issues.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing auto-MDIX with auto-negotiation, which only handles speed and duplex, not cable pinout.

252
MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot access any websites by name, but they can reach them by typing the IP address directly into the browser. The technician confirms that the workstation has a valid IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Which command should the technician use to test whether the DNS server is responding to queries?

A.nslookup
B.tracert 8.8.8.8
C.ping 8.8.8.8
D.ipconfig /release
AnswerA

nslookup is a command-line tool that queries DNS servers to resolve hostnames to IP addresses. Running nslookup allows the technician to test whether the configured DNS server is reachable and responding to queries. If nslookup fails or times out, it indicates a DNS server issue, which aligns with the symptom of being unable to access websites by name while IP connectivity works.

Why this answer

The ability to reach websites by IP address but not by name strongly suggests a DNS resolution problem. The nslookup command directly queries the DNS server, allowing the technician to confirm whether the server is reachable and resolving names correctly. If nslookup fails, the technician can then investigate DNS server configuration or network connectivity to the DNS server.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a successful ping to a public IP address validates DNS, when in fact it only confirms IP-level connectivity and bypasses name resolution entirely.

253
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are valid private IPv4 address ranges as defined in RFC 1918?

Select 3 answers
A.10.0.0.0/8
B.172.16.0.0/12
C.192.168.0.0/16
D.127.0.0.0/8
E.224.0.0.0/4
AnswersA, B, C

The 10.0.0.0/8 block is the largest private address range, spanning from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. It is commonly used in enterprise environments to facilitate internal communication across large-scale distributed networks without the need for public IP address registration for every internal host on the network.

Why this answer

RFC 1918 defines specific address blocks reserved for private networks. These addresses are not routable on the public internet and are used internally to conserve public IPv4 address space. Technicians must be able to identify these ranges to configure NAT, DHCP, and internal routing policies accurately, as misusing public addresses in private ranges can lead to connectivity failures or security issues.

Exam trap

Candidates often misidentify the 172.16.0.0/12 range, erroneously including the entire 172.0.0.0/8 block instead of the specific RFC 1918 reserved private address range.

254
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods are considered effective for securing the control plane of Cisco networking devices? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Implementation of Control Plane Policing (CoPP)
B.Enabling SNMPv1 for remote monitoring
C.Applying VTY access control lists
D.Disabling the use of SSH for remote management
E.Increasing the size of the routing table
AnswersA, C

Control Plane Policing allows administrators to filter traffic destined for the device CPU. By applying policy maps to the control plane, traffic can be rate-limited or dropped, preventing DoS attacks from exhausting the CPU resources and maintaining device stability during high traffic loads or malicious packet floods.

Why this answer

Securing the control plane is essential to protect the CPU from resource exhaustion and unauthorized access. By limiting access to management interfaces and protecting the CPU from excessive traffic, administrators ensure the stability of the device routing and switching functions. These practices are critical because the control plane is the 'brain' of the network device; if it is compromised or overwhelmed, the entire network segment may experience service outages.

Exam trap

Candidates often choose 'Port Security' or 'DHCP Snooping' as control plane security methods. These are access layer features, whereas Control Plane Policing (CoPP) is specifically designed to protect the router CPU.

255
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring a new switch and needs to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic. The engineer decides to create a separate VLAN for management and assign an IP address to a switch virtual interface (SVI) on that VLAN. Which type of VLAN is being implemented?

A.Management VLAN
B.Native VLAN
C.Data VLAN
D.Voice VLAN
AnswerA

A management VLAN is specifically created to isolate management traffic, such as SSH, SNMP, and syslog, from user data. By assigning an SVI on this VLAN, the engineer enables secure management access to the switch while keeping that traffic separate. This exactly matches the scenario's requirement to isolate management traffic from user data traffic.

Why this answer

A management VLAN is dedicated to carrying administrative traffic, allowing network devices to be managed securely without mixing that traffic with user data. By creating such a VLAN and assigning an SVI, the engineer ensures that management access is isolated, which is a best practice for network security and segmentation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the native VLAN with a management VLAN, since both can involve untagged traffic and VLAN 1 defaults.

256
MCQhard

A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two switches. The link between them is up, but users on one switch cannot reach devices on the other. The technician suspects a VLAN mismatch. Which command should be used on a Cisco switch to verify the VLAN assignments on a specific interface?

A.show vlan brief
B.show ip interface brief
C.show interfaces switchport
D.show mac address-table
AnswerC

The show interfaces switchport command displays detailed switchport information for all interfaces, including the administrative and operational mode (access or trunk), the access VLAN, and the trunking VLANs allowed. This is essential for verifying whether both ends of the link are configured with matching VLAN assignments, which is critical when troubleshooting a suspected VLAN mismatch between switches.

Why this answer

A VLAN mismatch between switches typically occurs when the trunk link does not allow the required VLANs or when access ports are assigned to different VLANs. The show interfaces switchport command provides a comprehensive view of the switchport configuration, including access VLAN, trunk native VLAN, and allowed VLANs. By comparing the output on both switches, the technician can quickly identify and correct any mismatch.

Exam trap

The trap here is relying on show vlan brief to verify interface VLAN assignments, but that command lists VLAN-to-port mappings without showing the operational mode or trunking details needed for inter-switch links.

257
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is deploying a new Cisco switch and needs to configure it for remote management. The engineer wants to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic and that only authorized personnel can access the switch. Which two configuration steps should the engineer perform? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure port security on all access ports.
B.Enable SSH and disable Telnet for remote access.
C.Assign an IP address to a management VLAN interface.
D.Configure a default gateway on the switch.
E.Enable DHCP snooping on the management VLAN.
AnswersB, C

Enabling SSH provides encrypted remote management, while disabling Telnet prevents unencrypted, insecure access. This is a critical step to ensure that only authorized personnel can access the switch securely. It directly addresses the requirement for secure remote management and should be paired with a management IP address.

Why this answer

To enable secure remote management, the switch needs an IP address on a management VLAN interface, and remote access should use SSH while Telnet is disabled. These steps provide a reachable management address and ensure that management sessions are encrypted. Other options, like port security or DHCP snooping, address different security concerns and do not fulfill the specific requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting port security or DHCP snooping as security measures for management access, confusing general switch security with management plane protection.

258
MCQmedium

Which component of the AAA security framework is responsible for determining which specific commands a user is permitted to execute on a Cisco router after they have successfully logged in?

A.Authentication
B.Authorization
C.Accounting
D.Availability
AnswerB

Authorization is the process of granting or denying specific rights and permissions to a user. In a networking context, this determines which commands a user can run or which services they can access. It ensures that users operate within their assigned roles and cannot perform unauthorized configuration changes.

