Courseiva

(ISC)2 Information Systems Security Engineering Professional (CISSP-ISSEP, Aug 2025 blueprint) (ISC) (ISC) — Questions 175

209 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

Page 1 of 3

Page 2
1
MCQhard

When mapping security requirements from ISO/IEC 27001 to a cloud-native architecture, you are configuring Azure Policy to ensure all newly created storage accounts have 'Secure transfer required' enabled. What is the most efficient way to achieve this enforcement?

A.Configure Microsoft Defender for Cloud to trigger an alert on insecure storage.
B.Create an Azure Policy assignment with a 'Deny' effect for the 'Storage account secure transfer' definition.
C.Set up a Logic App to delete non-compliant storage accounts.
D.Use Azure Blueprint to deploy a hardened ARM template.
AnswerB

The 'Deny' effect prevents the creation of any storage account that does not meet the specified security criteria.

Why this answer

Azure Policy is the native tool for policy enforcement; 'DeployIfNotExists' or 'Deny' effects prevent non-compliant resources from existing.

2
Multi-Selecthard

A security engineer is validating a server's hardening posture against CIS Benchmarks. Which TWO of the following configurations must be verified for the SSH service?

Select 2 answers
A.Configuring the service to use only the RSA algorithm.
B.Enabling 'AllowTcpForwarding' for all users.
C.Setting the default port to 8080.
D.Verifying that 'PermitEmptyPasswords' is set to 'no'.
E.Ensuring 'Protocol' is set to 2.
AnswersD, E

Empty passwords present a trivial security risk.

Why this answer

Hardening SSH requires disabling insecure protocols and authentication methods.

3
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions should be taken when decommissioning an information system to ensure data security?

Select 3 answers
A.Archive all data to a public cloud bucket.
B.Remove the system from the network and inventory.
C.Sanitize or destroy the storage media.
D.Update the organizational asset inventory.
E.Format the hard drive as a quick process.
AnswersB, C, D

Ensures no lingering access or ghost assets.

Why this answer

Clearing or purging the storage media, destroying the media if necessary, and auditing the decommissioning logs are key steps.

4
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors are essential when performing a threat model using the STRIDE methodology?

Select 3 answers
A.Conducting a public relations campaign.
B.Automating the software build process.
C.Designing effective security countermeasures.
D.Identifying potential STRIDE categories for each component.
E.Mapping threats to system components.
AnswersC, D, E

Threat modeling is useless without remediation planning.

Why this answer

STRIDE (Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege) requires identifying threats, mapping them to system components, and planning countermeasures.

5
MCQhard

You are managing a change request in ServiceNow. To ensure compliance with the RFC process for a security patch, which state transition is mandatory before implementation?

A.Transition to Standard
B.Transition to Assess
C.Transition to Closed
D.Transition to New
AnswerB

The Assess phase confirms the impact and security risk approval by the CAB.

Why this answer

The 'Assess' state in ServiceNow involves the Change Advisory Board (CAB) review, which is a mandatory control gate for security-critical changes.

6
MCQhard

When designing for 'System Survivability', what is the most critical engineering principle to incorporate?

A.Maximal feature set
B.Hardware redundancy only
C.Graceful degradation
D.Complete system lockdown upon error
AnswerC

Ensures the system continues to work at a base level under duress.

Why this answer

Graceful degradation ensures that the system maintains critical functionality even when non-critical components fail or are compromised.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO security standards are most relevant for an ISSEP designing a secure payment processing system?

Select 2 answers
A.HIPAA.
B.GDPR.
C.ISO/IEC 27001.
D.PCI DSS.
E.OSHA.
AnswersC, D

The global standard for information security management.

Why this answer

PCI DSS is the mandatory standard for payment processing, and ISO 27001 is a foundational security management framework.

8
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when an ISSEP identifies a high-risk vulnerability in a system that is currently in production?

A.Ignore the vulnerability until the next scheduled maintenance window.
B.Immediately shut down the system.
C.Fix the vulnerability immediately without informing anyone.
D.Document the vulnerability in the POA&M and coordinate a remediation plan with the system owner.
AnswerD

This is the standard RMF process for managing identified vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

The ISSEP must report the vulnerability to the system owner and the authorization official, then document it in the POA&M to track its remediation while managing the risk in the interim.

9
Multi-Selecthard

An ISSEP is assessing the security of a CI/CD pipeline. Which THREE of the following practices are crucial to ensure the security of the software supply chain?

Select 3 answers
A.Automated scanning of open-source dependencies for known vulnerabilities (SCA).
B.Ensuring all developers have administrative access to the production environment.
C.Allowing all developers to push directly to the production branch.
D.Digital signing of all build artifacts to ensure provenance and integrity.
E.Hardening the CI/CD build servers and restricting access.
AnswersA, D, E

Dependency management is critical in modern software development.

