Courseiva

CCNA Design for New Solutions Questions

75 of 487 questions · Page 1/7 · Design for New Solutions · Answers revealed

1
MCQmedium

A company is designing a real-time analytics pipeline to process streaming data from IoT devices. The solution must be serverless and handle data transformation before storage. Which combination of services is most cost-effective?

A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, AWS Lambda, and Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to Amazon S3
B.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, Amazon EC2 instances for transformation, and Amazon S3
C.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS), AWS Lambda, and Amazon S3
D.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for real-time SQL and Amazon S3
AnswerA

Serverless, cost-effective for streaming transformation.

Why this answer

It combines Kinesis Data Streams for real-time ingestion, AWS Lambda for serverless data transformation, and Kinesis Data Firehose to buffer and deliver transformed data to Amazon S3. This architecture is serverless, scales automatically, and is cost-effective as you pay only for data throughput and compute time without provisioning any servers.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon SQS with Kinesis Data Streams for streaming use cases, but SQS is a pull-based queue with no ordering guarantees across messages and no replay capability, making it unsuitable for real-time analytics pipelines.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because using Amazon EC2 instances for transformation introduces server management overhead and fixed costs, violating the serverless requirement and increasing cost compared to Lambda. Option C is wrong because Amazon SQS is a message queue designed for decoupling applications, not for real-time streaming analytics; it lacks the ordered, replayable, and high-throughput characteristics needed for IoT streaming data. Option D is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for real-time SQL performs in-stream analytics but does not handle data transformation before storage; it outputs to a destination like Firehose, and alone it cannot transform and store data in S3 without additional services.

2
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with Fargate. Each service must be isolated within its own VPC and communicate via AWS PrivateLink. The company expects variable traffic and wants to minimize costs. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.Use separate VPCs and connect them via VPC peering with NAT gateways.
B.Deploy all services in a single VPC with security groups to isolate traffic.
C.Use separate VPCs per service and create VPC endpoint services for each.
D.Use a single VPC with Transit Gateway to route between services.
AnswerC

VPC endpoints provide isolated, private connectivity without extra cost.

Why this answer

AWS PrivateLink allows services in separate VPCs to communicate privately without exposing traffic to the public internet. By creating a VPC endpoint service in each service's VPC and configuring Network Load Balancers, each microservice remains isolated in its own VPC, meeting the isolation requirement while minimizing costs by avoiding NAT gateways or Transit Gateway attachments.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume VPC peering or Transit Gateway is required for cross-VPC communication, but PrivateLink is the only option that enforces strict VPC isolation while minimizing costs for variable traffic patterns.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VPC peering with NAT gateways does not provide the private, scalable connectivity that PrivateLink offers; NAT gateways incur per-hour and per-GB costs and are not designed for service-to-service communication across separate VPCs. Option B is wrong because deploying all services in a single VPC violates the explicit requirement for each service to be isolated within its own VPC, and security groups alone cannot enforce network-level isolation at the VPC boundary. Option D is wrong because using a single VPC with Transit Gateway still places all services in the same VPC, failing the isolation requirement, and Transit Gateway incurs per-attachment and data processing costs that are unnecessary when PrivateLink can provide direct, cost-effective connectivity.

3
Multi-Selectmedium

A company wants to implement a cost-effective disaster recovery strategy for a production Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL database. The solution must provide a recovery point objective (RPO) of less than 5 minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of less than 15 minutes. Which strategies meet these requirements? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Enable automated backups with point-in-time recovery.
B.Deploy the database in a Multi-AZ configuration.
C.Take manual snapshots and copy them to another Region.
D.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) for continuous replication to a target in another Region.
E.Create a cross-Region read replica in a different Region.
AnswersB, C, E

Multi-AZ provides automatic failover to a standby in another AZ, meeting RTO <1 minute, but does not protect against region failure.

Why this answer

Multi-AZ deployments provide synchronous replication to a standby in a different Availability Zone, achieving an RPO near zero and RTO typically under 2 minutes, meeting the requirements. Option C is correct because manual snapshots can be copied to another Region, and while snapshots themselves are not continuous, they can be taken frequently (e.g., every few minutes) to meet a 5-minute RPO, and the RTO can be under 15 minutes when restoring from a snapshot in the same Region or by promoting a read replica. Option E is correct because a cross-Region read replica provides asynchronous replication with an RPO typically under 1 second and can be promoted to a standalone database within minutes, meeting both RPO and RTO.

Option A is incorrect because automated backups are point-in-time, but the RPO is typically up to 5 minutes (backup window) and RTO is longer due to restore time, often exceeding 15 minutes. Option D is incorrect because DMS continuous replication is a viable DR strategy, but it is not as cost-effective as the other options and introduces additional complexity; also, the requirement specifically asks for strategies involving Amazon RDS features, and DMS is a separate service.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may dismiss manual snapshots (option C) as incapable of meeting sub-5-minute RPO, but if snapshots are taken every 5 minutes, they can achieve that RPO. Additionally, cross-Region read replicas (option E) are often mistaken for asynchronous replication with higher RPO, but when used for DR, they can provide RPO of seconds and RTO of minutes. Multi-AZ (option B) is sometimes confused with cross-Region replication; Multi-AZ is for high availability within a Region and does not protect against Region failure, but it does meet the RPO/RTO requirements.

4
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new microservices-based application on AWS. They need to decouple services and ensure asynchronous communication. Which AWS service should they use?

A.Amazon Kinesis
B.Amazon SQS
C.AWS Lambda
D.Amazon SNS
AnswerB

SQS provides a message queue that decouples services.

Why this answer

Amazon SQS (Simple Queue Service) is the correct choice because it provides a fully managed message queue that enables asynchronous communication between microservices. By decoupling the components, SQS allows one service to send messages to a queue, and another service to poll and process those messages independently, ensuring fault tolerance and scalability without requiring both services to be available simultaneously.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon SNS (pub/sub) with SQS (queue), thinking both provide decoupling, but SNS requires subscribers to be active or integrated with a queue, whereas SQS inherently buffers messages for asynchronous consumption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon Kinesis is designed for real-time streaming data ingestion and processing (e.g., log streams, clickstreams), not for decoupling point-to-point asynchronous messaging between microservices; it uses shards and records, not queues with individual message visibility. Option C is wrong because AWS Lambda is a compute service that runs code in response to events, not a messaging or decoupling service; it can be a consumer or producer but does not itself provide a queue for asynchronous communication. Option D is wrong because Amazon SNS is a pub/sub messaging service that pushes messages to multiple subscribers (fan-out), but it does not provide a queue for decoupling—subscribers must be available or use a queue integration; SNS alone does not offer the buffering and polling model needed for true asynchronous decoupling.

5
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new CI/CD pipeline for a web application that will be deployed on Amazon ECS. Which AWS service should the company use to build and test the application code?

A.AWS CodePipeline
B.AWS CodeDeploy
C.AWS CodeCommit
D.AWS CodeBuild
AnswerD

CodeBuild is a managed build service for compiling and testing code.

Why this answer

AWS CodeBuild is a fully managed continuous integration service that compiles source code, runs tests, and produces software packages that are ready to deploy. For a CI/CD pipeline that requires building and testing application code before deployment to Amazon ECS, CodeBuild is the correct service to perform these build and test actions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS CodePipeline (the orchestration layer) with the actual build service, mistakenly thinking that CodePipeline itself performs the build and test steps, when in fact it only coordinates other services like CodeBuild.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS CodePipeline is a continuous delivery service that orchestrates the pipeline stages (source, build, test, deploy) but does not itself build or test code; it relies on other services like CodeBuild for those actions. Option B is wrong because AWS CodeDeploy is a deployment service that automates code deployments to compute services (including ECS) but does not perform build or test operations. Option C is wrong because AWS CodeCommit is a source control service that hosts Git repositories and does not have any capability to build or test application code.

6
MCQhard

A company is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda. The function needs to access a private Amazon RDS MySQL database. The Lambda function and the RDS instance are in the same VPC. What is the correct way to configure the Lambda function to connect to the database?

A.Configure the Lambda function to run in the same VPC, subnets, and security group as the RDS instance.
B.Use a NAT Gateway to allow Lambda to access RDS through the internet.
C.Assign an IAM role that allows Lambda to access RDS and configure the security group to allow traffic from the Lambda service.
D.Attach an Elastic Network Interface (ENI) to the Lambda function in the same subnet as the RDS instance.
AnswerA

This allows Lambda to connect to RDS over the network. The security group must allow inbound from Lambda's security group.

Why this answer

Lambda functions in a VPC must be configured with the same VPC, subnets, and security group as the RDS instance to establish direct network connectivity. By placing the Lambda function in the same security group, you can allow inbound traffic from the security group itself (self-referencing rule) or explicitly open the database port (e.g., 3306 for MySQL) to the Lambda's security group. This ensures traffic stays within the VPC and does not traverse the internet, meeting security and latency requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume IAM roles or NAT Gateways provide network access, but AWS Lambda requires explicit VPC configuration with subnets and security groups to route traffic to private resources like RDS within the same VPC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a NAT Gateway is used to allow outbound internet access from a private subnet, not to enable Lambda to connect to RDS within the same VPC; using a NAT Gateway would route traffic through the internet, which is unnecessary and insecure for private database access. Option C is wrong because an IAM role alone does not provide network connectivity; Lambda still needs to be attached to the VPC via an ENI, and security group rules must explicitly allow traffic from the Lambda function's ENI, not from the Lambda service itself. Option D is wrong because Lambda automatically creates and attaches an ENI when configured with VPC settings; you cannot manually attach an ENI to a Lambda function, and the ENI is placed in the specified subnets, not directly attached as a separate step.

7
MCQeasy

A company is migrating a monolithic application to a microservices architecture on AWS. They want to decouple the services and ensure that messages between services are processed asynchronously and durably. Which AWS service should they use for this purpose?

A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
B.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
C.Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)
D.AWS Step Functions
AnswerB

SQS is a fully managed message queue for decoupling and asynchronous processing.

Why this answer

Amazon SQS (Simple Queue Service) is the correct choice for decoupling microservices with asynchronous, durable message processing. It provides a fully managed message queue that allows services to send, store, and receive messages between software components without losing messages. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams (option A) is designed for real-time streaming of large data, not for point-to-point queue-based messaging.

Amazon SNS (option C) is a pub/sub service that pushes messages to subscribers, but it does not provide durable storage or polling capabilities. AWS Step Functions (option D) is used for coordinating complex workflows, not for basic asynchronous messaging.

8
MCQhard

A solutions architect is reviewing the above IAM policy attached to an S3 bucket. A user from IP address 10.0.1.5 makes a request over HTTP (not HTTPS). Will the user be able to download an object?

A.No, because the IP address is not in the allowed range.
B.Yes, because the IP address is allowed.
C.No, because the request is not using HTTPS.
D.Yes, because the Allow statement is evaluated first.
AnswerC

The Deny statement blocks non-HTTPS requests.

Why this answer

The Deny statement with aws:SecureTransport=false explicitly denies requests that are not using HTTPS. Even though the Allow statement permits the IP range, the Deny overrides it. Therefore, the request is denied.

9
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a monolithic application to microservices on Amazon ECS. The application needs to communicate with external partners via HTTPS. The company wants to use mTLS for mutual authentication. Which AWS service should be used to handle the mTLS termination?

A.Application Load Balancer (ALB) with mutual TLS
B.Amazon CloudFront with a custom origin
C.Network Load Balancer (NLB) with TLS termination
D.Amazon API Gateway HTTP API
AnswerA

ALB supports mTLS for mutual authentication.

Why this answer

Application Load Balancer (ALB) supports mutual TLS (mTLS) natively by configuring a trust store on the listener that validates client certificates against a Certificate Authority (CA) bundle you upload. This allows the ALB to terminate the HTTPS connection and perform client certificate authentication before forwarding traffic to the ECS service, meeting the requirement for mTLS termination without custom proxy logic.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing ALB mTLS with NLB TLS termination or assuming API Gateway HTTP API supports mTLS, when in fact only ALB and API Gateway REST API (not HTTP API) offer mutual TLS termination for incoming client connections.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Amazon CloudFront does not support mTLS; it can only present client certificates to origins (origin-facing mTLS) but cannot terminate incoming mTLS connections from clients. Option C is wrong because Network Load Balancer (NLB) with TLS termination only validates server certificates and does not support client certificate authentication (mTLS) at the listener level. Option D is wrong because Amazon API Gateway HTTP API does not support mTLS; only API Gateway REST API supports mTLS via mutual TLS authentication, but the HTTP API variant lacks this feature.

10
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new application that will process streaming data from thousands of IoT devices. The data must be ingested in real time and then processed using Apache Flink. Which services should be used? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
B.AWS Lambda
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for Apache Flink
D.Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
E.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
AnswersA, C

Kinesis Data Streams is designed for real-time data ingestion.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams is the correct ingestion service because it provides a durable, scalable, real-time data streaming platform that can handle the high throughput from thousands of IoT devices. It stores data in shards for up to 365 days, enabling Apache Flink to consume and process the data with exactly-once semantics and low latency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Kinesis Data Firehose with Kinesis Data Streams, not realizing that Firehose is a delivery service that does not support Apache Flink's requirement for per-record replay and checkpointing, while Data Streams provides the necessary persistent, ordered stream.