Why this answer

The AAA framework (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) provides a modular way to manage access control. Each component serves a distinct purpose in securing network devices. Understanding how these functions interact allows administrators to implement granular security policies that restrict user actions to only what is necessary for their job.

Exam trap

Students frequently confuse authorization with authentication, mixing up verifying who a user is with determining what specific commands they are allowed to execute.

259
Multi-Selectmedium

A network team is hardening a Cisco Catalyst switch that will be deployed at the edge of the corporate network. They want to reduce the risk of Layer 2 attacks such as MAC flooding and unauthorized device attachment. Which two actions should they take? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable Dynamic ARP Inspection on all access ports without DHCP snooping.
B.Configure the native VLAN on all trunk ports to match VLAN 1.
C.Enable port security on access ports to limit the number of MAC addresses.
D.Enable IP source guard on routed uplinks only.
E.Disable unused ports and place them in an unused VLAN.
AnswersC, E

Port security caps the number of source MAC addresses a port can learn, which directly mitigates MAC flooding attacks that attempt to overflow the CAM table. It also helps prevent unauthorized devices from attaching to an access port. This is a standard Layer 2 hardening step and fits the goal of reducing MAC flooding and rogue device risk on edge switch ports.

Why this answer

MAC flooding is countered by limiting learned MAC addresses per port, which port security accomplishes. Unauthorized physical attachment is reduced by disabling unused ports and parking them in an unused VLAN. Together these measures harden the access edge.

The other options either misplace a feature, depend on missing prerequisites, or actively weaken trunk security, so they do not serve the team's stated objectives.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating Dynamic ARP Inspection as a standalone control and forgetting that it requires the DHCP snooping binding table to validate ARP packets.

260
Multi-Selectmedium

A user reports they cannot access a web server at 192.168.50.10. Which TWO commands would provide the most useful initial diagnostic information regarding the path and reachability to this destination from a Windows workstation? (Choose two).

Select 2 answers
A.ping 192.168.50.10
B.tracert 192.168.50.10
C.ipconfig /renew
D.netstat -a
E.nslookup 192.168.50.10
AnswersA, B

The ping utility uses ICMP to verify that a specific destination IP address is reachable and to measure the round-trip time. It is the most common first step in troubleshooting connectivity because it quickly confirms if the target device is online and responding to basic network layer requests.

Why this answer

Ping and Traceroute are the primary tools used to diagnose reachability and path issues across an IP network. Ping tests basic end-to-end connectivity using ICMP Echo Requests, while Traceroute identifies each hop along the path, helping to pinpoint exactly where a packet is being dropped. Mastering these utilities allows technicians to isolate faults between local, ISP, or remote segments.

Exam trap

Candidates often suggest layer 2 tools like ARP or spanning-tree commands when asked to check the path across a network to a specific remote web server.

261
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is evaluating endpoint media types for a new VoIP deployment. The IP phones will be powered by the access switches and must negotiate power requirements automatically. Which TWO statements correctly describe how Power over Ethernet (PoE) negotiation works between a Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) switch and a Powered Device (PD) phone? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The PSE applies a low voltage to detect a valid PD signature resistance before supplying full power.
B.The PSE supplies power on the same pairs used for data in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX, which is why Gigabit Ethernet cannot support PoE.
C.The PD must be manually configured with a static power budget on the switch port before it will receive any power.
D.The PD sends a DHCP request to the PSE to request a specific power class before link negotiation.
E.The PSE and PD may use Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) with Media Endpoint Discovery (MED) extensions to negotiate power beyond the hardware classification.
AnswersA, E

IEEE 802.3af, 802.3at, and 802.3bt define a detection phase in which the PSE applies a low voltage and measures the signature resistance of the connected device. Only when a valid resistance (typically around 25 kΩ) is detected does the PSE proceed to classification and full power delivery. This prevents damage to non-PoE devices and is a fundamental part of the negotiation process described in the scenario.

Why this answer

PoE negotiation begins with a physical-layer detection phase where the PSE checks for a valid PD signature resistance, then proceeds to classification. Later standards add LLDP-MED for dynamic power negotiation, allowing the phone and switch to agree on precise power levels. DHCP and manual static budgeting are not part of the PoE power negotiation process, and Gigabit Ethernet supports PoE without limitation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing Layer 3 DHCP address assignment with Layer 1 PoE power negotiation, or believing that Gigabit Ethernet cannot carry power over the same cabling.

262
MCQmedium

Users in an office report that the wireless network is extremely slow during the middle of the day. A technician discovers a microwave oven and several 2.4GHz cordless phones in the breakroom near the Access Point. What is the cause of this performance issue?

A.The Access Point is experiencing a DHCP exhaustion attack.
B.Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) is degrading the signal.
C.The Access Point is configured with the wrong SSID.
D.The switch port connecting the Access Point is in half-duplex mode.
AnswerB

RFI occurs when non-network devices emit signals on the same frequency as the wireless network. This noise lowers the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR), forcing the wireless devices to use lower data rates and retransmit corrupted frames. This is a common environmental diagnostic issue in 2.4GHz Wi-Fi deployments near household appliances.

Why this answer

Wireless networks using the 2.4GHz band are highly susceptible to electromagnetic interference from non-802.11 devices. Microwaves and cordless phones operate on similar frequencies, creating noise that disrupts Wi-Fi signals. This results in high packet loss and retransmissions, which the users perceive as slow speeds or intermittent connectivity during peak usage times.

Exam trap

Candidates frequently attribute wireless slowness to bandwidth exhaustion by user traffic, overlooking non-Wi-Fi sources of Radio Frequency Interference like microwaves operating on the 2.4GHz band.

263
MCQmedium

A technician suspects a cable issue on a copper link. Which command should they use to check for electrical issues like shorts or opens?

A.test cable-diagnostics tdr interface <int>
B.show cable status
C.ping -t <ip>
D.show interfaces summary
AnswerA

This command initiates the TDR test on the specified interface. It is the standard method for a switch to perform a physical layer check on the cabling. It reports the results of the test, including any potential faults such as opens, shorts, or cable length issues for the copper medium.

Why this answer

The TDR (Time Domain Reflectometer) feature available on many modern Cisco switches allows the administrator to perform a diagnostic test on the physical copper cable. By sending a pulse of energy and measuring the reflection, the switch can accurately identify if there is an open or short circuit, or if the cable length is within operational limits, providing clear physical layer diagnostic data without additional hardware.

Exam trap

Candidates often select generic monitoring commands like 'show interfaces' or 'ping', forgetting that specialized physical layer tools like TDR are required to detect internal cable shorts or opens.

264
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following statements are true regarding IPv4 and IPv6 coexistence?