Why this answer

Securing the supply chain requires verifying code, managing dependencies, and ensuring that the build environment itself is hardened against tampering.

10
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE activities are included in the 'Risk Management Framework' (RMF) step 'Assess'?

Select 3 answers
A.Conducting the security control assessment
B.Determine the scope of the assessment
C.Developing the Security Assessment Report (SAR)
D.Authorizing the system for operation
E.Disposing of the system components
AnswersA, B, C

This is the core activity of the Assess step.

Why this answer

The Assess step focuses on determining the effectiveness of the security controls implemented in the system.

11
MCQhard

You are performing a security validation of a database to ensure that all administrative actions are captured. Which feature must be checked to confirm that logging is capturing these events?

A.Database connection pool settings
B.Database backup settings
C.Audit Policy configuration
D.Database user permissions
AnswerC

The audit policy defines which events, including administrative actions, are logged.

Why this answer

Database auditing policies define what actions are tracked; verifying the active policy is key.

12
MCQhard

You are assessing a system that uses 'Homomorphic Encryption' for data processing. What is the primary operational trade-off the system designer must consider?

A.Increased security of data at rest.
B.Significant computational overhead and latency.
C.Incompatibility with standard database engines.
D.Complexity of key management.
AnswerB

This is the primary known limitation of currently available homomorphic encryption schemes.

Why this answer

Homomorphic encryption allows computation on encrypted data, but it is extremely resource-intensive, resulting in significant latency and performance overhead compared to processing unencrypted data.

13
MCQeasy

An organization is deploying a serverless architecture (AWS Lambda). How does the risk of patch management change compared to a traditional IaaS model?

A.Patch management of the underlying host OS is handled by the cloud provider.
B.Patch management complexity increases due to the number of functions.
C.The user must now use a specialized patching tool for the serverless platform.
D.The user is no longer responsible for any patching.
AnswerA

This is the primary security advantage of serverless computing architectures.

Why this answer

In serverless, the provider manages the underlying operating system and runtime patches, shifting the responsibility of patch management from the user to the provider, though the user still remains responsible for their code and configuration.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

When applying NIST SP 800-160 Systems Security Engineering principles, which THREE activities are critical during the 'System Design' phase to ensure confidentiality and integrity?

Select 3 answers
A.Developing incident response plans
B.Identifying security-relevant system components
C.Specifying security-enforcing interfaces
D.Performing final penetration testing
E.Defining system trust boundaries
AnswersB, C, E

Identifying components helps focus security controls where they are most needed.

Why this answer

System design involves defining architectural components, securing interfaces, and establishing trust boundaries.

15
MCQhard

A system uses SAML 2.0 for SSO. To prevent SAML assertion tampering, what is the mandatory cryptographic requirement?

A.The IdP must digitally sign the SAML assertion.
B.Use a shared secret between the IdP and SP.
C.Use HTTPS with TLS 1.3 for transport.
D.The Service Provider must encrypt the assertion.
AnswerA

Digital signatures are required to prevent tampering.

Why this answer

SAML assertions must be digitally signed by the Identity Provider (IdP) to ensure integrity and authenticity.

16
MCQmedium

During a cloud security audit, you need to verify that IAM users do not have overly permissive policies. Which AWS feature provides automated validation of IAM policy adherence to least privilege?

A.AWS Security Hub
B.AWS CloudTrail
C.AWS Trusted Advisor
D.AWS IAM Access Analyzer
AnswerD

Access Analyzer validates that policies conform to security best practices and least privilege.

Why this answer

IAM Access Analyzer helps identify policies that provide public or cross-account access, a key part of validation.

17
MCQeasy

When applying NIST SP 800-53 controls to a new information system, which step occurs immediately after the 'Categorize' process in the RMF?

A.Implement security and privacy controls.
B.Monitor security and privacy controls.
C.Assess security and privacy controls.
D.Select security and privacy controls.
AnswerD

Control selection is the direct next step after defining the system impact level.

Why this answer

The RMF sequence is: Categorize, Select, Implement, Assess, Authorize, Monitor. Selecting controls follows categorization.

18
MCQmedium

In a Kubernetes environment, you are updating a security sidecar container. Which deployment strategy ensures zero downtime while maintaining security posture?

A.Recreate
B.Canary Release
C.Blue/Green Deployment
D.RollingUpdate
AnswerD

RollingUpdate replaces pods gradually, maintaining service availability.

Why this answer

Rolling updates allow for updating pods incrementally, ensuring the security sidecar is active throughout the transition.

19
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is conducting a gap analysis between a legacy system and ISO/IEC 27001 requirements. The system lacks automated audit logging. Which control implementation is most effective for meeting the 'Logging and Monitoring' requirements?

