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(ISC)2 Certified in Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) (CGRC) (CGRC) — Questions 151199

199 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
MCQmedium

When an assessment report indicates a 'High' risk finding, what is the primary responsibility of the system owner regarding the POA&M?

A.Delete the finding from the report
B.Transfer the risk to the IT staff
C.Update the POA&M with a remediation plan
D.Accept the risk without documentation
AnswerC

High findings require immediate planning and tracking.

Why this answer

The system owner is responsible for prioritizing the remediation of high-risk items and ensuring the POA&M reflects the timeline and resource allocation for fixing them.

152
MCQmedium

An information system security officer (ISSO) is preparing the Security Assessment Plan (SAP) in the NIST Risk Management Framework. Which component must be identified first to ensure the assessment coverage is adequate?

A.Security control baselines
B.Contingency plan testing
C.System boundary and authorization boundary
D.Risk acceptance threshold
AnswerC

Establishing the boundary is the first step in assessing compliance.

Why this answer

Identifying the scope and boundaries of the system is the prerequisite for developing a SAP to ensure all components under the authorization boundary are evaluated.

153
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are primary components of an effective security control assessment report?

Select 2 answers
A.Detailed Findings and Supporting Evidence
B.Executive Summary
C.Employee performance reviews
D.List of all vendor contracts
E.Company financial statements
AnswersA, B

This is a standard section.

Why this answer

An assessment report must detail the findings/weaknesses and the evidence that supports those findings.

154
MCQmedium

A multinational company needs to ensure that GRC data access complies with regional data residency laws. Which configuration feature should be utilized?

A.Setting all user passwords to match the local language.
B.Encrypting the entire GRC database with one key.
C.Implementing 'Data Partitioning' or 'Regional Access Scoping'.
D.Conducting a system-wide vulnerability scan.
AnswerC

This allows restricting data storage and access to specific geographic regions.

Why this answer

Data partitioning or 'Multi-Tenancy/Geographic Segregation' allows GRC platforms to isolate data based on geographic origin.

155
MCQmedium

During a control assessment, you use the 'examine, interview, and test' methods. Which of these is classified as an 'objective' evidence gathering technique?

A.Reviewing policies
B.Interviewing the IT manager
C.Observing physical access
D.Testing technical controls
AnswerD

Testing provides verifiable technical evidence.

Why this answer

Testing is considered objective because it involves hands-on verification of a system's configuration or behavior, rather than relying on subjective human input (interview).

156
MCQhard

A system is found to have a critical vulnerability that cannot be patched. You are documenting a risk acceptance request. What is the most critical piece of information to include for the AO?

A.The estimated cost of an upgrade
B.The manufacturer's release notes
C.The potential impact on the organization's mission
D.The CVSS score of the vulnerability
AnswerC

AO decisions are based on the balance of mission need vs. residual risk.

Why this answer

The AO needs to understand the impact of the risk on the organizational mission to make an informed decision.

157
MCQeasy

In VMware vSphere, what is the best practice for securing virtual machine consoles?

A.Use the VMRC (VMware Remote Console) with encrypted connections
B.Share the ESXi root password
C.Disable all logging
D.Leave the VNC port open
AnswerA

VMRC provides a secure, authenticated channel to the VM console.

Why this answer

Disabling the remote console access or enforcing authentication is vital to prevent unauthorized access.

158
MCQmedium

Your GRC program requires that assessment evidence be stored in an immutable state for three years. In the GRC platform, which feature ensures this integrity?

A.Applying an 'Evidence Lock' or 'Retention Policy' to the record.
B.Disabling the record deletion permission for all users.
C.Setting the record visibility to 'Public'.
D.Setting the 'Draft' workflow state to permanent.
AnswerA

These features prevent modification of finalized evidence records.

Why this answer

Data retention policies or 'WORM' (Write Once, Read Many) settings on storage repositories ensure compliance with long-term retention requirements.

159
MCQmedium

A control in the NIST 800-53 catalog has a parameter that reads: '[Assignment: organization-defined frequency]'. What is your responsibility as the system owner?

A.Use the default value provided in the appendix.
B.Remove the control since it is not fully defined.
C.Leave the assignment blank.
D.Define the frequency based on organizational policy.
AnswerD

The organization is responsible for filling in the assignment.

Why this answer

Organizations must define the value for the assignment within the bracket to make the control actionable.

160
MCQeasy

When determining compliance for a cloud-based service, which document serves as the primary evidence of the provider's security controls?