Select 2 answers
A.Dual-stack enables a device to run IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks simultaneously.
B.IPv6 addresses are directly compatible with IPv4 routing tables.
C.Tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 headers.
D.IPv4 is natively supported by all IPv6-only devices.
E.Broadcast traffic is still required for IPv6 address resolution.
AnswersA, C

Dual-stack is the most common transition mechanism, allowing interfaces to support both protocol versions at the same time. This ensures compatibility with legacy IPv4-only hosts while enabling native IPv6 traffic for modern devices, providing a seamless operational transition within the enterprise network architecture without requiring an immediate, complete overhaul.

Why this answer

As the industry transitions from IPv4 to IPv6, coexistence mechanisms are required. Dual-stack allows devices to run both protocols simultaneously, while tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets within IPv4 headers. These methods ensure that legacy systems can still communicate while modern IPv6-enabled infrastructure is deployed, which is a critical skill for network administrators managing hybrid, multi-protocol corporate environments during the long-term industry shift.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse tunneling with translation, incorrectly assuming that tunneling replaces IPv6 addresses with IPv4 addresses rather than simply encapsulating the IPv6 packet within an IPv4 payload.

265
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IPv6 configuration of the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface, which statement is true regarding the connectivity of this router?

A.The router can communicate with any host on the internet.
B.The router can only communicate with other hosts on the local link.
C.The interface is disabled because it lacks a global address.
D.The router will use the FF02::1 address to route external traffic.
AnswerB

Link-local addresses starting with FE80 are automatically generated or manually assigned to facilitate communication within a single local segment. Because no global unicast address is present, the router cannot forward packets from this interface to remote networks or receive traffic originating from outside the local broadcast domain.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows a GigabitEthernet0/0 interface configured with only a link-local IPv6 address (FE80::/10 range, typically starting with FE80::). A link-local address is automatically generated and is only valid on the local segment; it is never routed beyond the local link. Therefore the router can communicate only with directly connected IPv6 hosts on that link, not with the internet or remote networks.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates see an IPv6 address on the interface and assume full connectivity, forgetting that link-local (FE80::/10) addresses are non-routable and confined to the local segment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because internet reachability requires a globally routable IPv6 address (2000::/3) plus a default route; a link-local-only interface cannot reach the internet. Option C is wrong because the interface is not disabled; link-local addresses are fully functional for on-link communication and the interface remains up/up. Option D is wrong because FF02::1 is the all-nodes multicast address used for neighbor discovery, not a routing address for external traffic.

266
MCQmedium

Which security feature is used to mitigate DHCP starvation attacks by limiting the number of DHCP messages per port?

A.DHCP Snooping
B.Port Security
C.IP Source Guard
D.Dynamic ARP Inspection
AnswerA

DHCP Snooping validates DHCP messages and limits the rate at which hosts can request IP addresses on untrusted ports. By tracking legitimate bindings in a database and rate-limiting incoming discovery messages, it effectively thwarts starvation attacks that aim to exhaust the scope of available IP addresses.

Why this answer

DHCP starvation attacks deplete the available IP address pool by requesting numerous leases. DHCP Snooping protects the network by acting as a firewall between untrusted hosts and DHCP servers, limiting the rate of DHCP messages. This is a critical enterprise security control, as DHCP is often an overlooked vector that can lead to DoS or man-in-the-middle attacks if left entirely unprotected on access-layer switches.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse DHCP Snooping with general port security, forgetting that port security limits MAC addresses while DHCP Snooping specifically tracks IP-to-MAC bindings and message rates.

267
MCQmedium

A company is experiencing intermittent network drops in a manufacturing area where unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cables are run parallel to high-voltage power lines. What is the most effective solution to resolve this issue?

A.Upgrade the cabling to Category 6a UTP.
B.Install a wireless bridge between endpoints.
C.Replace UTP with Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).
D.Configure the switch ports for half-duplex.
AnswerC

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cabling includes a metallic foil or braid that surrounds the internal conductors to block external electromagnetic interference. By grounding the shield properly, the electrical noise from the power lines is diverted, protecting the data signals and preventing the intermittent drops experienced with UTP.

Why this answer

Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) occurs when electrical signals from power lines disrupt the data signals in copper cables. Replacing UTP with Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) or fiber optic cabling provides the necessary protection to maintain data integrity. Technicians must recognize environmental factors that degrade signal quality to ensure stable endpoint connectivity in industrial settings.

Exam trap

Test-takers often incorrectly suggest replacing UTP with higher-category UTP (like Cat6a), forgetting that unshielded cables remain vulnerable to electromagnetic interference.

268
MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot access any websites by name, but they can access websites by typing their IP addresses directly into the browser. The user's computer has a valid IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway, and can ping the default gateway successfully. Which is the most likely cause of the problem?

A.The default gateway is down.
B.The web browser is configured with a proxy server that is offline.
C.The user's computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
D.The DNS server address is misconfigured on the user's computer.
AnswerD

If the user can access websites by IP address but not by name, it indicates that IP connectivity is working but name resolution is failing. The most common cause is an incorrect or unreachable DNS server address configured on the computer. Checking the DNS settings and verifying connectivity to the DNS server would resolve the issue.

Why this answer

The ability to access websites by IP address but not by name is a classic symptom of DNS resolution failure. The user's computer can route traffic to the internet (since IP access works), but it cannot resolve domain names to IP addresses. This points to a misconfigured DNS server address, an unreachable DNS server, or a DNS service issue.

Checking the DNS settings and testing resolution with nslookup or ping by name would confirm the diagnosis.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any inability to browse websites is a connectivity issue, when the ability to use IP addresses proves connectivity is fine and the problem is name resolution.

269
MCQeasy

Which cabling infrastructure standard should an engineer deploy to support 10 Gigabit Ethernet transmissions across a 300-meter horizontal run inside a modern enterprise building?

A.Category 6 unshielded twisted-pair copper cable terminated with standard RJ-45 modular plugs.
B.OM3 laser-optimized multimode fiber optic cabling terminated with LC duplex connectors.
C.Category 5e structured copper cabling tested to 100 MHz bandwidth performance profiles.
D.Coaxial broadband cabling utilizing 50-ohm impedance connectors and barrel adapters.
AnswerB

OM3 laser-optimised multimode fibre supports 10GBASE-SR to 300 metres, exactly meeting the horizontal run constraint. Its 850 nm VCSEL-optimised core handles 10 Gigabit Ethernet where copper twinax caps at shorter distances, and LC duplex termination suits standard SFP+ transceiver ports.

Why this answer

Multimode fiber optic cabling, specifically laser-optimized OM3 or OM4 fiber, supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet up to 300 or 400 meters respectively. Copper cabling such as Category 6 is strictly limited to 100 meters for standard Ethernet, making fiber the mandatory physical medium for distances exceeding that threshold within enterprise horizontal runs.