A.Implement centralized log aggregation using a SIEM solution with automated alerting.
B.Redirect all logs to a local write-only file system on each server.
C.Disable unnecessary services to reduce the attack surface.
D.Require manual review of system event logs by administrators weekly.
AnswerA

This satisfies the requirement for monitoring and auditability in ISO 27001.

Why this answer

Centralized log management (like a SIEM) allows for aggregation, alerting, and forensic analysis, which is fundamental to ISO 27001 compliance.

20
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE elements are essential in a Change Management policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Hardware shipping methods
B.Requirements for audit logging and evidence collection
C.Defined roles and responsibilities
D.A standard process flow for change requests
E.Instructions on how to write code
AnswersB, C, D

Essential for compliance and accountability.

Why this answer

A robust policy requires defined roles, a clear process flow, and mandatory audit logging to ensure accountability and compliance.

21
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are recognized categories of security controls in NIST SP 800-53?

Select 3 answers
A.Operational.
B.Physical.
C.Financial.
D.Technical.
E.Management.
AnswersA, D, E

One of the three core NIST categories.

Why this answer

The three control categories are Management, Operational, and Technical.

22
MCQmedium

In the context of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which function is specifically supported by the 'Systems Security Engineering' process during the 'Identify' stage?

A.Risk Assessment (ID.RA)
B.Recovery Planning (RC.RP)
C.Access Control (PR.AC)
D.Detection Processes (DE.DP)
AnswerA

Systems engineering provides the data necessary to perform accurate risk assessments.

Why this answer

Systems Engineering identifies assets and risks, which aligns with the 'Identify' function in the NIST CSF.

23
MCQeasy

Which principle suggests that the security of a system should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation?

A.Fail-safe defaults
B.Security through obscurity
C.Kerckhoffs's Principle
D.Least privilege
AnswerC

This principle mandates that security resides in the keys, not the design.

Why this answer

Kerckhoffs's Principle (or Shannon's Maxim) states that a system should be secure even if everything about it is known, except for the keys.

24
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be included in a system's security architecture documentation?

Select 2 answers
A.Network topology diagrams.
B.Marketing brochures for the software.
C.Office building blueprints.
D.Data flow diagrams.
E.Employee vacation schedules.
AnswersA, D

Critical for identifying security boundaries.

Why this answer

Network diagrams and data flow diagrams are essential for understanding the security posture of a system.

25
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be included in a 'Security Requirements Traceability Matrix' (SRTM) to ensure comprehensive engineering coverage?

Select 2 answers
A.The vendor contact information
B.The employee performance review score
C.The corresponding system component or design element
D.The marketing department's sales forecast
E.The source of the security requirement
AnswersC, E

This shows where the requirement is implemented.

Why this answer

An SRTM maps requirements to design elements and test cases to ensure no security requirement is overlooked.

26
MCQhard

You are assessing an Engineered System that utilizes a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) for secure boot. A scan reveals that the firmware version is outdated and susceptible to a known key-injection vulnerability. Which action should the ISSEP prioritize?

A.Update the security policy to include manual verification of boot logs.
B.Configure an IDS to block unauthorized firmware update attempts.
C.Disable TPM-based secure boot until the vendor releases a patch.
D.Perform a firmware update using the manufacturer's signed secure update process.
AnswerD

Firmware updates are the only way to patch hardware-level vulnerabilities in the TPM/secure boot mechanism.

Why this answer

Firmware vulnerabilities involving the TPM and secure boot chain represent a fundamental compromise of the root of trust. Remediation must prioritize the update of the firmware to restore the integrity of the secure boot sequence.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items should be included in an Incident Response (IR) plan for an information system?

Select 3 answers
A.Communication and notification procedures.
B.The history of the company logo.
C.Roles and responsibilities of the IR team.
D.The CEO's personal home phone number.
E.Procedures for incident detection and analysis.
AnswersA, C, E

Essential for coordination with stakeholders.

Why this answer

An IR plan must include roles and responsibilities, specific procedures for different attack types, and communication/reporting protocols.

28
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE strategies are used to mitigate risk during a production software change?

Select 3 answers
A.Increasing the system clock speed
B.Phased rollout (canary deployment)
C.Sending a company-wide email notification
D.Automated rollback procedures
E.Pre-change backup of production configuration
AnswersB, D, E

Limits the blast radius by testing in a small subset first.

Why this answer

Phased rollouts, automated rollback, and canary testing are standard industry practices to limit the blast radius of a failed change.

29
MCQeasy

During a risk assessment of an industrial control system (ICS), the engineer identifies that an administrative workstation shares the same VLAN as the PLC network. Which remediation action is most effective from a risk management perspective?

A.Require MFA for workstation access.
B.Implement VLAN segmentation to isolate the workstation from the PLC network.
C.Install an antivirus on the workstation.
D.Disable all unused ports on the PLC network switch.
AnswerB

VLAN segmentation creates a logical boundary that prevents direct access and lateral movement.