A.The service level agreement (SLA)
B.The organization's internal risk register
C.The network topology map
D.The cloud provider's System Security Plan (SSP) or Authorization Package
AnswerD

This contains the security control documentation for the service.

Why this answer

A FedRAMP Authorization Package or a third-party audit report (like SOC 2) is the standard evidence for cloud compliance.

161
MCQhard

You are tailoring a baseline and encounter a control marked as 'Not Applicable'. What is the correct documentation approach?

A.Mark the control as 'Implemented' and leave the field blank.
B.Document the removal and the justification in the SSP.
C.Request a waiver from the CISO.
D.Just delete the control from the system security plan (SSP).
AnswerB

Justification is required for all tailoring actions.

Why this answer

When controls are removed from the baseline during tailoring, the justification must be recorded to support auditability.

162
MCQhard

You are performing a compliance determination on a system that shares data with an external partner. What is the most important factor in the authorization boundary determination?

A.The ownership and control of the components
B.The cost of the hardware
C.The physical location of the server racks
D.The number of users accessing the system
AnswerA

Boundary is defined by what the system owner has the authority to protect.

Why this answer

The authorization boundary defines the scope of the system and everything subject to the security controls, including interconnected systems.

163
MCQmedium

You need to enforce MFA on Azure AD (Microsoft Entra ID) users. Which policy type is the most recommended for modern authentication control?

A.Password Protection Policy
B.Security Defaults
C.Azure AD Conditional Access Policy
D.Identity Protection User Risk Policy
AnswerC

This is the standard mechanism for requiring MFA based on conditions.

Why this answer

Conditional Access policies allow for risk-based and context-aware authentication enforcement.

164
MCQmedium

When configuring an email security gateway (e.g., Proofpoint), which record should be added to DNS to prevent domain spoofing?

A.SPF
B.CNAME
C.A
D.MX
AnswerA

SPF records define which IPs are authorized to send email for the domain.

Why this answer

SPF, DKIM, and DMARC are the trifecta of email authentication; SPF is the most foundational DNS record for authorized senders.

165
MCQeasy

You are managing a system under NIST SP 800-37 R2. During the ongoing authorization phase, you notice a significant change in the system's security posture due to a recent software update. What is the most appropriate next step in the continuous monitoring process?

A.Immediately decommission the system.
B.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) and submit for re-certification.
C.Wait until the annual assessment cycle to review the change.
D.Perform a security impact analysis on the change.
AnswerD

A security impact analysis determines if the change affects the existing security control baseline.

Why this answer

Continuous monitoring requires assessing the impact of changes to determine if the authorization remains valid.

166
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid reasons for tailoring a NIST 800-53 control baseline?

Select 2 answers
A.The control is not applicable to the system's technology.
B.The system environment requires a specific, more rigorous implementation.
C.The control has a high cost of implementation.
D.The control is too difficult to monitor.
E.The system owner disagrees with the FIPS 199 classification.
AnswersA, B

If the control does not apply, it should be removed.

Why this answer

Tailoring is performed to align the baseline with the specific mission and technical needs of the information system.

167
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following roles are typically involved in a GRC Steering Committee?

Select 3 answers
A.General Counsel.
B.The lead graphic designer.
C.Chief Risk Officer (CRO).
D.Chief Information Security Officer (CISO).
E.The office maintenance supervisor.
AnswersA, C, D

Legal oversight is vital for compliance.

Why this answer

Senior leadership roles like CISO, CRO, and General Counsel provide the necessary oversight for GRC.

168
MCQhard

Your organization is transitioning to a 'Continuous Authorization' model. Which component is critical to ensuring that the security control baseline remains effective despite frequent DevOps releases?

A.Daily vulnerability scanning of the production environment.
B.Automated security regression testing in the CI/CD pipeline.
C.Annual penetration testing of the application.
D.Manual sign-off by the CISO before every code commit.
AnswerB

This ensures that existing security controls are not broken by new code releases.

Why this answer

Automated security testing in the CI/CD pipeline ensures that security controls are validated with every deployment, maintaining the baseline.

169
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are recommended practices for managing firewall rules?

Select 2 answers
A.Documenting the business justification for each rule
B.Periodically reviewing rules to remove unnecessary ones
C.Disabling logging for all rules to improve performance
D.Applying rules in random order
E.Using 'Any' as the destination for all rules
AnswersA, B

Justification is necessary for auditing and change management.

Why this answer

Regular review and documentation of rules help maintain a secure and clean firewall configuration.