Exam trap

Candidates frequently select standard copper Category 6 cabling for distances over 100 meters, forgetting the strict physical distance limitations imposed on copper Ethernet standards.

270
Multi-Selectmedium

A security team is reviewing how to protect a small office network from common Layer 2 attacks. The team wants to implement features that specifically prevent MAC address table overflow and ARP cache poisoning. Which two Cisco switch features should the team deploy? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Port security to limit MAC addresses per port
B.Storm control to limit broadcast traffic
C.Dynamic ARP Inspection to validate ARP packets
D.BPDU Guard to disable ports receiving BPDUs
E.Root Guard to prevent rogue root bridge election
AnswersA, C

Port security limits how many MAC addresses can be learned on a port, which directly counters MAC flooding attacks that attempt to overflow the CAM table and force the switch to flood frames. By capping the number of allowed addresses and taking action on violations, the switch preserves its normal forwarding behavior and prevents the attacker from turning it into a hub.

Why this answer

MAC address table overflow attacks are mitigated by port security, which caps the number of source MAC addresses a port can learn and takes a configured action on violation. ARP cache poisoning is mitigated by Dynamic ARP Inspection, which validates ARP packets against the DHCP snooping binding table and drops spoofed mappings. Together they address both attack types named in the scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting other spanning-tree protections such as BPDU Guard or Root Guard, which defend the topology rather than the MAC table or ARP cache.

271
MCQeasy

Which component of an IPv4 address does the subnet mask identify?

A.The MAC address of the destination device.
B.The network and host portions of the address.
C.The default gateway for the host.
D.The TCP port number for the application.
AnswerB

The primary role of the subnet mask is to identify which bits of an IPv4 address belong to the network prefix and which bits belong to the individual host. This binary comparison allows the device to route traffic to the correct local or remote network segment accurately.

Why this answer

The subnet mask is a 32-bit value that, when ANDed with an IPv4 address, separates the network portion (bits set to 1 in the mask) from the host portion (bits set to 0). It tells the device which part of the address identifies the network and which part identifies the specific host on that network.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Layer 2 (MAC), Layer 3 (IP/mask), and Layer 4 (ports) concepts — candidates pick the MAC address option because both are 'addresses,' but the mask is purely a Layer 3 network/host boundary tool.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MAC addresses are Layer 2 hardware addresses resolved via ARP, not derived from the subnet mask. Option C is wrong because the default gateway is a router IP configured separately; the mask only helps the host decide whether a destination is local or remote, not what the gateway is. Option D is wrong because TCP/UDP port numbers are Layer 4 identifiers and have no relationship to the subnet mask.

272
Multi-Selecthard

A network designer is choosing between SFP and SFP+ transceivers for a new switch deployment. Which TWO statements correctly describe the differences and compatibility between these media modules?

Select 2 answers
A.SFP modules typically support speeds up to 1 Gbps
B.SFP+ modules are designed to support 10 Gbps speeds
C.An SFP+ module will always work in a standard SFP slot
D.SFP modules use RJ-45 connectors exclusively
E.SFP+ modules are only compatible with single-mode fiber
AnswersA, B

The original SFP standard was designed primarily for Gigabit Ethernet and 1G Fiber Channel. While very reliable, it is limited to a maximum throughput of 1 Gbps. It is commonly used for connecting access layer switches to the distribution layer in smaller networks where 10G is not yet required.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) transceivers are specified for Gigabit Ethernet and lower rates, typically up to 1 Gbps, making them the standard choice for 1000BASE-X/SX/LX/T connections. Option B is correct because SFP+ is the enhanced variant standardized for 10 Gbps Ethernet (10GBASE-SR/LR/ER and DAC), which is its primary design purpose. Option C is wrong because SFP+ in an SFP slot is not guaranteed; the slot must explicitly support 10 Gbps and often requires the same form factor with matching electrical characteristics, so it will not 'always' work.

Option D is wrong because SFP modules support fiber connectors such as LC (and sometimes SC), plus copper variants like 1000BASE-T use RJ-45, so RJ-45 is not exclusive. Option E is wrong because SFP+ modules exist for both single-mode and multimode fiber (e.g., 10GBASE-SR for MMF, 10GBASE-LR for SMF), so single-mode-only is inaccurate.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that SFP+ modules are backward compatible with SFP slots, which is not always true due to speed and signal integrity differences.

273
MCQhard

A network engineer is investigating why a switch port Gi1/0/5 is not forwarding traffic, even though the connected device is powered on and the cable is known to be good. The engineer runs 'show interfaces Gi1/0/5 switchport' and sees that the administrative mode is dynamic auto, and the operational mode is access. The port status is 'notconnect'. Which is the most likely reason the port is not forwarding?

A.The switch port is configured with the wrong speed and duplex settings.
B.The connected device's network interface card is not transmitting a link signal.
C.The port is in an err-disabled state due to a violation.
D.The port is configured as a trunk and the connected device is sending untagged frames.
AnswerB

The 'notconnect' status on a switch port means that the physical layer link is not established. Even if the device is powered on and the cable is good, the NIC might be disabled, faulty, or configured to not auto-negotiate properly. This would prevent the switch from detecting a link, resulting in 'notconnect'. Checking the NIC status, drivers, or trying a different device would confirm.

Why this answer

The 'notconnect' status on a switch port indicates that the physical link is down. Since the cable is known good and the device is powered on, the most likely cause is that the connected device's NIC is not sending a link signal. This could be due to a disabled NIC, faulty NIC, or driver issue.

The administrative mode being dynamic auto and operational mode access are not causing the link failure; they only affect VLAN and trunking behavior once a link is established.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on VLAN or trunking configuration when the port status 'notconnect' clearly points to a physical layer link problem.

274
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a default gateway in an IP host configuration?

A.To resolve domain names to IP addresses.
B.To act as an exit point for off-subnet traffic.
C.To manage the assignment of dynamic IP addresses.
D.To filter incoming traffic from the internet.
AnswerB

The default gateway serves as the interface on the local network that forwards traffic to other networks. By directing non-local traffic to this gateway, the host ensures that packets can successfully reach their destination even when they reside on a different broadcast domain or remote network.

Why this answer

A default gateway is the router that a host sends packets to when the destination IP is not on the local subnet. It serves as the exit point for off-subnet traffic, allowing communication with external networks such as the internet or other subnets.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the roles of different network services: DNS for name resolution, DHCP for IP assignment, and firewall for filtering, while the default gateway is solely for routing off-subnet traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because domain name resolution is the function of DNS servers, not the default gateway. Option C is wrong because dynamic IP address assignment is handled by DHCP servers, not the gateway. Option D is wrong because filtering incoming traffic is typically performed by firewalls or security appliances, not the default gateway's primary role.