Why this answer

Network segmentation, particularly by isolating critical control devices from general-purpose administrative workstations, is a foundational risk mitigation strategy in ICS security.

30
Multi-Selecteasy

You are validating the security of a database system. Which THREE of the following are standard verification steps for database security?

Select 3 answers
A.Disabling all backups to ensure the database remains small.
B.Checking that the audit logging mechanism is active.
C.Confirming that encryption is enabled for data at rest.
D.Ensuring the database is configured to accept all remote connections.
E.Verifying that default passwords for built-in accounts have been changed.
AnswersB, C, E

Audit logs are required to detect and investigate suspicious database activities.

Why this answer

Database security verification includes reviewing access controls, encryption, and audit settings.

31
MCQmedium

When designing high-availability systems, what is the primary security engineering concern regarding 'Fail-over' mechanisms?

A.Fail-over systems are too expensive
B.The fail-over process might be too slow
C.Fail-over systems use too much power
D.Fail-over systems can introduce insecure states or bypasses
AnswerD

Security must be maintained even during transitions.

Why this answer

Fail-over mechanisms often create race conditions or temporary bypasses that attackers can exploit to gain unauthorized access.

32
MCQhard

During a system migration, you need to ensure integrity of transferred data. What is the best cryptographic method?

A.Use TLS 1.0.
B.Use a simple CRC32 checksum.
C.Use HMAC for the data stream.
D.Use base64 encoding.
AnswerC

HMAC verifies the integrity and sender authenticity.

Why this answer

Using HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code) with a shared key ensures both integrity and authenticity of the data stream.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are considered 'Common Criteria' (ISO/IEC 15408) elements for evaluating the security functionality of a product?

Select 3 answers
A.Sales and Marketing Specification
B.Protection Profile (PP)
C.Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL)
D.Employee Training Records
E.Security Target (ST)
AnswersB, C, E

The PP defines the security requirements for a category of products.

Why this answer

Common Criteria uses Protection Profiles and Security Targets to define and evaluate security requirements.

34
MCQeasy

You are verifying that a specific file on a server has not been modified. Which tool or command is most appropriate for verifying file integrity?

A.cat <filename>
B.grep 'modified' <filename>
C.ls -l
D.sha256sum
AnswerD

Calculating the SHA-256 hash and comparing it to a known-good value is the standard integrity verification method.

Why this answer

Hashing is the standard method for verifying that a file has not been altered.

35
MCQmedium

You are performing an audit of a new system's 'Trusted Computing Base' (TCB). Which observation would indicate a violation of the 'Separation of Duties' principle?

A.The administrator configures the firewall rules
B.Two administrators are required for root access
C.The same person who requests a system access change also approves it
D.The security team monitors logs
AnswerC

This is a direct violation of separation of duties.

Why this answer

Separation of Duties ensures that no single individual has the authority to perform all steps of a critical security task.

36
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is performing a system-level risk assessment on a cloud-native architecture using the NIST SP 800-37 RMF. During the 'Assess' step, the engineer identifies that an automated security configuration baseline is missing for the container orchestration layer. What is the most appropriate action to maintain RMF compliance?

A.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) to include the missing controls and implement the baseline via Infrastructure-as-Code (IaC) templates.
B.Modify the Security Assessment Plan (SAP) to exclude the container layer from the current assessment scope.
C.Proceed to authorization and defer the container baseline to the next Continuous Monitoring cycle.
D.Request a waiver from the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for container orchestration security.
AnswerA

Updating documentation and implementing automated configuration management is the correct RMF workflow for remediation.

Why this answer

The RMF requires that security controls be implemented and documented. Identifying a missing baseline during the assessment phase necessitates updating the System Security Plan (SSP) and verifying the implementation of baseline controls before proceeding to the 'Authorize' step.

37
MCQhard

When designing a secure multi-tenant cloud application, what is the best way to ensure tenant data isolation?

A.Use a single global admin account for all tenants.
B.Implement row-level security (RLS) in the database for each tenant.
C.Rely on application-level filtering.
D.Use a shared database with a common schema for all tenants.
AnswerB

RLS is a robust logical control for tenant isolation.

Why this answer

Row-level security (RLS) within a database or using separate database instances per tenant ensures that one tenant cannot access another's data.

38
MCQmedium

When conducting a security impact analysis for a system change in a Federal environment, what is the primary purpose of reviewing the FIPS 199 categorization?

A.To calculate the budget
B.To verify physical location
C.To update the system inventory
D.To determine if the security controls need re-evaluation
AnswerD

The impact level dictates the testing and assessment rigor for the change.

Why this answer

FIPS 199 defines the impact level (Low, Moderate, High), which dictates the rigor of the change management testing requirements.