11
MCQmedium

A solutions architect is troubleshooting an issue where an EC2 instance cannot connect to the internet. The output of the describe-instances CLI command is shown in the exhibit. The instance is in a VPC with a public subnet that has a route table with a default route pointing to an internet gateway. The security group allows outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0. What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

A.The subnet's route table does not have a route to the internet gateway.
B.The instance does not have a public IP address.
C.The instance is not in a running state.
D.The security group is blocking outbound traffic.
AnswerB

Correct. The instance likely lacks a public IP address, which is required for direct internet access from a public subnet.

Why this answer

The stem states that the subnet has a route table with a default route to an internet gateway, and the security group allows outbound traffic. The exhibit shows describe-instances output, which likely indicates the instance does not have a public IP address. Without a public IP, the instance cannot communicate with the internet even though routing is configured correctly.

Option B is correct.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume that a route to an internet gateway is sufficient for internet access, but they overlook the need for the instance to have a public IP address in a public subnet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the instance can still have a public IP address assigned (e.g., via an Elastic IP or auto-assign public IP), but without a route to the internet gateway, that public IP is irrelevant for outbound connectivity. Option C is wrong because the instance state is not mentioned in the exhibit as a problem; if it were not running, the describe-instances output would show a 'stopped' or 'terminated' state, and the question states the instance is running. Option D is wrong because the security group explicitly allows outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0, so it is not blocking traffic.

12
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A company has an IAM policy that allows s3:GetObject on all objects in 'my-bucket' but denies access to objects in the 'confidential' folder. A user tries to access 's3://my-bucket/confidential/report.pdf'. What will happen?

A.Access is denied because the Deny statement explicitly matches the resource.
B.Access is allowed because the Deny statement is not evaluated.
C.Access is denied only if the user is not authorized by other policies.
D.Access is allowed because the Allow statement is broader.
AnswerA

An explicit Deny always overrides an Allow.

Why this answer

An explicit Deny statement overrides any Allow. The policy denies access to objects in the 'confidential' folder, so the user will be denied access to 'report.pdf'. Option B is wrong because even though the Allow statement exists, the explicit Deny takes precedence.

Option C is wrong because the Deny is explicit and does not require other policies. Option D is wrong because the broader Allow does not override the explicit Deny.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with Fargate. The services need to communicate with each other. The company wants to implement service discovery and load balancing at the application layer. Which TWO services should the company use?

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon API Gateway
B.Network Load Balancer (NLB)
C.AWS Cloud Map
D.Application Load Balancer (ALB)
E.Amazon Route 53
AnswersC, D

Cloud Map provides service discovery for dynamic resources.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is correct because it provides service discovery for microservices by allowing services to register their DNS names and health checks, enabling dynamic routing between ECS Fargate tasks. Application Load Balancer (ALB) is correct because it operates at Layer 7 (application layer), supporting HTTP/HTTPS traffic, path-based routing, and integration with ECS for load balancing across Fargate tasks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Network Load Balancer (NLB) as an application-layer solution because it can handle TLS termination, but it operates at Layer 4 and lacks the HTTP-aware routing required for application-layer communication.

14
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new container-based application using Amazon EKS. The application requires persistent storage for stateful workloads, such as databases. The storage must be highly available and durable across multiple Availability Zones. Which storage solution should be used?

A.Use Amazon EBS volumes with the EBS CSI driver.
B.Use Amazon FSx for Lustre as a shared file system.
C.Use Amazon EFS with the EFS CSI driver.
D.Use Amazon S3 with the S3 CSI driver.
AnswerC

EFS is a regional, highly available file system that can be mounted by containers across AZs.

Why this answer

Amazon EFS provides a fully managed, elastic NFS file system that is accessible from multiple Amazon EKS worker nodes across different Availability Zones simultaneously. The EFS CSI driver enables Kubernetes pods to mount EFS as a persistent volume, delivering the required high availability and durability for stateful workloads like databases without single-AZ dependency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse EBS's single-AZ attachment with multi-AZ availability, or mistakenly think S3's CSI driver provides file-level access, when in fact EFS is the only AWS managed file system that natively supports multi-AZ access and the Kubernetes CSI standard for stateful workloads.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon EBS volumes are bound to a single Availability Zone and cannot be shared across multiple AZs, making them unsuitable for multi-AZ highly available storage. Option B is wrong because Amazon FSx for Lustre is optimized for high-performance computing and large-scale data processing, not for general-purpose persistent storage for databases, and it lacks native integration with Kubernetes CSI for stateful workloads. Option D is wrong because Amazon S3 is an object storage service, not a file system; it does not support standard file system semantics like POSIX locks or concurrent read/write from multiple pods, and the S3 CSI driver is not an official or widely supported solution for persistent volume claims in EKS.

15
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that requires a relational database with automated backups and multi-AZ redundancy. The database workload is predictable with occasional read replicas for reporting. Which AWS service should be used?

A.Amazon RDS
B.Amazon Redshift
C.Amazon DynamoDB
D.Amazon ElastiCache
AnswerA

RDS provides managed relational databases with multi-AZ and backups.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS is the correct choice because it provides managed relational databases (e.g., MySQL, PostgreSQL, Oracle, SQL Server) with built-in automated backups and Multi-AZ redundancy for high availability. The workload is predictable and requires occasional read replicas for reporting, both of which are natively supported by RDS without the need for complex configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse Amazon Redshift's columnar storage and read replica-like features (e.g., concurrency scaling) with a relational database, but Redshift is not designed for transactional workloads or automated Multi-AZ failover.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Amazon Redshift) is wrong because it is a petabyte-scale data warehouse optimized for analytical queries on large datasets, not a transactional relational database for predictable workloads with read replicas. Option C (Amazon DynamoDB) is wrong because it is a NoSQL key-value and document database that does not support relational features like joins or SQL queries, and its read replicas are not designed for occasional reporting in the same manner as RDS. Option D (Amazon ElastiCache) is wrong because it is an in-memory caching service (Redis/Memcached) that does not provide persistent relational storage, automated backups, or Multi-AZ redundancy for a database workload.

16
MCQmedium

A company is building a new serverless application using AWS Lambda functions. The application processes images uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. Each image triggers a Lambda function that resizes the image and stores the result in another S3 bucket. The company expects a high volume of uploads, up to 10,000 images per minute. The current Lambda function is configured with a timeout of 5 minutes and 1024 MB of memory. During testing, the Lambda function times out for large images. What should the company do to ensure the function can process large images without timing out?

A.Increase the Lambda function timeout to 15 minutes.
B.Use Amazon SQS to decouple the S3 event and Lambda invocation, allowing Lambda to pull messages in batches.
C.Migrate the image processing to Amazon ECS on Fargate with a long-running task.
D.Increase the Lambda function memory to 3008 MB to get more CPU and network throughput.
AnswerD

More memory allocates more vCPU, speeding up image processing.

Why this answer

Increasing Lambda memory proportionally increases CPU and network throughput, which can significantly speed up image processing, especially for large images, thereby reducing the likelihood of timeout. Option A: Increasing timeout does not address the root cause of slow processing; it only allows the function to run longer, but the function may still time out if processing is too slow. Option B: Using SQS decouples invocation but does not speed up individual function execution; it mainly helps with throttling and retries.

Option C: Migrating to ECS on Fargate is not necessary; Lambda can handle this workload with sufficient memory allocation.

17
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a disaster recovery strategy for a production database running on Amazon RDS for MySQL. The RTO is 15 minutes and RPO is 1 hour. Which TWO solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Export the database to Amazon S3 using AWS DMS and import in another Region
B.Deploy Multi-AZ RDS instance and enable automatic failover
C.Use automated backups with point-in-time recovery in the same Region
D.Take manual snapshots every hour and restore in another Region
E.Create a cross-Region read replica and promote it during disaster
AnswersB, E

Multi-AZ provides synchronous replication, RPO ~seconds, RTO ~minutes.

Why this answer

Multi-AZ RDS for MySQL provides automatic synchronous standby replication to a different Availability Zone, enabling automatic failover within minutes (typically 1-2 minutes) without data loss. This meets the 15-minute RTO and 1-hour RPO, as failover is automated and synchronous replication ensures zero data loss.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Multi-AZ (synchronous, same-Region) with cross-Region read replicas (asynchronous, cross-Region), or assume manual snapshots can meet tight RTO/RPO without considering restore time and operational complexity.

18
MCQhard

A company is designing a new web application that will be deployed on Amazon ECS with Fargate. The application must scale based on the number of requests per container. The company wants to use a service that can automatically adjust the number of tasks based on a custom metric. Which solution should the company use?

A.Configure an ECS Service Auto Scaling policy with a target tracking scaling policy based on a custom CloudWatch metric.
B.Configure Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling to adjust the read capacity based on the request count.
C.Use Application Auto Scaling to register the ECS service and create a step scaling policy.
D.Use the AWS Auto Scaling console to create a scaling plan that includes the ECS service.
AnswerA

ECS Service Auto Scaling supports target tracking for custom metrics.

Why this answer

ECS Service Auto Scaling with a target tracking scaling policy can use a custom CloudWatch metric (e.g., requests per container) to automatically adjust the number of Fargate tasks. This approach directly matches the requirement to scale based on a custom metric, as target tracking maintains the metric at a specified target value by adding or removing tasks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse step scaling with target tracking, or incorrectly assume that a scaling plan from the AWS Auto Scaling console is required for ECS services, when in fact ECS Service Auto Scaling with target tracking is the direct and recommended solution for custom metrics.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because DynamoDB auto scaling adjusts read/write capacity for a DynamoDB table, not ECS task counts; it is irrelevant to scaling a web application's containerized tasks. Option C is wrong because while Application Auto Scaling can register an ECS service, step scaling policies require predefined step adjustments and are less optimal for maintaining a custom metric at a target value compared to target tracking. Option D is wrong because the AWS Auto Scaling console creates scaling plans for multiple resources, but for ECS services, the recommended and simpler approach is to use ECS Service Auto Scaling directly with a target tracking policy, not a scaling plan.

19
MCQhard

A company is designing a new application that will use Amazon DynamoDB as its primary database. The application has two access patterns: one requires strongly consistent reads, and the other requires eventually consistent reads. The company wants to minimize costs while meeting the read consistency requirements. How should the company configure DynamoDB reads?

A.Use strongly consistent reads for all read requests to ensure data accuracy.
B.Use DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) to cache reads and achieve strong consistency.
C.Use DynamoDB global tables with strongly consistent reads enabled.
D.Use strongly consistent reads for the pattern that requires it, and eventually consistent reads for the other pattern.
AnswerD

Optimizes cost by using the cheaper eventually consistent reads when acceptable.

Why this answer

DynamoDB supports both strongly consistent reads and eventually consistent reads at the API level (via the `ConsistentRead` parameter). Strongly consistent reads return the most up-to-date data but consume twice the read capacity units (RCUs) compared to eventually consistent reads. By using strongly consistent reads only for the access pattern that requires it, and eventually consistent reads for the other pattern, the company minimizes RCU consumption and thus costs while meeting the specific consistency requirements of each pattern.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume DAX can provide strong consistency (it cannot) or that global tables are a solution for local consistency requirements, when in fact the correct approach is to use the native DynamoDB `ConsistentRead` parameter selectively based on the access pattern.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using strongly consistent reads for all requests would double the RCU consumption for the pattern that only needs eventually consistent reads, unnecessarily increasing costs. Option B is wrong because DAX is an in-memory cache that provides eventually consistent reads by default; it does not support strongly consistent reads, so it cannot satisfy the pattern requiring strong consistency. Option C is wrong because DynamoDB global tables are designed for multi-region replication and provide eventually consistent reads across regions; they do not support strongly consistent reads globally, and enabling them does not help meet local consistency requirements.

20
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a legacy monolithic application to AWS. The application currently uses a shared filesystem for storing user-uploaded documents. The company wants to decouple storage and compute, ensure high durability, and minimize operational overhead. Which AWS service should the company use to replace the shared filesystem?

A.Amazon EBS
B.Amazon EFS
C.Amazon S3
D.Amazon FSx for Windows File Server
AnswerC

Amazon S3 provides scalable, durable object storage suitable for user-uploaded documents.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 is the correct choice because it provides a highly durable (99.999999999% durability), scalable, and fully managed object storage service that decouples storage from compute. Unlike a shared filesystem, S3 allows multiple compute instances (e.g., EC2, Lambda) to access the same documents via HTTP/HTTPS APIs without needing a mounted filesystem, minimizing operational overhead. It also supports features like versioning, lifecycle policies, and cross-region replication, making it ideal for user-uploaded documents in a migration scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse shared filesystem requirements with network-attached storage (NAS) services like EFS or FSx, overlooking that object storage (S3) is the most durable, scalable, and operationally lightweight option for user-uploaded documents when compute and storage need to be decoupled.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon EBS provides block-level storage that must be attached to a single EC2 instance at a time (or shared via multi-attach with specific constraints), making it unsuitable as a shared filesystem for multiple compute instances and not decoupling storage from compute. Option B is wrong because Amazon EFS is a managed NFS filesystem that, while shared, still requires compute instances to mount it and incurs operational overhead for managing file-level access, and it does not offer the same level of durability (99.999999999% vs 99.999999999% for S3) or cost efficiency for large-scale document storage. Option D is wrong because Amazon FSx for Windows File Server provides a fully managed Windows file server using the SMB protocol, which introduces licensing costs and operational complexity, and is not designed for the high durability and decoupling benefits of object storage for user-uploaded documents.