275
MCQmedium

A network technician is configuring a point-to-point serial link between two Cisco routers. To conserve address space, the engineer wants the smallest possible subnet that still provides two usable host addresses. Which subnet mask should be applied to the serial interfaces?

A.255.255.255.252
B.255.255.255.254
C.255.255.255.128
D.255.255.255.248
AnswerA

A /30 mask uses 30 network bits, leaving 2 host bits, which yields exactly 4 addresses: two usable hosts plus network and broadcast. This is the traditional smallest subnet for point-to-point links and conserves address space efficiently. Cisco serial interfaces commonly use this mask for WAN connections between routers.

Why this answer

A point-to-point serial link requires only two host addresses, one for each router interface. The /30 mask 255.255.255.252 provides exactly four addresses, of which two are usable hosts, making it the smallest conventional subnet for this purpose. Larger masks waste addresses, and while /31 is an option in some modern implementations, the /30 remains the standard expected configuration for conserving address space on WAN links.

Exam trap

The trap here is overlooking that two usable hosts require exactly two host bits, and choosing a mask that provides more addresses than necessary instead of the minimal /30.

276
MCQmedium

A help desk technician is troubleshooting a user who can access internal network shares using an IP address but cannot reach the same shares using the server's hostname. Which network service should the technician investigate first?

A.Default Gateway
B.DNS
C.DHCP
D.ARP
AnswerB

Domain Name System is responsible for mapping hostnames to IP addresses. The ability to connect via IP address proves that the physical and network layers are operational, but the failure to resolve the hostname indicates that the client cannot obtain the destination IP address from the DNS server, suggesting a configuration error.

Why this answer

DNS resolution translates human-readable hostnames into IP addresses required for routing across the network. When a user can reach internal services via IP but fails via hostname, the underlying network transport is functional, but the application-layer mapping service is failing. Diagnosing this involves checking the configured DNS server address on the client and verifying connectivity.

277
MCQeasy

Which protocol is recommended for secure remote management of Cisco network devices over insecure networks?

A.Telnet
B.HTTP
C.SSH
D.SNMPv1
AnswerC

SSH is the industry-standard protocol for secure remote access. It uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer and encrypt the data being transferred. This prevents eavesdropping and ensures that administrative commands and credentials remain private while traversing potentially untrusted or public network segments.

Why this answer

Secure Shell (SSH) provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for remote command-line access. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext and exposes administrative credentials to sniffing attacks, SSH ensures that both the connection and the session data are encrypted. Using SSH is a mandatory security best practice for any modern network infrastructure to protect against unauthorized access and credential theft while managing network devices from remote locations.

Exam trap

Candidates often select 'HTTPS' or 'IPsec'. While these are secure, the question specifically asks for remote management of the device, which requires SSH, not general web or tunnel protocols.

278
Multi-Selectmedium

Users on a floor of an office building report that file transfers to a server are slow and sometimes stall. The technician suspects a duplex mismatch on the switch port connecting the server. Which TWO symptoms or outputs would confirm a duplex mismatch on that link? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The switch logs show the port entering the err-disabled state repeatedly.
B.The switch port shows the line protocol as down while the physical link remains up.
C.The server's NIC reports a negotiated speed of 1000 Mb/s and full duplex.
D.The switch interface shows a high number of FCS and CRC errors on received frames.
E.The switch interface counters show late collisions increasing on the port.
AnswersD, E

When duplex modes disagree, frames collide with traffic already on the wire, corrupting them in transit. The receiving device calculates the frame check sequence and finds a mismatch, incrementing input errors such as CRC and FCS failures. A steadily rising CRC or FCS error count on the switch port alongside slow throughput strongly supports a duplex mismatch diagnosis.

Why this answer

A duplex mismatch produces collisions on the half-duplex side while the full-duplex side keeps transmitting, corrupting frames in flight. The two clearest confirmations are late collisions counted on the half-duplex interface and CRC or FCS errors counted on received frames. Both counters rise steadily under load, and throughput drops because corrupted frames must be retransmitted by upper-layer protocols.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating any interface error counter as proof of a duplex mismatch, when only late collisions and CRC or FCS errors specifically fit that failure mode.

279
MCQmedium

A network technician connects a new Cisco Catalyst switch to an existing production switch using a copper straight-through cable. The link lights on both ends remain off, and the technician confirms the cable is functional. The technician then replaces the cable with a crossover cable, and the link comes up. What is the most likely reason the straight-through cable failed to establish a link?

A.The straight-through cable is wired to T568A on one end and T568B on the other.
B.The switch port on the existing production switch is configured as a trunk port.
C.The existing production switch port is shut down administratively.
D.The new switch does not support Auto-MDIX, and both devices use the same pinout for transmit and receive pairs.
AnswerD

When connecting two switches, the transmit pair on one must connect to the receive pair on the other. Without Auto-MDIX, a straight-through cable connects transmit-to-transmit and receive-to-receive, preventing link. A crossover cable swaps the pairs, enabling communication. Auto-MDIX would automatically detect and correct the pinout, but if the new switch lacks it, a crossover cable is required.

Why this answer

Two switches connected with a straight-through cable without Auto-MDIX will not establish a link because transmit and receive pairs are not crossed. A crossover cable swaps the pairs, allowing the link to come up. The scenario confirms the cable itself is functional, so the issue is the pinout mismatch between similar devices.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any Ethernet cable will work between switches, ignoring the need for crossover pinouts when Auto-MDIX is unavailable.

280
MCQmedium

A small branch office has a Cisco Layer 2 access switch with three access ports assigned to VLAN 10 for the sales team and two access ports assigned to VLAN 20 for the finance team. The finance team reports that they cannot reach the sales team's shared file server, even though both teams are connected to the same physical switch. No router or Layer 3 switch is deployed at this branch. What is the most likely explanation for the connectivity failure?

A.The switch needs the ip routing global configuration command enabled so that it can forward frames between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20.
B.VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 are separate broadcast domains, and inter-VLAN traffic requires a Layer 3 device that is not present in this topology.
C.The access ports must be configured as trunk ports so that frames from both VLANs can be carried between them.
D.Spanning Tree Protocol has blocked the redundant path between the two VLANs, preventing traffic from flowing between them.
AnswerB

Each VLAN is its own broadcast domain, and hosts in different VLANs cannot communicate at Layer 2 because there is no shared broadcast segment. Forwarding between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device such as a router or multilayer switch performing inter-VLAN routing. Because the branch has only a Layer 2 access switch, no device exists to route traffic between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, so the finance hosts cannot reach the sales server.

Why this answer

Because VLANs are independent broadcast domains, hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 cannot exchange traffic at Layer 2 even when they are attached to the same physical switch. Communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device to route packets between the subnets. With only a Layer 2 access switch in the branch, no such device exists, so the finance team cannot reach the sales server.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that two VLANs on the same physical switch can communicate directly because the hardware is shared.