39
MCQeasy

You are verifying that a firewall rule correctly blocks traffic from an unauthorized network. Which tool is best suited for testing this connectivity?

A.nmap -p 80 <target_ip>
B.nslookup <target_ip>
C.netstat -an
D.ipconfig /all
AnswerA

Nmap allows you to probe a target and confirm if the firewall is effectively filtering the port.

Why this answer

Nmap is a standard network scanning tool used to verify that specific ports are blocked or filtered.

40
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE security-relevant criteria should be assessed when evaluating a cloud service provider (CSP)?

Select 3 answers
A.SOC 2 Type II or equivalent audit reports
B.Data isolation capabilities between tenants
C.Employee cafeteria menu
D.Physical and logical access controls
E.Office interior design plans
AnswersA, B, D

These reports provide independent validation of CSP security.

Why this answer

Assessing a CSP involves reviewing their security certifications, physical controls, and logical security isolation capabilities.

41
Multi-Selecthard

As part of an accreditation process, you are validating that the system meets NIST 800-53 requirements for incident response. Which THREE items must be present in the verification evidence?

Select 3 answers
A.The physical security badge access logs for the entire building.
B.A list of all employees' home addresses.
C.Records of periodic incident response training/exercises.
D.Logs of past incident response simulations or drills.
E.Documented incident response plan.
AnswersC, D, E

Training ensures that the team knows how to execute the plan.

Why this answer

NIST 800-53 requires documented procedures, staff training, and test results for incident response validation.

42
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is evaluating the risk of an API that uses basic authentication over HTTP. What is the most significant risk, and how should it be mitigated?

A.Denial of Service (DoS); mitigate by using a WAF.
B.API rate limiting; mitigate by adding a rate limiter.
C.Unauthorized data access; mitigate by using OAuth 2.0.
D.Credential interception; mitigate by upgrading to HTTPS/TLS.
AnswerD

HTTPS encrypts the communication channel, protecting the credentials.

Why this answer

Basic authentication sends credentials in cleartext; HTTP does not provide encryption. The risk is credential interception, and it must be mitigated by upgrading to HTTPS (TLS).

43
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions should be included in a secure decommissioning process for a physical server?

Select 2 answers
A.Sanitizing all storage media according to NIST 800-88
B.Exporting the full system logs to a public folder
C.Removing the server from the asset inventory
D.Changing the BIOS password
E.Reformatting the drive with FAT32
AnswersA, C

This is the primary method for preventing data recovery.

Why this answer

Inventory management and secure media sanitization are critical to preventing data leakage during decommissioning.

44
Multi-Selectmedium

When architecting a system to meet ISO 27001 requirements for secure system engineering, which TWO of the following design principles should be prioritized for protecting sensitive data at rest?

Select 2 answers
A.Enforcing strict access control policies for data access.
B.Implementing strong encryption for data storage.
C.Hosting all data on a single centralized server to simplify management.
D.Using a single administrative account for all data operations.
E.Disabling all logging to reduce storage overhead.
AnswersA, B

Essential for ensuring only authorized personnel access data.

Why this answer

Encryption and access control (least privilege) are fundamental controls required by ISO 27001 for data protection.

45
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items should be included in a thorough 'System Security Plan' (SSP)?

Select 3 answers
A.System boundary description
B.Office breakroom rules
C.Risk assessment findings
D.List of security controls and their implementation status
E.Personal employee salary data
AnswersA, C, D

Defining the boundary is essential for scoping security.

Why this answer

An SSP describes the system, its security boundaries, the controls applied, and the risk management strategy.

46
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are essential for protecting against 'Man-in-the-Middle' (MitM) attacks in a service-oriented architecture?

Select 3 answers
A.Storing all credentials in a plain-text configuration file.
B.Disabling all firewall rules between services to ensure performance.
C.Implementing certificate pinning to prevent the use of fraudulent certificates.
D.Enforcing mandatory TLS 1.3 for all service-to-service communication.
E.Using mutual authentication (mTLS) to verify both the client and server.
AnswersC, D, E

Pinning ensures that the client only accepts the expected server certificate.

Why this answer

MitM protection requires ensuring that the communication channel is encrypted (TLS), that the identity of the communicating parties is verified (mutual authentication), and that the certificate chain is trusted.

47
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is evaluating the security of an API gateway. To implement OAuth 2.0 effectively, which flow should be recommended for a native mobile application?

A.Authorization Code Flow with PKCE.
B.Client Credentials Flow.
C.Resource Owner Password Credentials Flow.
D.Implicit Flow.
AnswerA

PKCE provides the necessary security for public clients like mobile apps.

Why this answer

The Authorization Code Flow with PKCE (Proof Key for Code Exchange) is the industry-standard security best practice for mobile applications to prevent authorization code interception.