21
MCQhard

A company is designing a microservices architecture on ECS with Fargate. Services need to communicate securely within a VPC and be accessible from the internet via an Application Load Balancer. The solution must minimize operational overhead. Which networking configuration should be used?

A.Services in private subnets with a NAT Gateway and an ALB in public subnets.
B.Services in private subnets with a VPC endpoint and an NLB.
C.Services in a single public subnet with an ALB.
D.Services in public subnets with Internet Gateways and an ALB.
AnswerA

Private subnets provide isolation, NAT for outbound, ALB for inbound.

Why this answer

Placing ECS Fargate services in private subnets ensures they are not directly exposed to the internet, enhancing security. The Application Load Balancer (ALB) in public subnets handles internet-facing traffic and forwards requests to the private services. A NAT Gateway is required for the private services to initiate outbound internet access (e.g., for pulling container images or external dependencies), while the ALB provides inbound connectivity without exposing the services directly.

This setup minimizes operational overhead by using AWS-managed components (Fargate, ALB, NAT Gateway) and avoids managing bastion hosts or custom routing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the need for a NAT Gateway with outbound-only internet access, mistakenly thinking private subnets cannot reach the internet at all, or they assume an NLB is sufficient for HTTP-based microservices without considering Layer 7 routing requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Network Load Balancer (NLB) operates at Layer 4 and does not support HTTP/HTTPS routing or path-based rules, which are typically needed for microservices; also, VPC endpoints are used for private connectivity to AWS services, not for internet-facing traffic, and the question requires internet accessibility via an ALB. Option C is wrong because placing services in a single public subnet exposes them directly to the internet, bypassing the security of private subnets and increasing attack surface; it also violates best practices for microservices isolation. Option D is wrong because placing services in public subnets with Internet Gateways directly exposes them to inbound internet traffic, defeating the purpose of a secure microservices architecture and increasing operational overhead for security groups and patching.

22
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new microservices architecture on Amazon ECS with Fargate. Each microservice must be isolated and able to communicate with others only through defined APIs. Which solution provides the BEST isolation and security?

A.Use AWS App Mesh with Envoy sidecars to control traffic between services.
B.Place all microservices in the same security group and allow all traffic.
C.Use an Application Load Balancer per microservice with listener rules.
D.Use VPC peering between each microservice's VPC.
AnswerA

App Mesh provides service-level security and observability.

Why this answer

AWS App Mesh with Envoy sidecars provides service-level traffic control, encryption, and observability without modifying application code. It enforces fine-grained routing and security policies (e.g., mTLS, retries, timeouts) between microservices, ensuring isolation and that communication only occurs through defined APIs. This aligns with the microservices principle of strict API boundaries and defense in depth.

Exam trap

The SAP-C02 exam often tests the misconception that network-level controls (security groups, VPC peering) are sufficient for microservice isolation, but the exam requires understanding that application-layer service mesh (like App Mesh) provides the necessary API-level security and observability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because placing all microservices in the same security group and allowing all traffic removes network segmentation, violating the isolation requirement and exposing services to unrestricted lateral movement. Option C is wrong because an Application Load Balancer per microservice adds unnecessary complexity, cost, and does not enforce service-to-service API-level security; ALBs operate at Layer 7 but cannot enforce mTLS or fine-grained routing between individual service instances. Option D is wrong because VPC peering between each microservice's VPC is operationally unscalable (n² peering connections), introduces latency, and does not provide application-layer API control or encryption between services.

23
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is designing a new VPC with public and private subnets. The company wants to ensure that instances in the private subnets can download updates from the internet, but cannot be directly accessed from the internet. Which THREE components are required to meet these requirements? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.A route table for private subnets with a default route pointing to the NAT Gateway.
B.An Internet Gateway attached to the VPC.
C.A Virtual Private Gateway (VGW).
D.A NAT Gateway in a public subnet.
E.A VPC endpoint for S3.
AnswersA, B, D

This route ensures that outbound traffic from private subnets is directed to the NAT Gateway.

Why this answer

A route table for private subnets with a default route (0.0.0.0/0) pointing to a NAT Gateway ensures that outbound traffic from instances in private subnets is forwarded to the NAT Gateway for internet access, while the NAT Gateway does not allow inbound connections initiated from the internet. This satisfies the requirement that instances can download updates but cannot be directly accessed from the internet.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a Virtual Private Gateway (VGW) with a NAT Gateway, mistakenly thinking a VGW can provide internet access, or they assume a VPC endpoint for S3 is sufficient for general internet downloads, when it only covers S3 traffic.

24
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new web application that will be accessed by users worldwide. The application will serve static content (HTML, CSS, images) and dynamic API responses. The company wants to minimize latency for all users. Which combination of AWS services should the company use?

A.Amazon Route 53 and Amazon S3
B.Amazon CloudFront and Amazon API Gateway
C.Amazon S3 and Amazon CloudFront
D.Application Load Balancer (ALB) and Amazon CloudFront
AnswerB

CloudFront provides edge caching for static content and can route API requests to API Gateway, reducing latency.

Why this answer

Amazon CloudFront is a global content delivery network (CDN) that serves static content (HTML, CSS, images) from edge locations, minimizing latency. For dynamic API responses, CloudFront can route requests to Amazon API Gateway, which acts as a backend to handle API calls. This combination provides low-latency access worldwide for both static and dynamic content.

Option A (Route 53 + S3) is incorrect because Route 53 is DNS only and S3 alone does not provide caching at edge locations. Option C (S3 + CloudFront) is missing a managed API service for dynamic responses; while CloudFront can serve static content from S3, it needs API Gateway or a compute origin for dynamic APIs. Option D (ALB + CloudFront) places CloudFront in front of an ALB, but ALB is regional and does not effectively reduce latency for static assets; additionally, ALB is not optimized for API management like API Gateway.

25
MCQhard

A company is designing a new real-time analytics platform that ingests data from thousands of IoT devices. The devices send JSON messages every second to an AWS IoT Core topic. The messages must be processed and stored in Amazon S3 for long-term analysis. The processing includes enrichment by calling a third-party API to add location data. The company expects the workload to vary significantly, with peak traffic of 100,000 messages per second. The solution must be cost-effective and minimize operational overhead. The current architecture uses a Lambda function subscribed to the IoT topic, which processes each message and writes to S3. However, during initial testing, the Lambda function frequently times out due to the third-party API latency, causing message loss. What should the company do to resolve this issue while meeting all requirements?

A.Increase the Lambda function timeout to 15 minutes and memory to 10240 MB
B.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to buffer data and write to S3, then trigger a Lambda function to enrich data asynchronously
C.Enable Provisioned Concurrency on the Lambda function to reduce cold starts
D.Configure the IoT rule to write messages to an Amazon SQS queue. Then use a Lambda function with reserved concurrency to poll the queue and process messages at a controlled rate
AnswerD

SQS decouples ingestion from processing, preventing message loss, and reserved concurrency ensures consistent performance.

Why this answer

Decoupling the ingestion from the processing using an SQS queue allows the Lambda function to poll messages at a controlled rate, preventing timeouts from third-party API latency. The SQS queue acts as a buffer, absorbing traffic spikes of up to 100,000 messages per second, and Lambda can process messages asynchronously without loss. This approach is cost-effective and minimizes operational overhead by leveraging managed services.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think Kinesis Data Firehose is the best choice for buffering and enrichment, but they overlook that Firehose does not support real-time enrichment via Lambda before writing to S3; it only supports transformation with a Lambda function that has a limited timeout (60 seconds) and cannot handle asynchronous API calls reliably.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing the Lambda timeout to 15 minutes and memory to 10240 MB does not resolve the underlying issue of third-party API latency; it only delays the timeout, and Lambda has a maximum execution time of 15 minutes, but the function may still fail if the API is slow, and high memory increases cost without solving the buffering problem. Option B is wrong because Kinesis Data Firehose writes directly to S3, but triggering a Lambda function asynchronously from S3 events would not enrich data before storage; the enrichment would need to happen after the data is already in S3, which does not meet the requirement to enrich before storage and could lead to duplicate processing or data loss. Option C is wrong because Provisioned Concurrency reduces cold starts but does not address the timeout issue caused by third-party API latency; the function would still time out if the API is slow, and it does not provide buffering for traffic spikes.

26
MCQmedium

A company is designing a containerized microservices architecture on Amazon ECS. The services must be able to discover each other using DNS names. Which AWS service should the company use for service discovery?

A.AWS Cloud Map
B.Amazon Route 53 Resolver
C.Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)
D.Amazon Elastic Container Registry (ECR)
AnswerA

Cloud Map provides DNS-based service discovery for microservices.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is the correct choice because it provides a fully managed service discovery solution that integrates natively with Amazon ECS. It allows microservices to register their DNS names and health checks, enabling other services to discover them via DNS queries or API calls. This directly supports the requirement for containerized services to find each other using DNS names within an ECS cluster.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing a load balancer (ELB) with service discovery; candidates often think ELB provides DNS-based discovery, but it only routes traffic to a group of targets, not per-instance DNS names for dynamic microservice-to-microservice communication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Amazon Route 53 Resolver) is wrong because it is a DNS resolution service for hybrid networks (on-premises to AWS), not a service discovery mechanism for ECS microservices; it does not register or manage service instances. Option C (Elastic Load Balancing) is wrong because it distributes traffic to targets but does not provide DNS-based service discovery for individual service instances; it is a load balancer, not a discovery registry. Option D (Amazon Elastic Container Registry) is wrong because it is a container image repository, not a service discovery tool; it stores Docker images but has no role in DNS resolution or instance registration.

27
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A CloudFormation template creates an S3 bucket with versioning and a public bucket policy. After deployment, users can access objects in the bucket via the internet. However, the security team requires that all access be logged. What is missing from this configuration?

A.The bucket is not encrypted.
B.The bucket policy does not restrict access to a specific IP range.
C.Bucket versioning is not enabled.
D.No logging configuration is specified.
AnswerD

Logging is needed for audit.

Why this answer

The question states that the security team requires all access to be logged, but the CloudFormation template does not include any logging configuration (e.g., server access logs or AWS CloudTrail object-level logging). Without enabling S3 server access logging or delivering logs to a target bucket, no access records are generated, violating the logging requirement. The bucket policy and versioning are irrelevant to the logging gap.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse security controls like encryption, IP restrictions, or versioning with logging, failing to recognize that the specific requirement for 'all access to be logged' can only be met by explicitly configuring a logging destination.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because encryption (e.g., SSE-S3, SSE-KMS) protects data at rest but does not provide access logging; the security requirement is about logging, not encryption. Option B is wrong because restricting access to a specific IP range controls who can access the bucket but does not enable logging; the requirement is for all access to be logged, not restricted. Option C is wrong because bucket versioning is already enabled per the template description, and versioning preserves object versions but does not log access events.

28
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new CI/CD pipeline for a containerized application using AWS CodePipeline. The application source code is stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. The pipeline must automatically build a Docker image from the source code and push it to Amazon ECR. Which action should be used as the build provider?

A.AWS CodeDeploy
B.AWS CodeCommit
C.Amazon ECS
D.AWS CodeBuild
AnswerD

AWS CodeBuild is a fully managed build service that can compile source code, run tests, and produce software packages, including Docker images, which it can push to ECR.

Why this answer

AWS CodeBuild is the correct build provider because it is a fully managed continuous integration service that can compile source code, run tests, and produce Docker images. It integrates natively with CodePipeline and Amazon ECR, allowing you to define a buildspec.yml file that uses the 'aws ecr get-login-password' command and 'docker build/push' commands to build and push the image directly to ECR.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon ECS (a container runtime service) with a build service, or assume CodeDeploy can handle image building because it supports ECS deployments, but neither service can compile source code or push images to ECR.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS CodeDeploy is a deployment service that automates application deployments to EC2, Lambda, or on-premises instances; it does not build Docker images or push them to ECR. Option B is wrong because AWS CodeCommit is a source control service for hosting Git repositories; it cannot perform build actions or push images to ECR. Option C is wrong because Amazon ECS is a container orchestration service that runs containers on a cluster; it does not build images or act as a build provider in CodePipeline.

29
MCQmedium

A company needs to store configuration files for multiple environments (dev, test, prod) and retrieve them programmatically with versioning and access control. Which AWS service should be used?

A.AWS Secrets Manager
B.Amazon S3
C.AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
D.Amazon DynamoDB
AnswerC

Parameter Store is designed for configuration management.