281
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO characteristics distinguish the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) from the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Select 2 answers
A.UDP provides connectionless communication without a handshake.
B.UDP uses sequence numbers to reassemble data in the correct order.
C.UDP does not perform error recovery or retransmit lost packets.
D.UDP operates at the Network Layer of the OSI model.
E.UDP includes a three-way handshake to ensure delivery.
AnswersA, C

UDP does not establish a formal session before sending data, which reduces latency and overhead. This connectionless nature means that the sender simply transmits packets to the destination without verifying if the receiver is ready. This is ideal for time-sensitive applications like VOIP or online gaming where speed is a primary concern.

Why this answer

The choice between TCP and UDP is a fundamental architectural decision based on the needs of the application. TCP provides reliability and flow control at the cost of overhead, while UDP prioritizes speed and efficiency. Understanding these differences allows network professionals to troubleshoot performance issues and optimize traffic for different types of data, such as streaming or file transfers.

Exam trap

Candidates sometimes include 'flow control' or 'sequencing' as UDP characteristics. They confuse the lack of overhead in UDP with the complex, feature-heavy nature of TCP, leading to incorrect feature attribution.

282
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to ensure that only legitimate DHCP servers provide IP addresses to clients on the network. Which feature should be enabled?

A.DHCP Snooping
B.Port Security
C.Dynamic ARP Inspection
D.IP Source Guard
AnswerA

DHCP Snooping allows administrators to configure specific ports as 'trusted' for DHCP server traffic. All other ports are considered untrusted by default, and any DHCP server messages (such as DHCPOFFER or DHCPACK) originating from these untrusted ports are dropped, preventing rogue servers from interfering with network clients.

Why this answer

Rogue DHCP servers can be used to launch man-in-the-middle attacks by providing clients with malicious gateway addresses. DHCP Snooping creates a distinction between trusted and untrusted ports. By designating only ports connected to authorized servers as trusted, the network automatically blocks DHCP response traffic from unauthorized sources.

This is essential for maintaining control over the network's address allocation process and preventing redirection of user traffic.

Exam trap

Test-takers frequently select port security or dynamic ARP inspection instead of DHCP snooping because they misidentify which network service handles IP address allocation.

283
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is investigating why a device connected to FastEthernet0/1 cannot communicate. Based on the output, what is the most likely issue?

A.The cable is disconnected or the remote device is powered off.
B.There is a Layer 2 framing or protocol mismatch.
C.The interface has been manually disabled by an administrator.
D.The IP address has not been assigned to the interface.
AnswerB

When an interface is 'up' but the protocol is 'down', it indicates that the physical connection is good, but the switch cannot communicate at the Data Link layer. This can be caused by mismatched VLANs on a trunk, speed/duplex negotiation failures, or incompatible encapsulation settings between the two connected devices.

Why this answer

The 'up/down' status on a Cisco interface specifically points to a Layer 2 problem. This means the physical layer (Layer 1) is sensing a signal, but the data link layer (Layer 2) cannot establish a connection. Common causes include encapsulation mismatches, lack of keepalives, or specific protocol failures like spanning-tree blocking the port.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse 'up/down' with a physical cable break. They assume Layer 1 is the issue, failing to recognize that 'up/down' confirms physical signal exists but the data link layer handshake failed.

284
MCQmedium

A network administrator must ensure that only specific management stations can reach the management VLAN on a Cisco switch, while ordinary user traffic on other VLANs flows unrestricted. The administrator wants a mechanism that filters traffic based on source IP addresses and can log denied attempts. Which feature should be configured?

A.Port security with sticky MAC address learning
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection on all user-facing ports
C.An IP access control list applied to the management VLAN interface
D.BPDU Guard enabled on access ports
AnswerC

An IP access control list filters packets by source and destination address and can be applied to the management VLAN's switched virtual interface. Permitting only the management station subnets and denying all other sources enforces the requirement, and Cisco access lists can log matches, satisfying the auditing need without affecting other VLANs.

Why this answer

Filtering by source IP address while leaving other VLANs untouched points to an IP access control list bound to the management switched virtual interface. The list permits only the designated management subnets and denies everything else, and log entries record rejected attempts. Layer 2 protections such as port security, Dynamic ARP Inspection, and BPDU Guard address different threats entirely.

Exam trap

The trap here is reaching for a Layer 2 hardening feature when the requirement is explicitly address-based filtering with logging.

285
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a wireless client that associates successfully with an access point but cannot obtain an IP address from the DHCP server on the wired network. The access point is configured with a management IP on the correct VLAN, and other wired clients on that VLAN obtain leases normally. Which is the MOST likely cause?

A.The access point's radio is operating on a channel with high interference from neighboring APs.
B.The DHCP server's scope for the wired VLAN has run out of available leases.
C.The wireless client is associated to an SSID mapped to a VLAN that is not trunked to the access point.
D.The wireless client has an incorrect DNS server address configured manually.
AnswerC

An access point can associate a client on an SSID even when the VLAN mapped to that SSID is not carried on the uplink trunk. Association happens at Layer 2 over the radio, but DHCP requires the client's broadcast to traverse the trunk into the correct VLAN. If that VLAN is missing from the trunk, DHCP requests never reach the server, and the client falls back to an APIPA address.

Why this answer

When a wireless client associates but never receives a DHCP lease while wired clients on the same VLAN work, the fault lies between the access point and the wired network. The most common cause is that the VLAN mapped to the SSID is not allowed on the trunk uplink, so the client's broadcast DHCP request cannot reach the server. Verifying the trunk configuration resolves the issue.

Exam trap

The trap here is blaming the DHCP server or the wireless radio, when successful association with failed DHCP on one VLAN points to the trunk carrying that VLAN.

286
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to connect a workstation to a Cisco switch. Which cabling standard and medium should be utilized to ensure full-duplex communication while preventing collision domains?

A.Coaxial cable with half-duplex settings
B.Fiber optic cable with half-duplex settings
C.Category 6 twisted-pair cable with full-duplex settings
D.Category 3 twisted-pair cable with full-duplex settings
AnswerC

Category 6 twisted-pair cabling supports high-speed Ethernet standards and full-duplex operation, which allows simultaneous transmit and receive paths. By isolating these paths, collisions are eliminated, and the port operates as a point-to-point link, maximizing bandwidth utilization and throughput for the workstation.

Why this answer

Category 6 twisted-pair cable with full-duplex settings is the correct combination because modern Ethernet switches support full-duplex on twisted-pair, which eliminates collisions by providing separate transmit and receive paths on different wire pairs. Cat 6 supports gigabit speeds at 100 meters and is the appropriate medium for a workstation-to-switch connection. Full-duplex operation removes the collision domain entirely on that link.