48
Multi-Selecthard

When validating a server's security implementation, which THREE of the following log files or directories should be reviewed to check for unauthorized activity?

Select 3 answers
A./tmp/
B./var/log/syslog
C./var/log/auth.log
D./home/
E./var/log/secure
AnswersB, C, E

The syslog contains general system-wide messages that are crucial for spotting anomalies.

Why this answer

On Linux, the /var/log/ directory contains critical logs for security verification.

49
Multi-Selectmedium

You are validating the security implementation of a wireless network. Which THREE of the following are necessary to verify that WPA3 is properly configured?

Select 3 answers
A.Ensure that CCMP-128 is the only cipher suite enabled.
B.Check that the network is configured to use AES-GCMP encryption.
C.Verify that Management Frame Protection (MFP) is mandatory.
D.Enable support for WEP as a fallback for older devices.
E.Confirm that SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) is enabled.
AnswersB, C, E

GCMP is a required cipher mode for WPA3 security.

Why this answer

WPA3 validation focuses on encryption, authentication method, and management frame protection.

50
Multi-Selectmedium

As part of validating a cloud environment's security, you need to ensure the network boundary is protected. Which THREE of the following are valid verification tasks?

Select 3 answers
A.Verify that Security Groups follow the principle of least privilege.
B.Audit VPC Network Access Control List (NACL) rules.
C.Configure the VPC to allow all inbound traffic from 0.0.0.0/0.
D.Disable the firewall on all EC2 instances to improve performance.
E.Enable and review VPC Flow Logs to monitor traffic patterns.
AnswersA, B, E

Restricting security group rules is essential for limiting exposure.

Why this answer

Network security validation in the cloud involves checking security groups, NACLs, and VPC flow logs.

51
Multi-Selecthard

During a system validation audit, you must verify the configuration of a hardware security module (HSM). Which THREE of the following are valid validation checks?

Select 3 answers
A.Confirm the HSM is running the latest vendor-signed firmware.
B.Ensure all keys are stored in plaintext on the HSM's management PC.
C.Check if the HSM allows anonymous access to the administrative shell.
D.Check that administrative access requires M-of-N multi-party authorization.
E.Verify that the HSM is physically secured in a locked rack.
AnswersA, D, E

Firmware integrity is essential for security validation.

Why this answer

HSM validation involves checking for authorized access, firmware integrity, and operational state.

52
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO criteria are used to determine if a change request must be reviewed by the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

Select 2 answers
A.Potential impact on system availability
B.The time of day the change is performed
C.The color of the hardware
D.Risk level associated with the change
E.The name of the lead technician
AnswersA, D

High-impact changes require board review.

Why this answer

Changes that have a significant risk or potential for wide-reaching impact must undergo CAB review to ensure proper oversight.

53
MCQhard

An organization is adopting a DevSecOps model. To ensure security engineering principles are met, which tool should be integrated into the CI/CD pipeline to automate the detection of vulnerabilities in proprietary code during the 'Build' stage?

A.SAST (Static Application Security Testing)
B.DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing)
C.IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
D.SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
AnswerA

SAST tools are designed to scan source code during the build process.

Why this answer

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tools analyze source code for security vulnerabilities without executing the code, making them ideal for the build stage.

54
Multi-Selectmedium

When validating the security of an email gateway, which THREE of the following settings should be verified to prevent spoofing and improve trust?

Select 3 answers
A.SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record implementation.
B.Disabling TLS for incoming connections to save bandwidth.
C.Enabling the 'forward all traffic' rule.
D.DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) signature configuration.
E.DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) policy.
AnswersA, D, E

SPF identifies which servers are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain.

Why this answer

SPF, DKIM, and DMARC are the three pillars of email sender verification.

55
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is configuring an AWS S3 bucket. What policy setting best prevents public access while allowing access from a specific VPC?

A.Enable 'Block Public Access' and ACLs.
B.Bucket Policy with 'Condition' element matching 'aws:SourceVpc'.
C.Create an IAM role for every user in the VPC.
D.Use an S3 Pre-signed URL.
AnswerB

This restricts bucket access exclusively to the specified VPC.

Why this answer

Using an S3 Bucket Policy with a 'Condition' block that checks the 'aws:SourceVpc' key is the standard way to restrict access to a private network.

56
MCQhard

You are assessing an Engineered System that uses a micro-segmentation strategy to isolate workloads. An attacker has compromised a single container and is attempting to perform network reconnaissance. What mechanism should block this attempt?

A.Zero-trust network policies that enforce default-deny communication between containers.
B.Enabling flow logging on the network switches.
C.Host-based IPS (HIPS).
D.Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) at the edge.
AnswerA

Default-deny policies restrict communication and prevent lateral movement and reconnaissance.

Why this answer

Micro-segmentation uses policies to restrict communication between workloads, typically at the application or service level. Deny-all by default policies between containers would prevent reconnaissance.