Why this answer

AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store is the correct choice because it is designed to store configuration data and secrets hierarchically (e.g., /dev/config, /prod/config) with built-in versioning and fine-grained access control via IAM policies. It supports retrieval programmatically through the AWS SDK, CLI, or API, and integrates natively with other AWS services for parameter updates and notifications.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Secrets Manager with Parameter Store because both can store secure strings, but Secrets Manager lacks hierarchical path support and is overkill for non-secret configuration files, while Parameter Store is purpose-built for hierarchical config management with versioning.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Secrets Manager is optimized for managing secrets (e.g., database credentials, API keys) with automatic rotation, not for general configuration files with versioning; it lacks hierarchical storage for environments like dev/test/prod. Option B is wrong because Amazon S3 can store configuration files with versioning and access control, but it is an object storage service, not a purpose-built configuration store; it requires additional logic for hierarchical retrieval and lacks native parameter-store features like tiered pricing and secure string encryption without extra setup. Option D is wrong because Amazon DynamoDB is a NoSQL database designed for high-performance key-value and document workloads, not for storing configuration files with versioning; it would require custom implementation for version control and access control, adding unnecessary complexity and cost.

30
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will run on Amazon ECS with Fargate. They need to store configuration data and secrets securely. Which services should they use? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Secrets Manager
B.AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
C.Amazon S3
D.AWS CloudFormation
E.AWS KMS
AnswersA, B

Designed for secrets management.

Why this answer

AWS Secrets Manager is correct because it is purpose-built for securely storing, rotating, and managing secrets such as database credentials and API keys throughout their lifecycle. It integrates natively with Amazon ECS to inject secrets into containers at runtime without exposing them in the task definition or environment variables, meeting the requirement for secure configuration data and secrets.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store (which can store secure strings) with AWS Secrets Manager, but the exam expects you to know that Secrets Manager is the preferred service for secrets that require automatic rotation, while Parameter Store is better for configuration data that does not need rotation, and both are correct in this question because the requirement is to store both configuration data and secrets securely.

31
MCQmedium

A media company is designing a new video transcoding pipeline on AWS. Raw video files (up to 10 GB each) are uploaded by users to an S3 bucket. Each upload must be transcoded into multiple formats (MP4, WebM, HLS) and stored in another S3 bucket. The transcoding job can take up to 30 minutes per file. The company needs a solution that is cost-effective and can handle hundreds of concurrent uploads. The operations team wants to minimize maintenance. Which solution should a Solutions Architect recommend?

A.Use S3 event notifications to invoke an AWS Lambda function that performs transcoding and stores results.
B.Use S3 event notifications to invoke a Lambda function that submits a job to AWS Elemental MediaConvert for each file.
C.Use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with transcoding software installed. Configure S3 events to send messages to an SQS queue, which the instances poll.
D.Use S3 event notifications to trigger an AWS Step Functions workflow that runs an ECS Fargate task for each file.
AnswerB

MediaConvert is a managed, scalable service designed for video transcoding; Lambda handles the orchestration.

Why this answer

AWS Elemental MediaConvert is a fully managed, serverless media transcoding service designed for high-volume, multi-format video processing. Using S3 event notifications to invoke a Lambda function that submits a job to MediaConvert offloads the transcoding complexity, scales automatically to handle hundreds of concurrent uploads, and requires no infrastructure maintenance, making it both cost-effective and operationally minimal.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose Option A (Lambda) without considering the 15-minute timeout limit, or Option D (Step Functions + Fargate) because it sounds serverless, but they overlook that MediaConvert is the fully managed, cost-optimized service specifically designed for this use case.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Lambda has a maximum execution timeout of 15 minutes, but the transcoding job can take up to 30 minutes per file, so the Lambda function would time out before completion. Option C is wrong because managing an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with transcoding software introduces significant maintenance overhead (patching, scaling policies, instance health) and is not cost-effective for sporadic or bursty workloads compared to a serverless service. Option D is wrong while technically possible, using ECS Fargate tasks orchestrated by Step Functions adds unnecessary complexity and cost compared to MediaConvert, which is purpose-built for video transcoding and natively integrates with S3; Fargate requires custom container images, task definitions, and more operational overhead.

32
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a monolithic application to microservices on AWS. They have identified that some services require high-throughput, low-latency data sharing. Which AWS service should they use for this purpose?

A.Amazon ElastiCache for Redis
B.Amazon RDS
C.Amazon S3
D.AWS Glue
AnswerA

ElastiCache for Redis provides high-throughput, low-latency in-memory caching.

Why this answer

Amazon ElastiCache for Redis is an in-memory data store that provides microsecond latency and high throughput, making it ideal for data sharing between microservices. Option A is correct. Option B (Amazon RDS) is a relational database, not optimized for low-latency data sharing.

Option C (Amazon S3) is object storage with higher latency. Option D (AWS Glue) is an ETL service, not suitable for real-time data sharing.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new serverless application using AWS Lambda. The application needs to access an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL database. The database credentials must be rotated automatically every 30 days. Which THREE steps should the company take to securely manage the credentials? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Store the database credentials in AWS Secrets Manager.
B.Configure automatic rotation for the secret in AWS Secrets Manager.
C.Grant the Lambda function's IAM role permission to access the RDS database directly.
D.Write custom rotation logic in the Lambda function to change the database password.
E.Grant the Lambda function's IAM role permission to retrieve the secret from Secrets Manager.
AnswersA, B, E

Secrets Manager is designed for storing secrets.

Why this answer

AWS Secrets Manager is designed to securely store, manage, and automatically rotate database credentials, including for Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL. By storing credentials in Secrets Manager, the company avoids hardcoding secrets in code or configuration files, ensuring a centralized and auditable secrets management solution.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse IAM roles for database access (which is only supported for Amazon RDS with IAM database authentication, not for standard PostgreSQL credentials) with the need to retrieve secrets via IAM permissions, leading them to select Option C instead of Option E.

34
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A company has an S3 bucket policy that allows GetObject access from two IP ranges (10.0.0.0/16 and 192.168.0.0/16). The policy also denies all S3 actions on the 'confidential/' prefix unless the request comes from the 10.0.0.0/16 range. Which of the following statements is true?

A.Users from 192.168.0.0/16 can access objects in the confidential/ prefix.
B.Users from 10.0.0.0/16 can access objects in the confidential/ prefix, but users from 192.168.0.0/16 cannot.
C.Users from 10.0.0.0/16 cannot access objects in the confidential/ prefix.
D.The policy has no effect because the Allow and Deny statements cancel each other.
AnswerB

The Deny statement denies access to confidential/ for IPs not in 10.0.0.0/16, so only 10.0.0.0/16 is allowed.

Why this answer

The S3 bucket policy includes an explicit Deny statement that blocks all S3 actions on the 'confidential/' prefix unless the request originates from the 10.0.0.0/16 IP range. Since explicit Deny statements override any Allow statements in AWS IAM policy evaluation, users from 192.168.0.0/16 are denied access to the 'confidential/' prefix even though the GetObject Allow statement includes that range. Only users from 10.0.0.0/16 satisfy the condition in the Deny statement and can therefore access objects in the 'confidential/' prefix.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume an Allow statement for a broader set of IPs will grant access to all prefixes, overlooking that an explicit Deny with a condition can carve out exceptions, and that AWS evaluates Deny statements before Allow statements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the explicit Deny statement on the 'confidential/' prefix blocks all requests not coming from 10.0.0.0/16, so users from 192.168.0.0/16 are denied access. Option B is correct as explained. Option C is wrong because the Deny statement specifically allows requests from 10.0.0.0/16, so users from that range can access the 'confidential/' prefix.

Option D is wrong because the Allow and Deny statements do not cancel each other; AWS IAM policy evaluation uses an explicit Deny override, so the Deny statement takes precedence over the Allow statement for requests from 192.168.0.0/16, while the Allow statement still applies to other objects.

35
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that will run on Amazon ECS with Fargate launch type. The application needs to store session state that is shared across multiple tasks. The session data must be highly available and low-latency. Which AWS service should be used to store the session state?

A.Amazon EFS
B.Amazon ElastiCache for Redis
C.Amazon RDS for MySQL
D.Amazon DynamoDB
AnswerB

Redis is an in-memory data store that provides sub-millisecond latency and supports session management features.

Why this answer

Amazon ElastiCache for Redis is the correct choice because it provides an in-memory data store with sub-millisecond latency, which is ideal for storing session state that must be shared across multiple ECS Fargate tasks. Redis supports data structures like hashes and strings that map directly to session data, and it offers built-in replication and automatic failover for high availability. This makes it a purpose-built solution for distributed session management in containerized applications.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose Amazon DynamoDB because it is serverless and highly available, but they overlook that session state requires ultra-low latency that only an in-memory cache like Redis can provide, and DynamoDB's millisecond latency is not sufficient for high-throughput session management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon EFS is a file-level storage service that introduces higher latency compared to in-memory solutions, and it is not optimized for the frequent read/write operations of session state. Option C is wrong because Amazon RDS for MySQL is a relational database with disk-based storage, which incurs higher latency and is overkill for simple key-value session data; it also requires connection management overhead that is unsuitable for high-frequency session access. Option D is wrong because Amazon DynamoDB is a NoSQL database that, while highly available and scalable, has higher latency than an in-memory cache like Redis for session state, and its cost per operation is typically higher for the small, transient data patterns of sessions.

36
MCQhard

A company is designing a new application that must be highly available across multiple AWS Regions. The application will run on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company needs a DNS-based routing policy that routes users to the nearest healthy endpoint based on latency. Which Amazon Route 53 routing policy should be used?

A.Latency routing policy
B.Failover routing policy
C.Weighted routing policy
D.Simple routing policy
AnswerA

Latency routing policy routes traffic to the region that provides the lowest latency for the user based on historical latency data.

Why this answer

Latency routing policy is correct because it directs traffic to the AWS Region that provides the lowest latency for the end user, based on historical latency data between the user's DNS resolver and the AWS endpoints. This meets the requirement for a DNS-based routing policy that routes users to the nearest healthy endpoint based on latency, while also supporting health checks to ensure traffic is only sent to healthy targets.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'latency-based routing' with 'geolocation routing' or 'geoproximity routing,' but the question explicitly asks for routing based on latency, not geographic location or proximity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Failover routing policy) is wrong because it is designed for active-passive failover between two endpoints, not for routing based on latency or proximity. Option C (Weighted routing policy) is wrong because it distributes traffic based on assigned weights, not on the user's latency or geographic location. Option D (Simple routing policy) is wrong because it routes all traffic to a single endpoint (or multiple endpoints in a round-robin fashion if multiple records are returned) and does not consider latency, health, or proximity.

37
MCQhard

A company is designing a global application that requires a highly available and low-latency API. The API will be consumed by clients across the world. The backend consists of an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in front of an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances in a single AWS Region. The company wants to improve performance for global users. Which solution meets these requirements with minimal operational overhead?

A.Deploy the application in multiple Regions and use Amazon Route 53 latency-based routing with active-passive failover.
B.Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution with Lambda@Edge to proxy requests to the ALB.
C.Create an AWS Global Accelerator accelerator with the ALB as an endpoint.
D.Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the ALB as the origin.
AnswerC

Global Accelerator uses the AWS global network and anycast IPs to route traffic to the nearest healthy endpoint, reducing latency without multi-Region deployment.

Why this answer

AWS Global Accelerator uses the AWS global network to route user traffic to the optimal endpoint, reducing latency and improving availability. By using the ALB as an endpoint, it provides static anycast IP addresses and automatically reroutes traffic if the ALB becomes unhealthy, all with minimal operational overhead since it requires no changes to the application or additional infrastructure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse CloudFront (a CDN optimized for cacheable content) with Global Accelerator (a network layer service for improving performance of non-cacheable, dynamic traffic), leading them to choose Option D without realizing that CloudFront adds latency for uncacheable API requests.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because deploying in multiple Regions and using Route 53 latency-based routing with active-passive failover introduces significant operational overhead for managing multi-Region infrastructure, and Route 53 DNS-based routing can be affected by client-side DNS caching, which may not provide the lowest latency for all users. Option B is wrong because Lambda@Edge is designed for lightweight compute at edge locations, not for proxying requests to an ALB; it would add unnecessary complexity, latency, and cost, and it is not a recommended pattern for simply routing traffic to an ALB. Option D is wrong because a CloudFront distribution with the ALB as the origin does not inherently optimize the network path from the client to the ALB; CloudFront caches content at edge locations, but for dynamic API traffic that cannot be cached, it adds an extra hop and does not improve the latency of the connection to the origin ALB.

38
MCQhard

A financial services company needs to store sensitive customer data in Amazon S3 with encryption at rest. They require that the encryption keys be stored in AWS CloudHSM and that the S3 bucket must not be able to access the keys without explicit permission. Which S3 encryption option should they use?

A.SSE-S3
B.SSE-C
C.Client-side encryption
D.SSE-KMS
AnswerB

Allows customer to provide keys stored in CloudHSM.