Exam trap

The trap is pairing the wrong medium with the wrong duplex mode — candidates may pick fiber (which sounds faster) but the option incorrectly pairs it with half-duplex, or pick Cat 3 (which sounds adequate) without recognizing its 10 Mbps limit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because coaxial cable with half-duplex is legacy 10BASE2/10BASE5 technology — half-duplex creates a single collision domain and cannot provide full-duplex communication. Option B is wrong because fiber optic cable does support full-duplex, but the question specifies connecting a workstation to a Cisco switch with a standard copper interface, and half-duplex fiber is not a standard configuration — the option pairs fiber with half-duplex, which is incorrect. Option D is wrong because Category 3 cable is rated only for 10 Mbps and cannot support modern full-duplex gigabit communication reliably.

287
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator observes high error counts on a switch port. Based on the output, what is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.A VLAN mismatch between the switch and the connected device.
B.A duplex mismatch on the physical connection.
C.The switch port has been disabled by Port Security.
D.An incorrect IP address assigned to the interface.
AnswerB

A duplex mismatch occurs when one side of a link is set to half-duplex and the other to full-duplex. This causes collisions and frame fragmentation, which result in high CRC and alignment errors. The switch reports these as malformed frames that fail the cyclic redundancy check.

Why this answer

High error counts (CRC errors, late collisions, runts, giants) on a switch port are the classic signature of a duplex mismatch. When one side is set to full-duplex and the other to half-duplex, the full-duplex side transmits whenever it wants while the half-duplex side detects collisions and reports late collisions and FCS errors. The exhibit typically shows 'Late collisions' and 'CRC' counters incrementing.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates see 'high errors' and think VLAN or IP misconfiguration, but CRC and late collision counters specifically point to a Layer 1 duplex mismatch, not a Layer 2/3 problem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a VLAN mismatch causes connectivity failure or broadcast leakage between VLANs, not physical-layer error counters like CRC and late collisions. Option C is wrong because Port Security violations put the port into err-disabled state with a specific log message ('Port Security violation'), not high error counters. Option D is wrong because an incorrect IP address is a Layer 3 issue that affects reachability, not Layer 1/2 error counters on the switch port.

288
MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring a Cisco switch and wants to ensure that only the MAC addresses of known devices are allowed to send traffic on a specific access port. The administrator wants to manually specify the allowed MAC addresses and have the port shut down if a violation occurs. Which feature should be configured?

A.802.1X authentication
B.Port security with static MAC addresses and violation mode shutdown
C.DHCP snooping
D.Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
AnswerB

Port security allows the administrator to restrict which MAC addresses can send traffic on a port. By configuring static MAC addresses and setting the violation mode to shutdown, the port will be disabled if a frame with a different source MAC address is received. This meets the requirement of allowing only known devices and shutting down on violation.

Why this answer

Port security is the correct feature to restrict a switch port to specific MAC addresses and take action on violation. Configuring static MAC addresses and setting the violation mode to shutdown ensures that only known devices can communicate, and any violation disables the port. Other features like DAI, 802.1X, and DHCP snooping serve different security purposes.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing port security with other Layer 2 security features like DAI or DHCP snooping, which do not restrict MAC addresses on a port.

289
MCQmedium

Which protocol is used to provide dynamic, automatic configuration of VLANs across a domain of switches?

A.STP
B.VTP
C.CDP
D.OSPF
AnswerB

VTP allows switches to share and synchronize VLAN information within a VTP domain. This reduces the administrative burden by ensuring that all switches are aware of the same VLAN numbering and naming schemes, which is crucial for consistent network operations across a multi-switch campus environment.

Why this answer

VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) enables a centralized management of VLAN configurations across a switched network. By creating, deleting, or modifying VLANs on a server switch, those changes are propagated automatically to all client switches in the domain. Understanding VTP is essential for minimizing configuration errors and maintaining consistent VLAN databases in large-scale environments, though modern networks often prefer manual management for improved security control.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse VTP with other protocols like STP or trunking standards, incorrectly identifying it as a mechanism for traffic forwarding rather than a VLAN database management tool.

290
Multi-Selecthard

A network designer is planning to use the 10.50.0.0/16 address space. Which TWO of the following represent valid network IDs for subnets created by further dividing this space into /24 segments?

Select 2 answers
A.10.50.1.0
B.10.50.255.0
C.10.51.0.0
D.10.50.0.255
E.10.50.1.1
AnswersA, B

In a /24 subnetting scheme derived from a /16, each increment of 1 in the third octet represents a new network. 10.50.1.0 is the network ID for the second available /24 subnet within the 10.50.0.0/16 block, providing 254 usable host addresses for that specific segment.

Why this answer

Options A (10.50.1.0) and B (10.50.255.0) are correct because when 10.50.0.0/16 is divided into /24 subnets, the third octet becomes the subnet identifier and the fourth octet must be 0, giving valid network IDs such as 10.50.0.0, 10.50.1.0, and 10.50.255.0, all of which fall within the 10.50.0.0–10.50.255.0 range. Option C (10.51.0.0) is outside the 10.50.0.0/16 block, since 10.51.x.x belongs to a different /16. Option D (10.50.0.255) is a host address within 10.50.0.0/24, not a network ID, because the host portion is non-zero.

Option E (10.50.1.1) is also a host address in the 10.50.1.0/24 subnet, not a valid network ID.

Exam trap

The trap is picking addresses that look like network IDs but are actually host or broadcast addresses (ending in .255 or .1), or picking a subnet outside the parent block — candidates must verify both the parent range and the .0 network-ID rule.

291
MCQmedium

Which field in an IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from circulating indefinitely in the event of a routing loop?

A.Protocol Field
B.Time to Live (TTL)
C.Header Checksum
D.Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
AnswerB

The Time to Live (TTL) field is an 8-bit value that acts as a hop counter. Every router that forwards the packet decreases the TTL by one. When the TTL reaches zero, the router discards the packet and usually sends an ICMP 'Time Exceeded' message back to the source, effectively breaking any potential infinite loops.

Why this answer

The Time to Live (TTL) field in the IPv4 header is an 8-bit value that is decremented by one at each router hop. When it reaches zero, the router discards the packet and sends an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source, preventing packets from looping forever in the event of a routing loop.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing TTL with other IPv4 header fields that sound related to control or integrity — candidates often pick Header Checksum or Protocol because they assume 'preventing problems' means error detection rather than loop prevention.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Protocol field identifies the encapsulated upper-layer protocol (e.g., 6 for TCP, 17 for UDP, 1 for ICMP) — it has nothing to do with loop prevention. Option C is wrong because the Header Checksum verifies the integrity of the IPv4 header only, detecting corruption, not preventing loops. Option D is wrong because the Differentiated Services (DiffServ) field is used for QoS marking and traffic classification (e.g., DSCP values), not for loop prevention.

