Cisco CCNP ENARSI 300-410 300-410 Questions 76–150 | Page 2/27

MCQmedium

What is the default EIGRP hold time multiplier relative to the hello interval?

A.Hold time equals hello interval

B.Hold time is twice the hello interval

C.Hold time is three times the hello interval

D.Hold time is four times the hello interval

AnswerC

Correct. Default hold time = 3 * hello interval (e.g., 15 seconds for 5-second hello).

Why this answer

By default, EIGRP sets the hold time to three times the hello interval. This ensures that a few missed hellos do not immediately cause neighbor loss.

Full explanation →

Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE commands can be used to verify the operational state of a BFD session? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers

A.show bfd neighbors

B.show bfd interface details

C.show bfd session

D.show ip ospf bfd

E.show bfd peer

AnswersA, B, C

Correct. This command lists all BFD neighbors and their current session state (Up, Down, etc.).

Why this answer

The show bfd neighbors command displays all BFD neighbors and their session states. show bfd interface details shows BFD configuration and state per interface. show bfd session displays detailed session information including timers and statistics. show ip ospf bfd is not a valid command; the correct command is show ip ospf [interface] to see BFD status. show bfd peer is a valid command on some platforms but is less common; show bfd neighbors is preferred.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot SNMP access lists: R1# show snmp access Access-list: 10 Community: public View: v1default Access-list: 20 Community: private View: v1default What does this output indicate?

A.SNMP access is controlled by ACLs: ACL 10 for 'public' and ACL 20 for 'private'.

B.No ACLs are applied to SNMP, so all access is allowed.

C.The router uses SNMPv3 exclusively.

D.The 'public' community has read-write access.

AnswerA

The output shows the mapping between ACLs and communities.

Why this answer

The 'show snmp access' output displays the configured SNMP access control entries, which map community strings to access control lists (ACLs). In this case, ACL 10 is associated with the 'public' community and ACL 20 with the 'private' community, meaning SNMP access is restricted based on these ACLs. This is the standard method for controlling SNMPv1/v2c access, as the router uses the ACL to permit or deny SNMP requests from specific source IP addresses.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between what 'show snmp access' reveals (ACL-to-community mapping) versus what it does not reveal (read-write permissions), leading candidates to incorrectly assume that the 'public' community has read-write access or that no ACLs are applied.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the output explicitly shows ACLs 10 and 20 are applied to the 'public' and 'private' communities, respectively, so access is not allowed without ACL filtering. Option C is wrong because SNMPv3 does not use community strings or ACL-based access control in the same way; it uses user-based security models (USM) with authentication and encryption, and the output shows community strings, indicating SNMPv1/v2c. Option D is wrong because the output does not indicate read-write access for 'public'; the 'View: v1default' suggests a default view, but the actual access level (read-only or read-write) is determined by the SNMP community configuration, which is not shown in this output.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

A network engineer configures an IPv6 over IPv4 GRE tunnel with IPsec using a crypto map. The tunnel works for unicast traffic, but OSPFv3 over the tunnel fails to form adjacency. The engineer checks the crypto map and sees that it only matches traffic with a specific access-list. What is the most likely explanation?

A.The crypto map access-list must include IPv6 protocol 89 (OSPF) to encrypt OSPFv3 packets; otherwise, they are sent in the clear and may be dropped.

B.OSPFv3 cannot be encrypted with IPsec; it requires a separate encryption mechanism.

C.The GRE tunnel interface must be configured with 'tunnel protection ipsec' instead of a crypto map.

D.The crypto map is applied to the physical interface instead of the tunnel interface.

AnswerA

OSPFv3 uses IPv6 protocol 89. If the access-list does not match this protocol, OSPFv3 packets are not protected and may be discarded by the remote IPsec policy.

Why this answer

OSPFv3 uses IPv6 protocol number 89 for its packets. When a crypto map is applied with an access-list that only matches specific traffic (e.g., unicast data), OSPFv3 packets (protocol 89) are not matched and are sent unencrypted. If the IPsec peer is configured to drop unencrypted traffic or if the GRE tunnel requires all traffic to be encrypted, OSPFv3 adjacency fails.