170
MCQhard

You are defining the continuous monitoring frequency for a high-impact system. According to NIST guidance, what factors should most influence the selection of assessment frequency?

A.The availability of security personnel to perform the tests.
B.The vendor's recommendation for maintenance windows.
C.The criticality of the system and the level of change in the environment.
D.The total number of users accessing the system.
AnswerC

Higher criticality and higher environmental volatility demand more frequent monitoring to maintain security posture.

Why this answer

NIST guidance suggests that the frequency of monitoring should be based on the risk level of the system and the volatility of the environment.

171
Multi-Selectmedium

When documenting a GRC policy, which TWO elements should be included to ensure effective governance?

Select 2 answers
A.The home address of the CISO.
B.Explicit assignment of policy ownership and accountability.
C.A list of all employees' social media handles.
D.Clear policy statements and organizational objectives.
E.The exact color scheme of the company website.
AnswersB, D

Accountability is necessary for policy enforcement.

Why this answer

Policy statements and ownership are core components for governance and compliance.

172
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are elements of a secure incident response control set?

Select 3 answers
A.Establishing a dedicated Incident Response Team (IRT)
B.Sharing sensitive server logs on a public forum
C.Implementing a SIEM for log analysis and alerting
D.Maintaining an updated Incident Response Plan (IRP)
E.Disabling all security controls during an investigation
AnswersA, C, D

An IRT is essential for professional response.

Why this answer

Preparation, identification, and containment are foundational phases of the incident response lifecycle.

173
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered essential elements of an effective continuous monitoring program?

Select 2 answers
A.A complete physical audit of all hardware every week.
B.Requiring all users to change passwords daily.
C.Outsourcing all security monitoring to a third party.
D.A formal process for tracking and remediating vulnerabilities.
E.Automated security configuration assessment tools.
AnswersD, E

Tracking (POA&M) is essential to ensure findings are addressed.

Why this answer

Continuous monitoring relies on both the automated collection of data and the procedural management of security findings.

174
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of physical security controls?

Select 2 answers
A.Host-based firewall
B.Security cameras
C.Strong password policy
D.Key card access systems
E.Encryption of database tables
AnswersB, D

Cameras are a physical deterrent/detective control.

Why this answer

Physical controls protect the physical facility and hardware.

175
MCQeasy

Which document is used to standardize the implementation of security controls across an organization?

A.Security Baseline
B.Incident Response Plan
C.Risk Register
D.Acceptable Use Policy
AnswerA

Baselines define the required configuration state for assets.

Why this answer

A Security Baseline (or Standard) provides the specific, actionable configuration requirements for assets.

176
MCQhard

A system owner determines that a specific NIST 800-53 control cannot be implemented due to legacy hardware constraints. They choose to implement a different control to mitigate the same risk. This is an example of what?

A.Risk Acceptance.
B.Baseline Tailoring.
C.Control Supplementation.
D.Compensating Control.
AnswerD

This is the definition of a compensating control.

Why this answer

A compensating control is an alternate measure used to satisfy the requirement of a security control that cannot be implemented as stated.

177
MCQeasy

You are securing a database server. What is the most effective administrative control to minimize the impact of a compromised DBA account?

A.Disable all auditing
B.Store passwords in plain text
C.Implement Separation of Duties
D.Use a single shared account
AnswerC

Splitting privileges prevents a single point of failure.

Why this answer

Separation of duties ensures no single administrator has total control over all aspects, minimizing risk.

178
MCQhard

During the compliance determination phase, you discover that a legacy application lacks multi-factor authentication (MFA) but is isolated within a physically secured enclave. Which action should you take to document this in the Security Assessment Report (SAR)?

A.Force an upgrade to the application
B.Document the compensating control and assess its effectiveness
C.Immediately revoke the Authorization to Operate (ATO)
D.Mark the control as 'Not Applicable'
AnswerB

Compensating controls are valid methods to meet security requirements.

Why this answer

Documenting compensating controls allows the assessor to show how the security objective is met despite the missing control.

179
MCQmedium

You need to ensure that the 'Compliance Dashboard' is updated only when the 'Assessment Completion' status is 'Verified'. How can you achieve this?

A.Create a separate dashboard for every assessment status.
B.Restrict user access to the 'Verified' status.
C.Apply a 'Status Filter' to the dashboard widget on 'Verified'.
D.Set the report to auto-refresh every minute.
AnswerC

Filtering by state ensures the integrity of the dashboard data.

Why this answer

Workflow-driven reporting or 'Dashboard Filters' based on record state ensure that reports only reflect validated data.