57
MCQhard

In an SCAP-compliant environment, you are validating a system against a DISA STIG. Which file extension is typically used for the definition of the security checks?

A..txt
B..stig
C..ovl
D..xml
AnswerD

SCAP benchmarks, including XCCDF and OVAL files, are written in XML format.

Why this answer

XCCDF (Extensible Configuration Checklist Description Format) is the standard for defining SCAP security checklists.

58
MCQeasy

Which document outlines the specific security steps to be taken when a workstation reaches its end-of-life?

A.Data Sanitization Policy
B.Password Policy
C.Incident Response Plan
D.Acceptable Use Policy
AnswerA

This document dictates the procedures for secure asset retirement.

Why this answer

The System Disposal Plan or Data Sanitization Policy outlines the specific requirements for decommissioning equipment to ensure no sensitive data remains.

59
Multi-Selectmedium

You are designing an incident response architecture for a cloud environment. Which TWO of the following configurations are critical for ensuring effective forensic readiness according to NIST SP 800-61?

Select 2 answers
A.Using local disk storage for all incident response artifacts.
B.Centralizing logs in a read-only security account.
C.Enabling verbose debug mode on all production services.
D.Enabling immutable logging for all system API calls.
E.Configuring short retention periods for all system logs to save cost.
AnswersB, D

Centralization protects logs from being deleted or modified by attackers.

Why this answer

Forensic readiness requires high-fidelity, tamper-proof logs and centralized aggregation to ensure evidence integrity.

60
MCQmedium

An ISSEP architect is designing a system under NIST SP 800-53 controls and needs to implement an automated mechanism to enforce the principle of least privilege for non-privileged accounts. Which configuration in an AWS environment best aligns with the 'AC-6' control requirement?

A.Use AWS Trusted Advisor to identify unused IAM credentials.
B.Apply AWS IAM Permission Boundaries to define the maximum permissions for user roles.
C.Enable AWS CloudTrail organization-level logging.
D.Implement AWS Config rules for S3 bucket public access blocks.
AnswerB

Permission Boundaries are the standard tool for limiting the scope of permissions that a user or role can be granted.

Why this answer

AWS IAM Permission Boundaries allow an architect to set the maximum permissions an identity-based policy can grant, effectively enforcing least privilege at scale without managing individual inline policies.

61
MCQmedium

You are verifying the implementation of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS). Which technique is used to ensure the IDS is detecting traffic as expected?

A.Review the last update date of the signature database.
B.Replay a known malicious packet capture (PCAP) through the network segment.
C.Check the IDS management console for 'Up' status.
D.Verify that the IDS is configured in 'Inline' mode.
AnswerB

Replaying traffic confirms that the IDS signatures and rules trigger as designed.

Why this answer

Simulated attacks (using tools like Metasploit or Nmap) are the only way to verify detection capability.

62
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is designing a secure storage solution for a database. To ensure data integrity, which mechanism is most reliable?

A.Implement continuous file integrity monitoring (FIM) with cryptographic hashing.
B.Use RAID 10 for storage redundancy.
C.Require multi-factor authentication for database access.
D.Perform daily backups to an offsite location.
AnswerA

FIM provides detection of unauthorized file changes.

Why this answer

Hashing data periodically and comparing it against a known good baseline is the most reliable way to detect unauthorized modifications (integrity failure).

63
MCQmedium

You are conducting a threat modeling exercise using the STRIDE methodology. A specific service-to-service communication path lacks mutual TLS. Which STRIDE category does this vulnerability primarily fall under?

A.Denial of Service
B.Spoofing
C.Information Disclosure
D.Elevation of Privilege
AnswerB

Without mTLS, the identity of the communicating entity cannot be verified, allowing for spoofing.

Why this answer

STRIDE 'Tampering' or 'Spoofing' can apply, but lack of mTLS primarily allows for identity spoofing where one service claims to be another without cryptographic proof.

64
MCQeasy

What is the primary advantage of 'Defense in Depth'?

A.It provides multiple layers of security to mitigate single point failures
B.It makes the system faster
C.It simplifies system maintenance
D.It removes the need for firewalls
AnswerA

The core strength is resiliency via layering.

Why this answer

Defense in depth ensures that if one control fails, others are present to stop an attacker, creating a more robust overall system.

65
MCQmedium

Which command line utility is used on Linux to verify the integrity of binary files during a maintenance patch update?

A.sha256sum
B.chown
C.dd
D.chmod
AnswerA

This tool is standard for verifying file integrity against known hashes.

Why this answer

sha256sum calculates a cryptographic hash that can be compared against a known good value to verify binary integrity.

66
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered critical components of a Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

Select 2 answers
A.Patching the OS of the build server.
B.Threat Modeling.
C.Using a dark theme for the IDE.
D.Final penetration testing before release.
E.Security requirements analysis.
AnswersB, E

Threat modeling identifies risks early in the design.