Adding protocol 89 to the access-list ensures OSPFv3 packets are encrypted and processed correctly.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that OSPFv3 cannot be encrypted with IPsec or that the crypto map must be applied to the tunnel interface, when the real issue is that the access-list used by the crypto map must explicitly include the OSPFv3 protocol (89) to encrypt routing updates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because OSPFv3 can be encrypted with IPsec; in fact, IPsec is commonly used to protect OSPFv3 routing updates over tunnels. Option C is wrong because 'tunnel protection ipsec' is a valid alternative to a crypto map, but using a crypto map is also correct; the issue is the access-list not matching OSPFv3, not the method of applying IPsec. Option D is wrong because the crypto map is correctly applied to the physical interface (the tunnel source/destination) to protect GRE-encapsulated traffic; applying it to the tunnel interface would not encrypt the outer IP headers.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

An engineer configures DMVPN Phase 2 on a hub-and-spoke network for an MPLS L3VPN customer. The spokes are configured with a single tunnel interface and use NHRP to register with the hub. The engineer notices that spoke-to-spoke traffic is not being established, even though the spokes have each other's NHRP mappings. The engineer verifies that the tunnel interfaces are up and that the hub can reach all spokes. What is the most likely explanation?

A.The spokes have a default route pointing to the hub, which prevents them from using the direct spoke-to-spoke tunnel.

B.The 'ip nhrp authentication' string is mismatched between the spokes.

C.The tunnel mode is set to 'gre multipoint' on the spokes, which is not supported in Phase 2.

D.The 'ip nhrp map multicast' command is missing on the spokes, preventing multicast traffic.

AnswerA

Correct. In Phase 2, spokes must have a route that allows them to use the tunnel for direct communication; a default route to the hub will force traffic through the hub.

Why this answer

In DMVPN Phase 2, spoke-to-spoke tunnels are established dynamically using NHRP redirect and shortcut. However, a common edge case is that the spokes must have a route that points to the destination network via the tunnel interface. If the spokes have a default route or a summary route that points to the hub (Phase 1 behavior), they will not use the direct spoke-to-spoke tunnel.

In Phase 2, the hub must send an NHRP redirect to the source spoke, and the source spoke must then send an NHRP resolution request to the destination spoke. If the spokes have a static route that forces traffic through the hub, the NHRP redirect will not work. Additionally, the 'ip nhrp redirect' command must be configured on the hub, and 'ip nhrp shortcut' on the spokes.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

What is the default administrative distance for a route learned via the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route?

A.90

B.170

C.5

D.1

AnswerC

Cisco IOS assigns an AD of 5 to EIGRP summary routes to ensure they are preferred over other routes.

Why this answer

EIGRP summary routes have a default administrative distance of 5, which is lower than the standard EIGRP internal distance of 90 and EIGRP external distance of 170.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

A router is configured with uRPF (Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding) in strict mode on an interface that belongs to a VRF. The network uses asymmetric routing for load balancing. The engineer notices that legitimate traffic from a customer is being dropped. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The uRPF strict mode requires that the source IP address be reachable via the same interface, but asymmetric routing causes the return path to use a different interface.

B.The uRPF loose mode is configured instead of strict mode, which only checks that a route exists for the source IP, not the interface.

C.The VRF has a default route that points to the incoming interface, causing uRPF to always succeed.

D.The 'ip verify unicast source reachable-via any' command is used, which is the loose mode, not strict.

AnswerA

Strict uRPF fails if the best route to the source is not via the incoming interface. Asymmetric routing violates this assumption.

Why this answer

Strict uRPF checks that the source IP address of incoming packets has a route in the routing table that points back to the same interface. In asymmetric routing, the return path may be different (e.g., out another interface), so the source IP may not have a route back to the incoming interface. This causes legitimate traffic to be dropped.

The edge case is that uRPF strict mode does not account for asymmetric routing, while loose mode does.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

A network engineer enables IPv6 First Hop Security with 'ipv6 dhcp guard' on a switch port connected to a legitimate DHCPv6 server. Clients on other ports receive DHCPv6 replies, but the server's port is being err-disabled repeatedly. The engineer checks the logs and sees DHCPv6 server advertisements being dropped. What is the most likely cause?

A.The port is not configured as 'trusted' for DHCPv6 Guard, causing all server advertisements to be dropped.