180
MCQeasy

What is the primary goal of the 'Assessment Reporting' phase?

A.To terminate the contract
B.To communicate findings to stakeholders
C.To select new security controls
D.To patch all identified vulnerabilities
AnswerB

Reporting is the communication phase.

Why this answer

Reporting provides stakeholders with an accurate picture of the security posture, identified risks, and the evidence supporting the findings.

181
MCQmedium

When conducting an assessment using the SCAP protocol, what is the primary purpose of the OVAL component?

A.To provide a language for checking system configuration state
B.To standardize the transfer of vulnerability data
C.To define the severity of a vulnerability
D.To manage the lifecycle of a POA&M
AnswerA

OVAL defines checks to identify configuration issues.

Why this answer

OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is used to verify the state of a system's security configuration, such as registry keys or file permissions.

182
MCQmedium

You are using Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) to enforce compliance. You need to verify if specific registry keys are set correctly across all workstations. Which feature should you use?

A.Configuration Items (CIs).
B.Application Catalog.
C.Client Health Reports.
D.Software Metering.
AnswerA

CIs allow you to define and monitor specific registry keys for compliance.

Why this answer

Configuration Items (CIs) in MECM allow you to define settings and verify compliance across client systems.

183
Multi-Selecteasy

When applying FIPS 199 to an information system, which TWO security objectives must be evaluated for potential impact? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Availability.
B.Authentication.
C.Accountability.
D.Non-repudiation.
E.Confidentiality.
AnswersA, E

Availability is a core FIPS 199 objective.

Why this answer

FIPS 199 defines three objectives: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. You are selecting two from this list.

184
MCQeasy

When decommissioning an IT asset that stores sensitive information, which of the following is the most important step before releasing the hardware for disposal?

A.Sanitize the storage media according to an approved standard.
B.Update the asset inventory list.
C.Remove the BIOS password.
D.Format the primary operating system partition.
E.Deactivate the user accounts associated with the system.
AnswerA

Sanitization is the only method to ensure data is permanently removed before the hardware leaves organizational control.

Why this answer

Sanitizing the media is the most critical step to prevent unauthorized access to data remaining on the physical hardware.

185
MCQmedium

Your GRC platform allows for 'Risk Heat Map' visualization. An executive wants to see only risks associated with 'Cybersecurity'. Which feature should you configure to support this view?

A.Change the risk rating scale from 1-5 to 1-10.
B.Delete all non-cybersecurity risks from the system.
C.Apply a 'Category Filter' or 'Saved View' to the dashboard widget.
D.Create a new database user for the executive.
AnswerC

Filtering by attribute is the standard way to narrow reporting views.

Why this answer

Filtering or 'Reporting View Scoping' allows users to isolate data on dashboards based on attributes like 'Category'.

186
MCQhard

While reviewing a system's compliance, you notice the Security Control Assessor (SCA) used an interview method for a technical control that requires automated testing. How should you address this in your review?

A.Accept the findings as-is
B.Escalate to the Chief Information Officer (CIO)
C.Request a re-assessment using the 'Test' method
D.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) to match the interview
AnswerC

Technical controls require testing (functional verification) rather than just interviews.

Why this answer

Security assessments must follow NIST SP 800-53A guidance, which specifies appropriate assessment methods (examine, interview, test) for each control.

187
MCQeasy

You are defining the authorization boundary for a cloud-hosted application in the NIST Risk Management Framework. Which component must be explicitly included within the boundary according to NIST SP 800-37?

A.The cloud service provider's physical security controls for the hosting data center.
B.The end-user's local home router configuration.
C.The public internet backbone routing protocols.
D.The organization's global human resources policy.
AnswerA

The authorization boundary encompasses the service environment providing the security controls.

Why this answer

The authorization boundary must include all components for which the authorizing official accepts risk, including third-party cloud services that manage the security controls.

188
MCQhard

A developer needs to access a production server. To maintain the highest level of security, how should you implement this access?

A.Shared administrative password
B.Access via a Jump Server with MFA
C.VPN connection to the internal network
D.Direct SSH access to the server
AnswerB

This provides a controlled and audited gateway to production assets.

Why this answer

A Bastion Host with MFA ensures that access to production is controlled, logged, and authenticated securely.

189
MCQhard

During a FedRAMP audit, you discover that a customer's cloud environment does not meet a required control. What is the mandatory next step to track this non-compliance?

A.Document the weakness in a Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)
B.Immediately terminate the cloud service
C.Perform a penetration test
D.Request a waiver from the JAB
E.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) to reflect compliance
AnswerA

POA&M is the standard artifact for tracking identified gaps.