Why this answer

SSE-C (Server-Side Encryption with Customer-Provided Keys) is correct because it allows the customer to supply their own encryption keys, which can be stored in AWS CloudHSM, and S3 will use those keys to encrypt data at rest. With SSE-C, the customer manages the keys outside of AWS, and S3 cannot access the keys without explicit permission because the keys are provided per request and not stored by AWS. This meets the requirement of storing keys in CloudHSM and ensuring S3 has no independent access to them.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose SSE-KMS assuming it supports CloudHSM via a custom key store, but SSE-KMS still allows S3 to access the key through KMS policies without requiring the key to be provided per request, which does not meet the 'explicit permission per access' requirement as strictly as SSE-C does.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (SSE-S3) is wrong because it uses AWS-managed keys stored and managed entirely by S3, not in CloudHSM, and S3 inherently has access to the keys without explicit customer permission. Option C (Client-side encryption) is wrong because it encrypts data before sending to S3, which does not use S3's server-side encryption at rest and does not involve S3 managing keys or encryption; the requirement specifies S3 encryption at rest. Option D (SSE-KMS) is wrong because it uses AWS KMS keys, which are not stored in CloudHSM; while KMS can use a CloudHSM key store (custom key store), the keys are still managed by KMS, and S3 can access them via KMS policies without requiring per-request key provision, which does not satisfy the explicit permission requirement as strictly as SSE-C.

39
MCQhard

A company is deploying a multi-tier web application on AWS. The application must be highly available across three Availability Zones. The web tier runs on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The application tier runs on EC2 instances behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB). The database tier uses a Multi-AZ RDS instance. To reduce cross-AZ data transfer costs, which design should be implemented?

A.Use AWS Global Accelerator to reduce data transfer costs
B.Place all web tier instances in one AZ and all application tier instances in another AZ
C.Use a single AZ for all tiers to avoid cross-AZ traffic
D.Place web and application tier instances in the same subnets across all three AZs
AnswerD

ALB and NLB can route to targets in the same AZ, reducing cross-AZ traffic.

Why this answer

Placing web and application tier EC2 instances in the same subnets across all three Availability Zones ensures that traffic between the ALB and NLB, as well as between the NLB and application instances, stays within the same AZ whenever possible. This design leverages the ALB's cross-zone load balancing behavior (enabled by default) and the NLB's ability to route traffic to targets in the same AZ, minimizing cross-AZ data transfer costs. AWS charges for data transfer between AZs, so keeping traffic within the same AZ reduces those costs while maintaining high availability across three AZs.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think placing all resources in a single AZ (Option C) is acceptable for cost savings, but the question explicitly requires high availability across three AZs, making that option invalid despite its cost advantage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Global Accelerator improves performance and availability by routing traffic over the AWS global network, but it does not reduce cross-AZ data transfer costs within a single region; it primarily reduces latency and improves fault tolerance for global traffic. Option B is wrong because placing all web tier instances in one AZ and all application tier instances in another AZ violates the high availability requirement (single AZ failure would take down the entire tier) and actually increases cross-AZ traffic, incurring higher data transfer costs. Option C is wrong because using a single AZ for all tiers eliminates cross-AZ traffic but completely defeats the requirement for high availability across three Availability Zones, making the application vulnerable to AZ failures.

40
MCQmedium

A company has an IAM policy attached to a user. The user is trying to download an object from the S3 bucket 'my-bucket' that was uploaded with SSE-S3 encryption. What will happen?

A.The user will be allowed only if the object was uploaded with SSE-KMS.
B.The user will be denied access because the condition is not met.
C.The user will be allowed to download the object.
D.The user will be denied because SSE-S3 is not AES256.
AnswerC

The condition requires SSE-S3 (AES256), which matches the object's encryption.

Why this answer

SSE-S3 uses AES-256 encryption managed by Amazon S3, and the encryption/decryption process is transparent to the user. When a user has the s3:GetObject permission in their IAM policy, they can download the object regardless of SSE-S3 encryption, as S3 automatically decrypts the object upon retrieval. The IAM policy does not require any additional conditions for SSE-S3, so the user is allowed to download the object.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SSE-S3 with SSE-KMS and assume that any server-side encryption requires additional IAM conditions or KMS permissions, but SSE-S3 is fully transparent to the user and does not impose any such requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSE-KMS is a different encryption type that requires additional kms:Decrypt permissions; the question specifies SSE-S3, not SSE-KMS, so the user would not need KMS permissions. Option B is wrong because there is no condition in the IAM policy that would deny access; SSE-S3 does not impose any condition on the user's ability to download. Option D is wrong because SSE-S3 does use AES-256 encryption (it is the default), and the statement 'SSE-S3 is not AES256' is factually incorrect.

41
MCQhard

A financial services company is designing a multi-account AWS environment using AWS Organizations. They need to enforce that all newly created S3 buckets in any account have server-side encryption enabled using AWS KMS (SSE-KMS) with a customer managed key. Additionally, they want to prevent any S3 bucket from being publicly accessible. What is the MOST efficient and comprehensive way to enforce these policies?

A.Use a service control policy (SCP) to deny the s3:PutBucketAcl action that grants public access, and rely on bucket policies to enforce encryption.
B.Use AWS Config rules with automatic remediation to enable encryption and block public access on any non-compliant bucket.
C.Create an SCP that denies s3:PutObject without the x-amz-server-side-encryption-aws:kms header, and another SCP that denies s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock with a condition key. Also, use a resource-based policy on the S3 service to block public access.
D.Create an SCP that denies the s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock action and attach it to the root OU.
AnswerC

SCPs can deny actions based on conditions, and resource policies can prevent public access proactively.

Why this answer

SCPs can deny the s3:PutObject action unless the x-amz-server-side-encryption-aws:kms header is present, ensuring SSE-KMS is enforced at the API level across all accounts. Additionally, an SCP denying s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock with a condition key (e.g., requiring the PublicAccessBlockConfiguration to be fully enabled) prevents any bucket from being made publicly accessible. This approach is comprehensive and efficient as it proactively blocks non-compliant actions before they occur, rather than relying on reactive remediation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SCPs with resource-based policies or AWS Config remediation, thinking reactive detection is sufficient, but the question asks for the 'most efficient and comprehensive' approach, which requires proactive prevention at the API level using SCPs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because bucket policies alone cannot enforce SSE-KMS on all objects; they can only require encryption headers on PutObject, but SCPs are needed to deny non-compliant actions across all accounts. Option B is wrong because AWS Config with automatic remediation is reactive—it detects non-compliance after the bucket is created or modified, which may leave a window of exposure, and it is less efficient than proactive prevention via SCPs. Option D is wrong because denying s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock would actually prevent the use of the PublicAccessBlock configuration, which is the mechanism to block public access; instead, you need to deny actions that make buckets public (e.g., s3:PutBucketAcl with public access) or require the PublicAccessBlock to be set.

42
MCQeasy

A company is building a microservices architecture on Amazon ECS with Fargate. Each service must be isolated and communicate only via APIs. The company needs to enforce that services cannot directly access each other's databases. Which approach should be used?

A.Use a single VPC with network ACLs to block database ports between services.
B.Use IAM policies to restrict database access at the API level.
C.Place all services in the same VPC and use security groups to restrict database access.
D.Create a separate VPC for each service and use VPC peering for API communication only.
AnswerD

Separate VPCs provide strong isolation; VPC peering allows controlled API traffic.

Why this answer

Placing each microservice in its own VPC and using VPC peering for API communication only enforces strict network isolation at the VPC boundary. This prevents any direct database access between services, as the peering connection can be configured to allow only specific API ports (e.g., HTTPS 443) and not database ports (e.g., 3306, 5432). This design aligns with the principle of least privilege and ensures that services cannot bypass API gateways to reach each other's databases.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume security groups within a single VPC are sufficient for isolation, but the question requires strict enforcement that services cannot directly access each other's databases, which is best achieved by separate VPCs with peering limited to API ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because network ACLs are stateless and apply at the subnet level, not at the instance or service level; they cannot enforce fine-grained isolation between services within the same VPC, and a misconfigured rule could inadvertently allow database traffic. Option B is wrong because IAM policies control access to AWS API actions (e.g., RDS API calls), not direct network-level database connections; they cannot prevent a service from connecting to another service's database if the database endpoint is reachable over the network. Option C is wrong because security groups within the same VPC can restrict traffic, but they do not provide the strong isolation required; a misconfigured security group or a compromised service could still access the database if the security group rule is too permissive, and the services share the same VPC routing table, increasing the attack surface.

43
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is designing a new serverless application using AWS Lambda. The application needs to access an Amazon RDS database. Which THREE steps are required to secure the database access? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Place the Lambda function in a VPC with access to the RDS instance
B.Enable encryption on the RDS instance
C.Store database credentials in the Lambda function code
D.Assign an IAM role to the Lambda function with permissions to connect to RDS
E.Use a public IP address for the RDS instance
AnswersA, B, D

Lambda in VPC can access RDS.

Why this answer

Placing the Lambda function in the same VPC as the RDS instance allows it to communicate over a private IP address, eliminating exposure to the public internet. This is essential for secure database access, as Lambda functions outside the VPC cannot directly connect to RDS instances that are not publicly accessible.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse IAM roles with direct database authentication, thinking that assigning an IAM role alone is sufficient without also configuring IAM database authentication on the RDS side, or they overlook the necessity of VPC placement for private network connectivity.

44
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is hosting a static website on Amazon S3. The website uses JavaScript to make API calls to a backend API hosted on Amazon API Gateway. The company wants to reduce latency for users worldwide. Which combination of AWS services should the solutions architect use? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use CloudFront with API Gateway as an origin.
B.Use AWS Global Accelerator for the S3 website.
C.Use Lambda@Edge to process API calls at the edge.
D.Use Amazon CloudFront for both the S3 website and the API Gateway endpoint.
E.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the bucket.
AnswersA, D

This allows API calls to be served from edge locations.

Why this answer

Amazon CloudFront can use API Gateway as a custom origin, allowing API requests to be served from edge locations closer to users, which reduces latency. This integration caches API responses at the edge when possible and terminates the user's TCP connection at the edge, improving performance for global users.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think Lambda@Edge can directly process API calls to API Gateway, but Lambda@Edge only intercepts CloudFront events and cannot replace the API Gateway origin or handle backend API logic.

45
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new web application that will serve static content (HTML, CSS, JS, images) to users globally. The application must have low latency and high availability. Content changes infrequently, but when updated, the changes must be reflected immediately. Which solution should the architect recommend?

A.Store content in an S3 bucket and use Amazon CloudFront with S3 as origin
B.Store content on an EC2 instance behind an Application Load Balancer and use CloudFront
C.Store content in Amazon ElastiCache for Redis and use CloudFront
D.Store content in an S3 bucket and use S3 Transfer Acceleration
AnswerA

CloudFront provides global edge caching for low latency, and invalidations allow immediate content updates.

Why this answer

Amazon CloudFront, with an S3 bucket as the origin, provides a global content delivery network (CDN) that caches static content at edge locations, significantly reducing latency for users worldwide. S3 offers durable, highly available storage, and CloudFront’s cache invalidation or versioned object updates allow changes to be reflected immediately when content is updated. This combination meets the requirements for low latency, high availability, and immediate content refresh.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may over-engineer the solution by choosing EC2 or ElastiCache, mistakenly thinking they need compute or caching layers for static content, when S3 + CloudFront is the simplest, most cost-effective, and fully managed solution for global static content delivery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because storing static content on an EC2 instance behind an Application Load Balancer introduces unnecessary compute overhead, management complexity, and higher cost without any benefit for static content; EC2 is designed for dynamic processing, not serving static assets efficiently at global scale. Option C is wrong because Amazon ElastiCache for Redis is an in-memory cache designed for transient, high-speed data (e.g., session state, database query results), not for durable, long-term storage of static content; it lacks the persistence and origin-pull capabilities needed for a CDN origin. Option D is wrong because S3 Transfer Acceleration only speeds up uploads to an S3 bucket over long distances using AWS edge locations, but it does not cache content at edge locations for low-latency downloads; it does not provide global content distribution or high availability for serving static content to users.

46
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that will store sensitive user data in Amazon S3. The data must be encrypted at rest and in transit. The solution must use AWS managed keys and must be compliant with PCI DSS. Which combination of encryption options should be used?

A.SSE-S3 for at-rest encryption and HTTPS for in-transit encryption
B.Client-side encryption for at-rest and HTTPS for in-transit
C.SSE-KMS for at-rest encryption and HTTP for in-transit encryption
D.SSE-C for at-rest encryption and HTTPS for in-transit
AnswerA

SSE-S3 uses AWS managed keys and HTTPS is standard for in-transit.

Why this answer

SSE-S3 provides server-side encryption at rest using AWS-managed keys (S3-managed keys), which satisfies the requirement for AWS managed keys. HTTPS ensures encryption in transit, and both are compliant with PCI DSS standards for protecting sensitive data.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse SSE-KMS (which also uses AWS managed keys but adds additional control and cost) with SSE-S3, but SSE-S3 is simpler and fully compliant; the key requirement is 'AWS managed keys,' not necessarily KMS, and SSE-S3 meets that without extra overhead.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because client-side encryption does not use AWS managed keys; it uses keys managed by the client, which violates the requirement for AWS managed keys. Option C is wrong because HTTP does not provide encryption in transit, leaving data vulnerable to interception, and PCI DSS requires encrypted transmission (e.g., HTTPS/TLS). Option D is wrong because SSE-C uses customer-provided keys, not AWS managed keys, failing the requirement for AWS managed keys.