B.The DHCPv6 server is sending messages with an invalid DUID.

C.DHCPv6 Guard only works with stateful DHCPv6, not stateless.

D.The switch is running an older IOS version that does not support DHCPv6 Guard.

AnswerA

DHCPv6 Guard requires explicit trust for server ports.

Why this answer

When 'ipv6 dhcp guard' is enabled on a switch port, all DHCPv6 server advertisements (REPLY and ADVERTISE messages) are dropped by default unless the port is explicitly configured as 'trusted'. Since the server's port is untrusted, the switch drops the legitimate server's advertisements, causing the port to be err-disabled due to repeated violations. Configuring 'ipv6 dhcp guard trust' on the server-facing port resolves this issue.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the default untrusted behavior of DHCPv6 Guard, where candidates mistakenly assume that enabling the feature on a port automatically allows server traffic, rather than requiring an explicit 'trust' keyword.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an invalid DUID would cause the DHCPv6 server to reject client messages or fail to form a binding, but it would not cause the switch to drop advertisements or err-disable the port; DHCPv6 Guard operates independently of DUID validity. Option C is wrong because DHCPv6 Guard works with both stateful and stateless DHCPv6; it filters all DHCPv6 server messages (REPLY and ADVERTISE) regardless of the DHCPv6 mode. Option D is wrong because the question states that the feature is enabled and logs show advertisements being dropped, which confirms the switch supports DHCPv6 Guard; an older IOS version would simply not have the command available or would not enforce the feature.

Full explanation →

MCQeasy

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot a BGP prefix issue: R1# show bgp ipv4 unicast 192.168.10.0/24 BGP routing table entry for 192.168.10.0/24, version 5 Paths: (1 available, best #1, table default) Advertised to update-groups: 1 Refresh Epoch 1 Local 10.1.1.2 from 10.1.1.2 (2.2.2.2) Origin IGP, metric 0, localpref 100, valid, external, best rx pathid: 0, tx pathid: 0x0 What does this output indicate?

A.The prefix is learned via eBGP and is the best path.

B.The prefix is learned via iBGP and is not the best path.

C.The prefix is suppressed and not advertised to peers.

D.The prefix is invalid due to missing next-hop reachability.

AnswerA

The output shows 'valid, external, best', confirming it is the best eBGP route.

Why this answer

The output shows the prefix 192.168.10.0/24 is learned from neighbor 10.1.1.2 with the path type 'external', indicating eBGP. The line 'valid, external, best' confirms it is the best path, making option A correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between eBGP and iBGP by using the 'external' or 'internal' keyword in the show output, and the trap here is that candidates may misread 'external' as 'iBGP' or overlook the 'best' flag, assuming the prefix is not the best path.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the output explicitly states 'external', not iBGP, and 'best' indicates it is the best path, not non-best. Option C is wrong because there is no indication of suppression (e.g., no 'suppressed' flag or 'advertise-to-all' missing), and the prefix is advertised to update-group 1. Option D is wrong because the prefix is marked 'valid' and 'best', meaning the next-hop is reachable; if the next-hop were missing, the prefix would be marked 'invalid' or 'not synchronized'.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

An engineer configures MPLS forwarding on a router. The MPLS LDP neighbors are established, but some prefixes are not being assigned labels. The engineer checks the 'show mpls ldp bindings' and sees that the prefixes are missing. What is the most likely explanation?

A.The prefix is learned via BGP, and LDP does not assign labels to BGP routes by default.

B.The 'mpls ldp advertise-labels' command is configured to deny the prefix.

C.The 'mpls ldp label' command is missing on the interface.

D.The 'tag-switching' is not enabled globally.

AnswerA

LDP by default only assigns labels to IGP routes (OSPF, EIGRP, IS-IS). BGP routes are not labeled unless 'mpls ldp autoconfig bgp' or 'label-distribution' is configured for BGP.

Why this answer

MPLS LDP assigns labels to prefixes that are in the routing table and are IGP routes. If a prefix is learned via BGP, LDP will not assign a label to it by default unless the 'mpls ldp autoconfig' or 'label-distribution' is configured for BGP. Additionally, if the prefix is a connected route or a static route, LDP may not assign a label unless explicitly configured.