Why this answer

Security requirements analysis and threat modeling are fundamental proactive steps in an SDLC.

67
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key inputs for a quantitative risk analysis?

Select 2 answers
A.The qualitative ranking of threats (e.g., High, Medium, Low).
B.The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of the asset.
C.The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of the threat.
D.A list of all potential security control vendors.
E.The subjective opinion of the IT staff.
AnswersB, C

SLE is a fundamental variable in the ALE calculation.

Why this answer

Quantitative risk analysis requires numerical data, specifically the value of the asset (Single Loss Expectancy) and the likelihood of the event (Annualized Rate of Occurrence).

68
MCQeasy

What is the correct order of operations when handling a vulnerability in a production system according to the RMF?

A.Remediate, Identify, Assess Risk, Verify.
B.Identify, Assess Risk, Remediate, Verify.
C.Identify, Remediate, Assess Risk, Authorize.
D.Authorize, Identify, Remediate, Verify.
AnswerB

This follows standard vulnerability management workflow.

Why this answer

Identify (scan), analyze (risk), remediate, and verify (scan again).

69
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are critical for an effective 'Continuous Monitoring' (ConMon) program under RMF?

Select 2 answers
A.Manual inspection of every system component once per year.
B.Automated security scanning and log aggregation.
C.A complete cessation of all system updates.
D.Limiting the scope of monitoring to only the primary web server.
E.A defined process for reporting and remediating identified security weaknesses.
AnswersB, E

Automation is essential for scale and consistency in ConMon.

Why this answer

ConMon requires both the technical capability to detect changes/vulnerabilities and the organizational capability to respond to those findings in a timely manner.

70
MCQmedium

When using the STRIDE threat modeling methodology, which security principle does 'Tampering' specifically attempt to violate?

A.Confidentiality
B.Integrity
C.Availability
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerB

Tampering involves unauthorized modification, violating data integrity.

Why this answer

Tampering threats target the Integrity aspect of the CIA triad by attempting to modify data or system configurations.

71
MCQhard

You are evaluating the risk of an Artificial Intelligence (AI) model deployment. The model is susceptible to 'model inversion' attacks, where an attacker can reconstruct sensitive training data. What is the most effective engineering control to prevent this?

A.Encrypt the model weights at rest.
B.Implement rate limiting on the model's API.
C.Retrain the model on a smaller, obfuscated dataset.
D.Apply differential privacy techniques to the training process.
AnswerD

Differential privacy provides a mathematical guarantee against the reconstruction of individual data points.

Why this answer

Differential privacy adds statistical noise to the training data or the model's output, preventing the reconstruction of individual training samples while maintaining the model's overall utility.

72
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are key components of a 'Secure Development Lifecycle' (SDL) process?

Select 3 answers
A.Assigning security requirements to developers
B.Physical security of the office parking lot
C.Automated security testing in CI/CD
D.Hiring external marketing staff
E.Threat modeling during design
AnswersA, C, E

Developers must own the security of the code they write.

Why this answer

An SDL integrates security into every phase of development: planning, design, implementation, testing, and release.

73
MCQhard

Which engineering document should be created during the early stages of the system lifecycle to define the security-relevant mission goals and constraints?

A.Patch Management Policy
B.System Security Plan (SSP)
C.Incident Response Plan
D.Vulnerability Assessment Report
AnswerB

The SSP is the primary document detailing security implementation and goals.

Why this answer

The System Security Plan (SSP) or an equivalent Concept of Operations for Security (SecConOps) defines the security mission and constraints at the start.

74
MCQhard

You are performing a security validation of a Kubernetes cluster using CIS Benchmarks. Which tool should you use to automate the verification of the 'etcd' configuration settings?

A.Use 'kubectl get pods' to check the etcd pod configuration.
B.Run 'kube-bench --targets etcd' to perform the automated audit.
C.Perform a manual audit using 'etcdctl get --prefix /'.
D.Use the 'kubectl describe nodes' command to check for node hardening.
AnswerB

kube-bench is designed to run CIS benchmark checks, including specific targets like etcd.

Why this answer

kube-bench is the industry-standard tool for checking Kubernetes against CIS benchmarks.

75
MCQhard

You are utilizing Terraform to manage infrastructure as code. To ensure security-critical changes are not committed to production without authorization, which feature should you implement?

A.Terraform Refresh
B.Provider Aliases
C.State Locking
D.Sentinel Policy-as-Code
AnswerD

Sentinel allows automated, mandatory security checks during the plan phase.

Why this answer

Sentinel policies in Terraform Enterprise allow for Policy-as-Code, enabling automated enforcement of security rules before infrastructure is provisioned.

Page 1 of 3

Page 2

All pages