47
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that requires a relational database. The application has variable traffic, with high spikes during business hours and low traffic at night. The company wants to minimize costs while ensuring the database can handle the spikes. Which solution should the architect recommend?

A.Use Amazon RDS with Multi-AZ and read replicas, or Amazon Aurora Serverless
B.Use Amazon RDS with a Single-AZ instance and automatic scaling
C.Use Amazon DynamoDB with on-demand capacity
D.Use Amazon RDS with a Single-AZ instance and a large instance size
AnswerA

Multi-AZ provides high availability, read replicas handle read spikes, and Aurora Serverless automatically scales compute.

Why this answer

Amazon Aurora Serverless automatically scales compute capacity based on application demand, making it ideal for variable traffic with high spikes during business hours and low traffic at night, while minimizing costs by only paying for consumed resources. Multi-AZ RDS with read replicas provides high availability and read scaling but does not automatically scale compute for write spikes, so Aurora Serverless is the more cost-effective and fully managed solution for this use case.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose Multi-AZ RDS with read replicas (option A) thinking it handles spikes via read scaling, but they overlook that write spikes still require manual compute scaling, whereas Aurora Serverless is the only option that automatically scales both compute and cost for variable traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Amazon RDS does not support automatic scaling of compute resources; it only supports storage auto-scaling, so a Single-AZ instance would still require manual scaling or over-provisioning to handle spikes. Option C is wrong because DynamoDB is a NoSQL database, not a relational database, and the question explicitly requires a relational database. Option D is wrong because using a large instance size for a Single-AZ instance leads to over-provisioning and higher costs during low-traffic periods, failing to minimize costs while handling variable traffic.

48
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is building a serverless data processing pipeline using AWS Lambda, Amazon DynamoDB, and Amazon S3. The pipeline processes JSON files uploaded to an S3 bucket, transforms the data, and writes results to DynamoDB. The company wants to ensure the pipeline can handle bursts of traffic without data loss. Which TWO design decisions should the solutions architect make?

Select 2 answers
A.Configure DynamoDB with on-demand capacity mode.
B.Use an Amazon SQS queue to buffer events from S3 before processing by Lambda.
C.Increase the Lambda function timeout to 15 minutes.
D.Use DynamoDB Streams to capture changes and process in batches.
E.Enable S3 Transfer Acceleration on the bucket.
AnswersA, B

On-demand capacity automatically scales to handle bursts without throttling.

Why this answer

DynamoDB on-demand capacity mode (Option A) automatically scales read/write throughput to handle traffic spikes without requiring capacity planning or risking throttling. This is essential for a serverless pipeline that experiences bursts of traffic, as it prevents data loss by ensuring writes always succeed without ProvisionedThroughputExceededException errors.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse DynamoDB Streams with a buffering mechanism for incoming writes, when in fact streams only capture post-write changes and do not prevent data loss from S3 event delivery failures.

49
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will use Amazon S3 to store user-uploaded images. The application must enforce that all uploads are encrypted in transit and at rest. Additionally, the bucket must be configured to block all public access. Which TWO actions should be taken to meet these requirements?

Select 2 answers
A.Use server-side encryption with customer-provided keys (SSE-C).
B.Enable default encryption on the S3 bucket using SSE-S3 or SSE-KMS.
C.Use Amazon CloudFront to serve the images and enforce HTTPS.
D.Create a bucket policy that denies uploads without encryption in transit.
E.Configure the S3 Block Public Access settings to block all public access.
AnswersB, E

Default encryption ensures all objects are encrypted at rest automatically.

Why this answer

Enabling default encryption on the S3 bucket using SSE-S3 or SSE-KMS ensures that all objects stored in the bucket are encrypted at rest automatically, even if the upload request does not include encryption headers. Option E is correct because configuring the S3 Block Public Access settings to block all public access prevents any public access to the bucket and its objects, meeting the requirement to block all public access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse enforcing encryption in transit (via bucket policy condition aws:SecureTransport) with ensuring encryption at rest (via default encryption), and may overlook that Block Public Access settings are required to explicitly block all public access, even if the bucket policy seems restrictive.

50
MCQhard

A company is designing a multi-region disaster recovery solution for a critical application. The application uses Amazon RDS for MySQL with Multi-AZ in the primary region. The recovery point objective (RPO) is 5 seconds, and the recovery time objective (RTO) is 1 minute. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.Create an RDS MySQL cross-region read replica in the secondary region and promote it during a disaster.
B.Take manual snapshots of the RDS instance every 5 seconds and copy them to the secondary region.
C.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) to continuously replicate to a database in the secondary region.
D.Use Amazon Aurora Global Database with a primary instance in the primary region and one secondary in the secondary region.
AnswerD

Aurora Global Database provides low-latency replication and fast failover.

Why this answer

Amazon Aurora Global Database is the only solution that can achieve an RPO of 5 seconds and an RTO of 1 minute for a multi-region disaster recovery setup. It uses storage-based replication with typical latency under 1 second, and failover to a secondary region can be completed in about 1 minute by promoting the secondary cluster. Aurora Global Database also avoids the replication lag and promotion delays inherent in cross-region read replicas or DMS-based replication.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a cross-region read replica (Option A) can meet a 5-second RPO because MySQL replication is 'near real-time,' but in practice, replication lag is unpredictable and often exceeds 5 seconds, especially during peak loads or network issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an RDS MySQL cross-region read replica typically has replication lag of several seconds to minutes, making it impossible to guarantee a 5-second RPO, and promoting a read replica takes longer than 1 minute due to the need to stop replication and apply any pending changes. Option B is wrong because manual snapshots cannot be taken every 5 seconds (the minimum interval is 5 minutes for automated snapshots, and manual snapshots have no such frequency guarantee), and copying snapshots to another region adds significant delay, far exceeding the 5-second RPO. Option C is wrong because AWS DMS continuous replication introduces latency that often exceeds 5 seconds, and the failover process to promote the target database as the primary typically takes more than 1 minute, especially if schema changes or data consistency checks are required.

51
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new web application that will run on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The application must handle millions of requests per day. To reduce latency and offload traffic from the EC2 instances, which AWS service should be placed in front of the load balancer?

A.Amazon CloudFront
B.AWS Global Accelerator
C.AWS Shield Advanced
D.AWS WAF
AnswerA

CloudFront caches content at edge locations, reducing latency and offloading EC2 instances.

Why this answer

CloudFront is a CDN that caches content at edge locations, reducing latency and offloading traffic. Option B is wrong because Global Accelerator improves performance via AWS global network but does not cache. Option C is wrong because Shield Advanced is for DDoS protection.

Option D is wrong because WAF is a web application firewall.

52
MCQhard

A healthcare company is storing sensitive patient data in Amazon S3. The compliance team requires that all data be encrypted at rest and that the encryption keys be rotated every 90 days. Additionally, the company must maintain an audit trail of all key usage. Which solution meets these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

A.Use S3 server-side encryption with customer-provided keys (SSE-C) and implement a Lambda function to rotate keys every 90 days.
B.Use S3 server-side encryption with S3-managed keys (SSE-S3) and enable S3 server access logs.
C.Use S3 server-side encryption with AWS KMS-managed keys (SSE-KMS) and enable automatic key rotation every 90 days. Enable AWS CloudTrail for KMS key usage logging.
D.Use client-side encryption with the AWS Encryption SDK and store the keys in AWS Secrets Manager with automatic rotation.
AnswerD

Client-side encryption with the AWS Encryption SDK encrypts data before upload, ensuring at-rest encryption. Secrets Manager can store the keys and automatically rotate them every 90 days with no custom code. CloudTrail logs all Secrets Manager access, providing an audit trail of key usage. This meets all requirements with least operational overhead.

Why this answer

Meets all requirements with the least operational overhead. Client-side encryption with the AWS Encryption SDK ensures data is encrypted at rest. Keys are stored in AWS Secrets Manager, which supports automatic rotation on a custom 90-day schedule.

CloudTrail logs all Secrets Manager API calls, providing an audit trail of key usage. Option A requires custom Lambda code for rotation. Option B uses SSE-S3, which cannot be rotated on a 90-day schedule and lacks key usage audit.

Option C uses SSE-KMS, but automatic rotation for customer managed keys is fixed at 365 days, failing the 90-day requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think SSE-S3 (Option B) is sufficient because it encrypts data at rest, but they overlook the requirement for a specific 90-day rotation schedule and detailed key usage audit trail, which SSE-S3 cannot provide.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSE-C requires the customer to manage and provide encryption keys with each S3 request, and implementing a Lambda function to rotate keys every 90 days introduces significant operational overhead and does not natively provide an audit trail of key usage. Option B is wrong because SSE-S3 uses S3-managed keys that are rotated automatically by AWS but do not support customer-controlled rotation schedules (they are rotated at least annually, not every 90 days) and S3 server access logs do not provide a detailed audit trail of key usage. Option D is wrong because client-side encryption with the AWS Encryption SDK requires managing encryption logic in the application, and storing keys in Secrets Manager with automatic rotation adds complexity and operational overhead compared to a fully managed server-side solution.

53
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will use Amazon S3 to store sensitive customer data. The data must be encrypted at rest and in transit. The company also needs to ensure that only authorized users can access the data. Which three steps should the company take? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Enable S3 default encryption with SSE-KMS.
B.Use client-side encryption with a customer key.
C.Use bucket policies to restrict access based on IAM roles.
D.Configure the bucket policy to deny requests that do not use HTTPS.
E.Make the bucket publicly accessible for ease of access.
AnswersA, C, D

Encrypts data at rest with KMS-managed keys.

Why this answer

Enabling S3 default encryption with SSE-KMS ensures that all objects stored in the bucket are encrypted at rest using AWS Key Management Service (KMS) keys. This provides centralized key management, auditability via AWS CloudTrail, and the ability to enforce encryption policies without requiring client-side changes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse client-side encryption (which is not an S3-managed encryption option) with server-side encryption, or they may overlook that public access is never acceptable for sensitive data, even if other controls are in place.

54
MCQmedium

A company is designing a highly available application on AWS that uses an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in front of an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances. The application requires that the client's IP address be preserved in the application logs. The company also needs to perform SSL termination at the load balancer. How should the company configure the ALB to meet these requirements?

A.Use TCP listener on port 443 and forward to instances on port 80. Enable proxy protocol v2.
B.Use TCP listener on port 443 and forward to instances on port 443. Install SSL certificate on instances.
C.Use HTTPS listener on port 443, provide the SSL certificate, and forward to instances on port 443. Disable proxy protocol.
D.Use HTTPS listener on port 443, provide the SSL certificate, and forward to instances on port 80. Enable X-Forwarded-For header.
AnswerD

ALB terminates SSL and passes client IP via X-Forwarded-For.

Why this answer

Using an HTTPS listener on port 443 with SSL termination at the ALB allows the load balancer to decrypt traffic and forward it as HTTP on port 80. The X-Forwarded-For header is automatically added by the ALB to preserve the original client IP address in the application logs, meeting both requirements without additional configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse TCP listeners with proxy protocol v2 as the only way to preserve client IP, overlooking that HTTPS listeners automatically provide the X-Forwarded-For header for client IP preservation when SSL termination is performed at the load balancer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a TCP listener does not support SSL termination at the load balancer; it forwards encrypted traffic as-is, and proxy protocol v2 is used with TCP listeners to preserve client IP, but this does not meet the SSL termination requirement. Option B is wrong because using a TCP listener on port 443 and forwarding to instances on port 443 with SSL certificates on instances means SSL termination occurs on the instances, not at the load balancer, and client IP is not preserved without proxy protocol. Option C is wrong because forwarding HTTPS traffic on port 443 to instances on port 443 with SSL certificates on instances means SSL termination is performed on the instances, not at the load balancer, and disabling proxy protocol does not preserve the client IP via X-Forwarded-For.

55
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is designing a new database solution for a global e-commerce application. The database must support high read and write throughput with single-digit millisecond latency. The company expects traffic spikes during peak hours. Which TWO AWS services should the company consider?

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon DocumentDB (with MongoDB compatibility)
B.Amazon ElastiCache
C.Amazon DynamoDB
D.Amazon Aurora
E.Amazon RDS for MySQL
AnswersB, C

ElastiCache (Redis or Memcached) provides in-memory caching for low latency.

Why this answer

Amazon ElastiCache provides an in-memory caching layer (e.g., Redis or Memcached) that can absorb read-heavy traffic spikes with sub-millisecond latency, offloading reads from the primary database. Amazon DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL database that delivers consistent single-digit millisecond latency at any scale, supports auto-scaling for traffic spikes, and handles high write throughput via its distributed architecture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose Amazon Aurora or RDS for MySQL because they are familiar with SQL databases, but they overlook the requirement for single-digit millisecond latency and high throughput under spikes, which in-memory caching and NoSQL solutions like ElastiCache and DynamoDB are specifically designed to meet.

56
MCQhard

A company is designing a new application that will store sensitive data in Amazon S3. The data must be encrypted at rest using a key that is rotated every 90 days. The company wants to use AWS managed services to minimize operational overhead. Which encryption solution should they choose?

A.SSE-C
B.SSE-S3
C.Client-side encryption with AWS KMS
D.SSE-KMS with automatic rotation
AnswerB

SSE-S3 automatically rotates keys every 90 days with no customer management.