Why this answer

FedRAMP requires that all open vulnerabilities and control weaknesses identified during an assessment be documented in a POA&M for tracking and remediation.

190
MCQhard

Your organization is applying NIST SP 800-53 controls to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. What is the main purpose of utilizing the 'Control Catalog'?

A.To automate the scanning process.
B.To serve as a comprehensive list of all possible security controls.
C.To mandate the order of implementation.
D.To identify which vendors are compliant.
AnswerB

The catalog provides the full set from which baselines are derived.

Why this answer

The catalog serves as the central repository from which organizations select appropriate controls based on their system-specific security needs.

191
MCQmedium

Which standard provides the framework for conducting information security audits?

A.ISO/IEC 27007
B.NIST SP 800-37
C.PCI DSS
D.ISO/IEC 27001
AnswerA

This is the specific standard for ISMS auditing.

Why this answer

ISO/IEC 27007 provides guidance on managing an information security management system (ISMS) audit program.

192
MCQmedium

When selecting controls, you notice that a specific NIST 800-53 control includes 'assignment' statements. What is the purpose of these statements?

A.To define specific parameters for control implementation.
B.To categorize the control by its priority level.
C.To link the control to a regulatory requirement.
D.To assign the control to a specific system administrator.
AnswerA

Assignments allow organizations to define values like 'every 30 days' or 'authorized personnel'.

Why this answer

Assignment statements provide a mechanism to tailor the control by specifying organization-defined values or frequencies.

193
MCQhard

You are assessing a system for compliance with FIPS 140-3. Which evidence provides the strongest validation?

A.CMVP validation certificate
B.Manufacturer's technical specification document
C.Internal configuration audit report
D.Email from the vendor
AnswerA

This is the industry standard for proof of compliance.

Why this answer

A NIST Cryptographic Module Validation Program (CMVP) certificate provides formal verification that a product has met the FIPS 140 requirements.

194
MCQeasy

Which of the following describes a 'Hybrid' control?

A.A control that covers both physical and logical security.
B.A control with shared responsibility between the organization and the system.
C.A control that is always automated.
D.A control that is used in both cloud and on-premise environments.
AnswerB

This defines a hybrid control.

Why this answer

A hybrid control is a control where both the organization (or provider) and the information system share responsibility for implementation.

195
MCQmedium

What is the primary role of the Security Control Assessor (SCA)?

A.To determine the effectiveness of the security controls
B.To implement the security controls
C.To remediate vulnerabilities
D.To accept the risk on behalf of the agency
AnswerA

The SCA validates the controls.

Why this answer

The SCA provides an objective, third-party assessment of the security controls to support the authorization decision.

196
MCQeasy

Which of the following activities is a core component of the 'Ongoing Authorization' process?

A.Periodically reviewing security assessment results.
B.Performing a full system re-installation annually.
C.Changing the system administrator's password every month.
D.Increasing the budget for information security.
AnswerA

Continuous monitoring and the review of assessment results are fundamental to maintaining an active ATO.

Why this answer

Maintaining the authorization requires continuous assessment of the system's security posture to ensure it remains within an acceptable risk level.

197
MCQeasy

A GRC practitioner is auditing access. Which report provides the best overview of who has 'Write' access to sensitive compliance evidence?

A.The System Performance Report.
B.The Risk Trend Analysis Report.
C.The Audit Finding Closure Report.
D.The 'User Permission' or 'Access Control' report.
AnswerD

This details the authorization levels assigned to each user/group.

Why this answer

Access Control or 'User Permission' reports are specifically designed to audit GRC platform access levels.

198
MCQhard

You are deploying an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) solution. Which configuration minimizes false positives while maintaining visibility?

A.Only monitor server logs
B.Set to 'Block All' mode
C.Disable real-time scanning
D.Exclude known safe processes and signers
AnswerD

This reduces benign noise while preserving detection capabilities.

Why this answer

Tuning policies to exclude known safe administrative scripts and software reduces noise while maintaining core monitoring.

199
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of mapping regulatory requirements to internal controls in a GRC platform?

A.It reduces the burden of redundant testing for multiple frameworks.
B.It reduces the number of employees required to manage the platform.
C.It makes the GRC platform look more professional.
D.It hides the compliance gaps from external auditors.
AnswerA

This is a key efficiency and optimization goal of GRC.

Why this answer

Mapping eliminates redundant testing by showing how one control satisfies multiple regulatory mandates.

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