292
MCQmedium

A network administrator is evaluating a new campus LAN design. The design requires a Layer 2 protocol that prevents switching loops by placing redundant switch ports into a blocking state while still allowing automatic failover if the active path fails. Which protocol should the administrator select?

A.IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet
B.IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol
C.IEEE 802.11ac
D.IEEE 802.1Q
AnswerB

IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol is designed specifically to prevent Layer 2 loops by electing a root bridge, selecting root and designated ports, and placing redundant ports in a blocking state. If the active path fails, STP reconverges and unblocks the alternative port, satisfying the automatic failover requirement.

Why this answer

Spanning Tree Protocol is the standard Layer 2 mechanism that builds a loop-free logical topology by blocking redundant ports and unblocking them after a failure. VLAN tagging, PoE, and wireless standards address different functions and cannot prevent switching loops, so STP is the appropriate selection for the stated design requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming any Layer 2 standard can manage redundant paths, when only Spanning Tree Protocol performs loop prevention and automatic failover.

293
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the 'show running-config' command on a Cisco switch?

A.To save the current configuration to NVRAM.
B.To view the active configuration stored in RAM.
C.To clear all existing configurations on the device.
D.To view the hardware version and serial number.
AnswerB

This command provides an immediate view of the settings currently being used by the device's operating system. It reflects all changes made in the current session, making it the primary command used for confirming configurations before committing them to non-volatile memory for long-term storage.

Why this answer

The 'show running-config' command displays the current active configuration stored in RAM. This command is vital for verification, as it allows administrators to see exactly how the device is configured in real-time. Knowing how to interpret this output is essential for troubleshooting, as it reveals the current status of interfaces, security settings, and routing protocols before they are saved to the permanent startup configuration.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse the running-config with the startup-config, believing the 'show running-config' command displays the saved persistent configuration rather than the volatile configuration currently in RAM.

294
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in an IPv4 network?

A.It maps a known MAC address to a dynamically assigned IP address.
B.It maps a known IPv4 address to a corresponding MAC address.
C.It translates human-readable domain names into numerical IP addresses.
D.It provides a secure encrypted tunnel for data transmission between hosts.
AnswerB

When a device needs to send a packet to another host on the same local network, it knows the destination IP but needs the destination MAC to build the Ethernet frame. ARP broadcasts a request asking who owns that IP, and the target host replies with its MAC address, allowing communication to proceed.

Why this answer

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used when a host knows the IPv4 address of a destination on the same local network but needs the corresponding MAC address to build the Layer 2 frame. The host broadcasts an ARP request asking 'Who has IP X? Tell MAC Y,' and the owner of that IP replies with its MAC address. This mapping is then cached in the ARP table for future use.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the direction of ARP mapping: candidates often think ARP resolves a MAC address to an IP address (which is actually the role of Reverse ARP or DHCP), but ARP specifically resolves a known IPv4 address to a MAC address.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it reverses the actual direction: ARP maps a known IPv4 address to a MAC address, not a MAC address to an IP address (that would be RARP or DHCP in some contexts). Option C is wrong because domain name resolution is performed by DNS (Domain Name System), not ARP. Option D is wrong because ARP does not provide encryption or tunneling; secure tunnels are created by protocols like IPsec, TLS, or SSH.

295
MCQeasy

Which device is primarily responsible for managing traffic between different IP subnets in a corporate network?

A.Layer 2 Switch
B.Hub
C.Router
D.Repeater
AnswerC

A router acts as a gateway between subnets, analyzing the destination IP address of incoming packets against its routing table. It strips Layer 2 headers and rebuilds them to forward traffic toward the destination network, providing the essential connectivity required for multi-segment infrastructure.

Why this answer

A router operates at Layer 3 (Network layer) and is responsible for forwarding packets between different IP subnets by examining IP addresses and making routing decisions. It maintains a routing table and uses protocols like OSPF or BGP to determine the best path. This makes it the primary device for inter-subnet traffic management in a corporate network.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Layer 2 switches with Layer 3 routing capabilities; candidates might think a switch can route between subnets, but only multilayer switches or routers do that.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Layer 2 switch forwards frames based on MAC addresses within the same subnet and does not perform routing between IP subnets unless it's a multilayer switch, which is not specified. Option B is wrong because a hub is a Layer 1 device that simply repeats signals to all ports, causing collisions and not managing traffic between subnets. Option D is wrong because a repeater regenerates signals to extend distance but does not make forwarding decisions or separate subnets.

296
MCQmedium

When a router receives a packet, what action does it take if the destination network is not in its routing table and no default route is configured?

A.It forwards the packet to all connected ports.
B.It drops the packet and sends an ICMP error message.
C.It stores the packet until a route is learned.
D.It sends a request to the DNS server for the path.
AnswerB

In the absence of a route, the router cannot determine the next hop. To prevent the packet from circling or consuming resources, it drops the packet and notifies the source host via an ICMP unreachable message, which is standard behavior for IP routers.

Why this answer

Routers operate based on explicit routing entries. If a destination network is missing and no default gateway (quad-zero route) exists, the router has no path information to forward the packet. It then drops the packet and sends an ICMP 'Destination Unreachable' message back to the sender.

This is a vital diagnostic mechanism that informs hosts of connectivity failures.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly believe the router will broadcast the packet to find the destination or that it simply silently discards the traffic without notifying the source of the failure.

297
MCQmedium

A network administrator is documenting a subnet used for a point-to-point WAN link between two Cisco routers. The link is configured with the address 10.10.10.1/30. What is the network address and the usable host range for this subnet?

A.Network 10.10.10.0, usable hosts 10.10.10.1 through 10.10.10.4
B.Network 10.10.10.4, usable hosts 10.10.10.5 through 10.10.10.6
C.Network 10.10.10.1, usable hosts 10.10.10.2 through 10.10.10.3
D.Network 10.10.10.0, usable hosts 10.10.10.1 through 10.10.10.2
AnswerD

A /30 mask leaves only two host bits, so each subnet has four addresses: network, two usable hosts, and broadcast. For 10.10.10.1/30, the network is 10.10.10.0, usable hosts are .1 and .2, and the broadcast is .3. This is the standard addressing for point-to-point links.

Why this answer

A /30 prefix provides two host bits, yielding exactly four addresses per subnet: one network, two usable hosts, and one broadcast. For the address 10.10.10.1/30, the subnet boundaries are multiples of four, so the network is 10.10.10.0, usable hosts are .1 and .2, and the broadcast is .3. This design is common on point-to-point links because it conserves address space.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating the configured interface address as the network address and then counting usable hosts from the next number, rather than calculating the subnet boundary from the mask.

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