Why this answer

SSE-S3 (Amazon S3 managed keys) provides encryption at rest with automatic key rotation every 90 days, meeting the requirement without any operational overhead. The company wants AWS managed services to minimize operational overhead, and SSE-S3 handles key management and rotation entirely on the customer's behalf, with no configuration needed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume SSE-KMS with automatic rotation meets the 90-day requirement, but KMS automatic rotation is fixed at 365 days and cannot be changed, making SSE-S3 the only correct choice for a 90-day rotation policy with zero operational overhead.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSE-C requires the customer to manage and rotate their own encryption keys, increasing operational overhead. Option C is wrong because client-side encryption with AWS KMS requires the application to handle encryption and key management, adding complexity and operational burden. Option D is wrong because SSE-KMS with automatic rotation rotates the KMS key only annually (once per year), not every 90 days as required, and also incurs additional costs and management overhead.

57
MCQmedium

A Solutions Architect runs the AWS CLI command shown in the exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the output?

A.The command lists all instances regardless of state.
B.The command lists instances in JSON format.
C.The command lists only running instances.
D.The command fails because --query is used incorrectly.
AnswerA

The command returns all instances with their state.

Why this answer

The AWS CLI command `aws ec2 describe-instances` without any filter returns all EC2 instances in the current region, regardless of their state (running, stopped, terminated, etc.). The `--query` parameter is used correctly to extract specific fields from the JSON output, but it does not filter instances by state. Therefore, the output includes every instance, and option A is correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume `--query` filters the instances themselves (like a WHERE clause in SQL), but it only shapes the output fields—it does not reduce the set of instances returned, so without an explicit `--filters` parameter, all instances are listed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the command does not inherently list instances in JSON format; the default output format is JSON, but the user can specify other formats like text or table with the `--output` parameter, and the question does not state that JSON is forced. Option C is wrong because the command includes no filter (e.g., `--filters Name=instance-state-name,Values=running`) to limit results to running instances; it returns all instances regardless of state. Option D is wrong because `--query` is used correctly here—it applies a JMESPath expression to filter the output fields, and the syntax `Reservations[*].Instances[*].[InstanceId,State.Name]` is valid and will not cause the command to fail.

58
MCQhard

A company is deploying a serverless application using AWS Lambda. The application processes high-resolution images and stores them in Amazon S3. The processing time for each image is variable, but some images require more than 15 minutes to process. Lambda has a maximum execution time of 15 minutes. How can the company process these long-running image transformations?

A.Use AWS Step Functions to chain multiple Lambda functions, each processing a part of the image.
B.Use AWS Batch to run the image processing as a job on EC2 or Fargate.
C.Use Amazon SQS to queue the images and have Lambda poll the queue; the Lambda function can process one image per invocation.
D.Increase the Lambda timeout to 20 minutes.
AnswerB

AWS Batch can run jobs with longer execution times and can scale based on demand.

Why this answer

AWS Lambda has a hard limit of 15 minutes per invocation, so images requiring more than 15 minutes cannot be processed within a single Lambda function. AWS Batch is designed for long-running, batch-oriented compute jobs and can run on EC2 or Fargate without any time limit, making it the correct choice for processing high-resolution images that exceed Lambda's timeout.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Step Functions can extend Lambda's execution time by chaining functions, but each Lambda invocation still has a hard 15-minute limit, and Step Functions does not override that service quota.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because chaining multiple Lambda functions via Step Functions does not extend the per-invocation timeout; each individual Lambda function still has a 15-minute limit, and splitting an image into parts would require custom orchestration and state management, not a native solution for long-running tasks. Option C is wrong because using SQS to queue images does not change Lambda's maximum execution time; each Lambda invocation still cannot exceed 15 minutes, so images requiring longer processing would time out. Option D is wrong because Lambda's maximum timeout is fixed at 15 minutes (900 seconds) and cannot be increased; this is a hard AWS service limit, not a configurable parameter.

59
MCQhard

A company is designing a new solution to ingest real-time clickstream data from a website. The data volume varies from 100 to 100,000 events per second. The solution must buffer the data for up to 5 minutes and then deliver it to Amazon S3 for analysis. The company wants to minimize operational overhead and cost. Which service should be used to buffer the data?

A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
B.AWS Lambda
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
D.Amazon SQS
AnswerC

Firehose provides serverless buffering and delivery to S3.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose is the correct choice because it is a fully managed service designed to ingest streaming data, buffer it for configurable durations (up to 15 minutes by default, but easily set to 5 minutes), and automatically deliver it to destinations like Amazon S3. It handles variable data volumes (100 to 100,000 events per second) without requiring manual scaling, minimizing operational overhead and cost compared to alternatives.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Kinesis Data Streams (which requires custom consumers and scaling management) with Kinesis Data Firehose (which is purpose-built for buffering and automated delivery to S3), leading them to choose the more complex option A.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Streams requires you to manage shard provisioning and scaling to handle variable throughput, and it does not natively deliver data to S3 without additional consumers (e.g., Lambda or Firehose), increasing operational overhead and cost. Option B is wrong because AWS Lambda has a maximum execution timeout of 15 minutes and is not designed for buffering streaming data; it would require custom code to aggregate and write to S3, leading to complexity and potential data loss during bursts. Option D is wrong because Amazon SQS is a message queue with a maximum message retention of 14 days, but it does not provide built-in buffering for time-based delivery to S3; you would need additional components to poll, buffer, and write data, increasing overhead and cost.

60
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda and Amazon API Gateway. They need to authenticate users. Which TWO services can be used for authentication?

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Security Token Service
B.AWS IAM
C.Amazon SQS
D.Amazon Cognito
E.Amazon CloudFront
AnswersB, D

IAM can authenticate users via API Gateway IAM authorization.

Why this answer

AWS IAM is correct because it can be used to authenticate users by attaching IAM authorization to API Gateway, allowing the API to verify the caller's identity via AWS Signature Version 4 signing. This is commonly used for machine-to-machine or internal service calls where the caller has AWS credentials.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS STS (which issues temporary credentials) with an authentication service, or think SQS or CloudFront can handle authentication, when in fact only IAM and Cognito directly support user authentication for API Gateway in this context.

61
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new application that will store and retrieve large files (up to 5 TB). The files must be accessible via HTTPS and must be durable. Which AWS storage service should be used?

A.Amazon S3
B.Amazon EFS
C.AWS Storage Gateway
D.Amazon EBS
AnswerA

S3 is object storage with HTTPS access and high durability.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 is the correct choice because it supports objects up to 5 TB in size, provides HTTPS access via RESTful API endpoints, and offers 99.999999999% (11 nines) durability by automatically replicating data across multiple Availability Zones. S3 is purpose-built for storing and retrieving large files over the internet with high durability and scalability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse file storage (EFS) or block storage (EBS) with object storage (S3), overlooking that only S3 provides native HTTPS access and 11 nines durability for large objects without requiring an EC2 instance or additional infrastructure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Amazon EFS) is wrong because it is a file-level storage service for Linux workloads, not designed for single objects up to 5 TB (its maximum file size is 52 TB, but it lacks native HTTPS object access and is optimized for shared file systems, not direct HTTP retrieval). Option C (AWS Storage Gateway) is wrong because it is a hybrid storage service that provides on-premises access to AWS storage, not a primary storage service for direct HTTPS access to large files; it adds latency and complexity for a purely cloud-native application. Option D (Amazon EBS) is wrong because it is block-level storage attached to a single EC2 instance, cannot be accessed directly via HTTPS, and has a maximum volume size of 16 TB but requires an EC2 instance to serve files, making it unsuitable for direct object retrieval over the internet.

62
MCQeasy

A company wants to migrate an on-premises Oracle database to Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL. The migration must have minimal downtime. Which AWS service should be used for the migration?

A.AWS Server Migration Service (SMS)
B.AWS DataSync
C.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
D.AWS Snowball
AnswerC

DMS supports continuous replication.

Why this answer

AWS DMS supports ongoing replication to minimize downtime during migration.

63
MCQmedium

A company is designing a disaster recovery solution for a critical application running on EC2 with data in an Amazon RDS MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance. The recovery time objective (RTO) is 15 minutes and recovery point objective (RPO) is 1 hour. Which strategy meets these requirements?

A.Enable Multi-AZ in a different Region.
B.Create a cross-Region read replica of the RDS DB instance.
C.Take daily snapshots of the RDS DB instance and copy them to another Region.
D.Use Amazon S3 cross-Region replication for database backups.
AnswerB

Promoting a read replica can achieve RTO under 15 minutes and RPO under 1 hour.

Why this answer

A cross-Region read replica of an Amazon RDS MySQL DB instance provides asynchronous replication with a typical replication lag of seconds to minutes, meeting the RPO of 1 hour and RTO of 15 minutes by promoting the replica to a standalone instance in the event of a disaster. This approach minimizes data loss and allows rapid failover without relying on snapshot restoration or backup copying.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Multi-AZ (which is Region-bound) with cross-Region disaster recovery, or they assume daily snapshots are sufficient for a 1-hour RPO, failing to recognize that snapshot frequency must match the RPO window.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Multi-AZ in a different Region is not a supported configuration; Multi-AZ provides high availability within a single Region by synchronously replicating to a standby in a different Availability Zone, not across Regions. Option C is wrong because daily snapshots cannot achieve an RPO of 1 hour; snapshot frequency is at most once every 5 minutes, but daily snapshots would result in up to 24 hours of potential data loss, far exceeding the 1-hour RPO. Option D is wrong because Amazon S3 cross-Region replication is used for S3 objects, not for RDS database backups; RDS automated backups and manual snapshots are stored in S3, but the replication of those backups via S3 CRR does not provide the low RTO or RPO required, as it would still require restoring from a snapshot, which takes longer than 15 minutes.

64
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new application that will be deployed on AWS. The application requires a relational database with automatic failover and high availability within a single AWS region. Which database deployment option meets these requirements?

A.Amazon RDS Single-AZ deployment
B.Amazon RDS with Read Replicas
C.Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployment
D.Amazon RDS cross-region replication
AnswerC

Multi-AZ provides automatic failover and high availability within a region.

Why this answer

RDS Multi-AZ provides automatic failover and high availability within a region. Option A is wrong because Single-AZ does not provide failover. Option B is wrong because Read Replicas are for read scaling, not failover.

Option D is wrong because cross-region replication is for disaster recovery, not primary failover.

65
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a real-time analytics platform that ingests data from thousands of IoT devices. The platform must process and store high-velocity data with low latency. Which TWO AWS services should be used together to meet these requirements? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Lambda
B.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics
D.Amazon S3
E.Amazon SQS
AnswersB, C

Ingests large amounts of data from IoT devices in real time.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams is correct because it is designed to ingest and store high-velocity data streams from thousands of IoT devices with low latency, providing durable, ordered data that can be consumed in real time. Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics is correct because it can process streaming data from Kinesis Data Streams using SQL or Apache Flink to perform real-time analytics without needing to store the data first, meeting the low-latency processing requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with Amazon SQS or Amazon S3 for streaming ingestion, but SQS lacks ordered, replayable streams and S3 introduces latency, while Kinesis Data Streams is purpose-built for high-velocity, low-latency data ingestion and analytics.

66
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A solutions architect is designing a new application that requires three EC2 instances running in different Availability Zones in us-east-1. The architect runs the AWS CLI command shown and sees three instances running in three AZs. However, the application is not highly available because if one AZ fails, the application loses one-third of its capacity. The architect needs to ensure that the application can survive the loss of an entire AZ without manual intervention. What should the architect do?

A.Create a launch configuration and manually associate it with the instances.
B.Create an Auto Scaling group with a minimum size of 2 and a maximum size of 6, spread across three AZs.
C.Use EC2 Auto Recovery to automatically recover instances in case of failure.
D.Manually launch additional instances in other AZs.
AnswerB

Auto Scaling automatically replaces failed instances.

Why this answer

An Auto Scaling group with a minimum size of 2 and a maximum size of 6, spread across three Availability Zones, ensures that if one AZ fails, the Auto Scaling group automatically launches replacement instances in the remaining healthy AZs to maintain the desired capacity. This provides fault tolerance without manual intervention, as the group continuously monitors instance health and replaces failed instances across AZs.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse EC2 Auto Recovery (which recovers a single instance within the same AZ) with Auto Scaling groups (which can replace instances across multiple AZs), leading them to choose Option C even though it cannot handle an entire AZ failure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a launch configuration is a template for launching instances, not a mechanism for automatic recovery or high availability; manually associating it with instances does not provide any automated failover or replacement. Option C is wrong because EC2 Auto Recovery only recovers an individual instance within the same AZ if it becomes impaired, but it cannot handle the loss of an entire AZ or redistribute instances across other AZs. Option D is wrong because manually launching additional instances in other AZs requires human intervention and does not provide automated recovery or scaling, violating the requirement to survive an AZ failure without manual action.

67
MCQeasy

A company wants to provide temporary access to an S3 bucket for external partners. The access must be time-limited and restricted to specific objects. Which AWS service or feature should they use?

A.S3 bucket policies
B.CloudFront signed URLs
C.Presigned URLs
D.IAM roles
AnswerC

Presigned URLs grant time-limited access to specific objects.

Why this answer

Presigned URLs provide temporary, time-limited access to specific S3 objects without requiring AWS credentials. Option A (bucket policies) apply to all principals and cannot be restricted to specific users or time-limited directly. Option B (CloudFront signed URLs) are used for controlling access to content delivered via CloudFront, not for direct S3 access.

Option D (IAM roles) require the user to have AWS credentials and assume the role, which is not suitable for temporary external access.

68
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with Fargate. The services need to communicate with each other using REST APIs. The company wants to implement a service mesh to handle traffic routing, observability, and security. Which AWS service should the company use?

A.Elastic Load Balancing for internal network load balancers.
B.AWS App Mesh.
C.AWS Cloud Map for service discovery.
D.Amazon API Gateway with VPC linking.
AnswerB

App Mesh provides service mesh capabilities for ECS.

Why this answer

AWS App Mesh is a service mesh that provides application-level networking, enabling traffic routing, observability (metrics, logs, traces), and security (mTLS, authorization policies) for microservices. It integrates natively with Amazon ECS on Fargate, allowing sidecar Envoy proxies to handle inter-service communication without modifying application code.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse service discovery (Cloud Map) with a full service mesh, or assume that a load balancer (ELB) or API gateway can provide the same level of traffic routing, observability, and security for internal microservices communication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Elastic Load Balancing for internal NLB operates at Layer 4 and does not provide service mesh capabilities like traffic routing based on HTTP headers, observability with distributed tracing, or mTLS security between services. Option C is wrong because AWS Cloud Map is a service discovery tool that registers service instances and provides DNS-based or API-based resolution, but it does not handle traffic routing, observability, or security policies required for a service mesh. Option D is wrong because Amazon API Gateway with VPC linking is designed for external API management and routing to backend services, not for internal service-to-service communication within a microservices mesh, and it lacks the sidecar proxy model and fine-grained traffic control of a service mesh.

69
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should be considered when designing a global application that requires low-latency access to static content and dynamic API responses?

Select 3 answers
A.Use VPC peering between all Regions to reduce latency.
B.Use Amazon CloudFront with multiple origins for static and dynamic content.
C.Use AWS Direct Connect for global connectivity.
D.Deploy application in multiple AWS Regions and use Route 53 latency-based routing.
E.Use AWS Global Accelerator for dynamic content.
AnswersB, D, E

Amazon CloudFront caches static content at edge locations and can route dynamic requests to the optimal origin, reducing latency for both types of content.

Why this answer

Amazon CloudFront provides edge caching for static content and can route dynamic requests to the nearest origin. AWS Global Accelerator improves performance for dynamic content via anycast IP. Multi-Region deployment with Route 53 latency routing reduces latency.

VPC peering (A) is for private networking between VPCs, not global content delivery. Direct Connect (C) provides dedicated private connectivity but does not optimize global latency for content delivery.

70
MCQhard

A company is designing a serverless data processing pipeline that uses AWS Lambda to process messages from Amazon SQS. Each message requires 5 minutes of processing time. The company expects a steady state of 1,000 messages per second. What is the MOST scalable and cost-effective design?

A.Deploy an Amazon ECS service with Fargate that polls the SQS queue. Use an SQS queue with long polling and auto scaling based on queue depth.
B.Use an SQS queue and a Lambda function that processes messages in batches. Set the Lambda function timeout to 15 minutes and use reserved concurrency.
C.Use an Amazon MQ broker with ActiveMQ and configure a Lambda function to consume messages from a queue.
D.Configure an SQS queue with a Lambda trigger. Set the Lambda function timeout to 5 minutes and the batch size to 1.
AnswerA

ECS can scale to thousands of tasks, each handling one message for 5 minutes, cost-effective and scalable.

Why this answer

Amazon ECS with Fargate provides a fully managed, serverless compute environment that can handle long-running tasks (5 minutes per message) without the 15-minute Lambda timeout limit. By using long polling and auto scaling based on queue depth, the solution scales cost-effectively to process 1,000 messages per second, as Fargate tasks can run indefinitely and scale horizontally to match the workload.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Lambda is always the best serverless choice, but for long-running, high-throughput tasks (5 minutes per message at 1,000 msg/s), Lambda's 15-minute timeout, concurrency limits, and per-invocation cost make Fargate a more scalable and cost-effective option.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Lambda has a maximum execution timeout of 15 minutes, but each message requires 5 minutes of processing time; however, the real issue is that Lambda is not designed for sustained high-throughput, long-running tasks—it scales quickly but can hit concurrency limits and is less cost-effective for continuous 5-minute executions compared to Fargate. Option C is wrong because Amazon MQ (ActiveMQ) is a managed message broker that is not serverless and incurs fixed infrastructure costs, making it less scalable and cost-effective than SQS for this high-volume, steady-state workload. Option D is wrong because Lambda triggers from SQS have a maximum invocation timeout of 15 minutes (which is fine for 5-minute messages), but the batch size of 1 and the need to process 1,000 messages per second would require massive Lambda concurrency, quickly exhausting account limits and driving up costs due to per-invocation billing, making it less scalable and cost-effective than Fargate.

71
MCQhard

A financial services company is designing a new system on AWS to process real-time stock trades. The system must handle up to 10,000 trades per second with end-to-end latency under 500 milliseconds. Trades are ingested via REST API, validated, enriched with market data, and stored in a database for regulatory compliance. The architecture must be highly available across three Availability Zones. The company wants to use AWS managed services to minimize operational overhead. Which solution should a Solutions Architect recommend?

A.Use Network Load Balancer to distribute trade requests to a fleet of EC2 instances running a custom Java application. The application processes trades and writes to Amazon RDS for MySQL with Multi-AZ.
B.Use Amazon API Gateway to ingest trades, publish to an SNS topic, subscribe an SQS queue and a Lambda function. Lambda validates and enriches, then stores in DynamoDB.
C.Use Amazon API Gateway to ingest trades, send to an SQS FIFO queue for ordered processing, trigger an AWS Lambda function for validation and enrichment, and store in DynamoDB.
D.Use Amazon API Gateway to ingest trades, send to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams for buffering, use AWS Lambda to process in parallel, and store results in DynamoDB with on-demand capacity.
AnswerD

Kinesis can handle high throughput, Lambda scales automatically, DynamoDB provides low-latency storage.

Why this answer

It uses Amazon API Gateway for ingestion, Kinesis Data Streams for durable buffering and scalability (handles up to 10,000 tps by adding shards), AWS Lambda for stateless validation/enrichment (auto-scales with Kinesis), and DynamoDB with on-demand capacity for low-latency storage (millisecond response). This combination provides high availability across three AZs with minimal operational overhead. Option A is wrong because managing EC2 instances and RDS Multi-AZ adds operational overhead and slower scaling compared to serverless services.

Option B is wrong because SNS does not provide a persistent buffer; if the Lambda subscriber is unavailable or throttled, messages can be lost, and ordering is not guaranteed. Option C is wrong because SQS FIFO queues have a maximum throughput of 3,000 tps (with batching) or 300 tps (without), which is insufficient for 10,000 tps. Additionally, Kinesis Data Streams is better suited for real-time streaming at high throughput.

72
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a hybrid cloud solution that extends its on-premises data center to AWS. The company has a 10 Gbps AWS Direct Connect connection and needs to securely connect multiple VPCs and on-premises networks with transitive routing. The solution must be highly available and use AWS managed services. Which TWO components should the company include in the design? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Global Accelerator endpoints in each VPC.
B.AWS Transit Gateway with attachments for each VPC and the Direct Connect Gateway.
C.AWS Site-to-Site VPN connections from on-premises to each VPC.
D.VPC peering between each VPC and the on-premises network.
E.AWS Direct Connect Gateway attached to the Transit Gateway.
AnswersB, E

Transit Gateway enables transitive routing and central management.

Why this answer

AWS Transit Gateway provides transitive routing between multiple VPCs and on-premises networks, eliminating the need for complex peering meshes. Option E is correct because attaching a Direct Connect Gateway to the Transit Gateway allows the single 10 Gbps Direct Connect connection to be shared across all attached VPCs, enabling centralized, highly available connectivity.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse VPC peering with transitive routing, or assume that Direct Connect alone provides transitive connectivity, but neither VPC peering nor a standalone Direct Connect connection offers the transitive routing required for a multi-VPC hybrid architecture.

73
MCQmedium

A company runs a web application on EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer. The application experiences sudden traffic spikes. What is the most effective way to ensure the application can handle the spikes without manual intervention?

A.Use a target tracking scaling policy based on average CPU utilization.
B.Increase the instance size to handle more load per instance.
C.Manually increase the desired capacity when traffic spikes.
D.Use scheduled scaling to add instances at expected peak times.
AnswerA

Target tracking automatically adjusts capacity to maintain a target metric, handling spikes.

Why this answer

A target tracking scaling policy based on average CPU utilization is the most effective approach because it automatically adjusts the Auto Scaling group's desired capacity in real-time to maintain a target CPU metric (e.g., 50%). This dynamic scaling method responds directly to sudden traffic spikes without any manual intervention, ensuring the application can handle increased load while optimizing cost.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse scheduled scaling (which works only for predictable patterns) with dynamic scaling (which reacts to real-time metrics), leading them to choose D instead of A for handling sudden, unplanned traffic spikes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because increasing the instance size (vertical scaling) is a manual, one-time change that does not automatically handle sudden traffic spikes; it also introduces a single point of failure and does not leverage the elasticity of Auto Scaling. Option C is wrong because manually increasing the desired capacity when traffic spikes requires human intervention and real-time monitoring, which defeats the purpose of automated scaling and can lead to delays or errors during spikes. Option D is wrong because scheduled scaling is designed for predictable traffic patterns (e.g., time-of-day peaks) and cannot react to sudden, unplanned traffic spikes; it would either over-provision or under-provision during unexpected events.

74
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new application that will process sensitive financial transactions. The application must be deployed in a VPC with no public internet access. The application needs to send logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs and store files in Amazon S3. Which set of actions should be taken to meet these requirements without allowing internet access?

A.Create a Gateway VPC endpoint for S3 and an Interface VPC endpoint for CloudWatch Logs
B.Place the application behind a public Application Load Balancer
C.Set up a NAT gateway in a public subnet and route traffic through it
D.Use AWS PrivateLink to connect to CloudWatch Logs and S3
AnswerA

Gateway endpoints for S3 and Interface endpoints for CloudWatch Logs provide private connectivity within the VPC, no internet required.

Why this answer

A Gateway VPC endpoint for S3 allows private connectivity to S3 without traversing the internet, using route table entries. An Interface VPC endpoint for CloudWatch Logs, powered by AWS PrivateLink, enables private HTTPS connections to the CloudWatch Logs API without requiring a NAT gateway or internet gateway. Together, these endpoints satisfy the requirement for a VPC with no public internet access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume AWS PrivateLink can be used for both S3 and CloudWatch Logs uniformly, but S3 primarily uses Gateway VPC endpoints (not Interface endpoints) for private access, and PrivateLink is the mechanism for Interface endpoints only.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because placing the application behind a public Application Load Balancer requires the ALB to have public internet access, which violates the 'no public internet access' requirement. Option C is wrong because a NAT gateway in a public subnet still requires an internet gateway for outbound traffic, and the application would need a route to the NAT gateway, which ultimately uses the internet; this does not meet the 'no internet access' condition. Option D is wrong because AWS PrivateLink is the underlying technology for Interface VPC endpoints, but it cannot be used directly for S3; S3 requires a Gateway VPC endpoint (or an Interface endpoint with a different configuration), and PrivateLink alone does not provide the correct connectivity for S3 without additional setup.

75
MCQeasy

A startup is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda. They need to securely store and retrieve database credentials without hardcoding them in the function code. Which AWS service should they use?

A.Amazon DynamoDB
B.AWS Secrets Manager
C.AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D.AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
AnswerB

Secrets Manager is the best choice for managing secrets with automatic rotation.

Why this answer

AWS Secrets Manager is the correct choice because it is purpose-built for securely storing, rotating, and retrieving database credentials and other secrets throughout their lifecycle. It integrates natively with Lambda via the AWS SDK, allowing retrieval of credentials at runtime without hardcoding, and supports automatic rotation of secrets for supported databases like Amazon RDS.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store with Secrets Manager because both can store secrets, but Parameter Store lacks native automatic rotation and is not designed as a full lifecycle secrets management service, making Secrets Manager the correct answer for database credential rotation requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon DynamoDB is a NoSQL database service designed for storing application data, not for securely managing secrets; storing credentials in DynamoDB would require you to manage encryption and access control manually, and it lacks built-in secret rotation. Option C is wrong because AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) is used for managing permissions and access to AWS resources, not for storing secrets; while IAM roles can grant Lambda permissions to access Secrets Manager, IAM itself cannot store or retrieve credential values. Option D is wrong because AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store can store secrets as SecureString parameters, but it does not natively support automatic rotation of database credentials, which is a key requirement for securely managing credentials over time.

Page 1 of 7 · 487 questions totalNext →

Ready to test yourself?

Try a timed practice session using only Design for New Solutions questions.