The edge case is that the prefix is a BGP route, and LDP does not label BGP routes by default.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot an EEM issue: R1# show event manager policy active No. Class Type Version Time Created Name 1 applet system 1.0 Mar 1 00:00:12 2025 TRACK-INTERFACE Event Type: syslog (pattern OSPF-5-ADJCHG) Action: cli command 'show ip route' What does this output indicate?

A.The EEM applet 'TRACK-INTERFACE' is active and will execute 'show ip route' when a syslog message matching 'OSPF-5-ADJCHG' is generated.

B.The EEM applet 'TRACK-INTERFACE' is currently executing and has run 'show ip route'.

C.The EEM applet 'TRACK-INTERFACE' has been triggered and the output of 'show ip route' is displayed.

D.The EEM applet 'TRACK-INTERFACE' is inactive and needs to be enabled.

AnswerA

Correct. The output shows the applet is active, triggered by syslog pattern OSPF-5-ADJCHG, and will execute the CLI command 'show ip route'.

Why this answer

The output shows active EEM policies that are currently enabled and waiting for their trigger events. It displays the applet name, class, type, version, creation time, the event that triggers it, and the actions it will execute. This helps verify that an applet is active and what it does.

Full explanation →

Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO configuration changes are required to enable IPsec site-to-site VPN with IKEv2 and pre-shared keys on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers

A.Configure an IKEv2 keyring with the pre-shared key and peer IP address.

B.Apply the 'crypto isakmp key' command globally for the peer.

C.Create an IKEv2 profile that references the keyring.

D.Define a transform set under the IKEv2 policy.

E.Use the 'crypto map' command to reference the IKEv2 profile.

AnswersA, C

Correct. The keyring defines the pre-shared key and associates it with the peer.

Why this answer

A is correct because IKEv2 uses a keyring to store pre-shared keys (PSKs) and associate them with specific peer IP addresses, replacing the legacy 'crypto isakmp key' command used in IKEv1. The keyring is then referenced by an IKEv2 profile, which binds the authentication method and other parameters to the VPN session.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IKEv1 and IKEv2 commands, and the trap here is that candidates familiar with IKEv1 mistakenly select the 'crypto isakmp key' or 'crypto map' options, not realizing IKEv2 requires a keyring and IPsec profile instead.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

Consider the following DMVPN configuration on a hub router: interface Tunnel0 ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 ip nhrp network-id 100 ip nhrp authentication cisco123 ip nhrp map multicast dynamic tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel mode gre multipoint ! router eigrp 100 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! What is a potential issue with this configuration?

A.EIGRP split-horizon is enabled by default on the tunnel interface, preventing spokes from learning routes from other spokes.

B.The NHRP authentication is missing on the spokes.

C.The tunnel mode should be 'gre ip' instead of 'gre multipoint'.

D.The EIGRP network statement is too broad.

AnswerA

Split-horizon prevents the hub from advertising routes learned from one spoke to another spoke, which is a common issue in DMVPN.

Why this answer

EIGRP over DMVPN requires split-horizon to be disabled on the hub's tunnel interface to allow spokes to learn routes from other spokes.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

Given the following partial configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE router: logging host 10.1.1.1 transport tcp port 514 logging source-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 logging on What is missing or incorrect in this configuration?

A.The configuration is correct; no changes are needed.

B.The 'logging on' command is redundant because logging is enabled by default.

C.The syslog server must support TCP syslog, which is not defined in RFC 3164.

D.The port number should be 5140 for TCP syslog.

AnswerC

RFC 3164 defines syslog over UDP. TCP syslog is defined in RFC 6587 but is not universally supported. This configuration may fail if the server does not accept TCP.

Why this answer

By default, syslog uses UDP port 514. When using TCP transport, the syslog server must be configured to accept TCP connections, and this is not a common configuration. The configuration itself is syntactically correct, but the question tests knowledge that TCP transport for syslog is non-standard and may not work with typical syslog servers.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

An engineer configures Control Plane Policing (CoPP) on a router running OSPF. After applying the policy, OSPF neighbors intermittently drop and recover. The CoPP policy includes a class-map matching OSPF traffic with a police rate of 64000 bps. The router has multiple OSPF neighbors and the link utilization is normal. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The CoPP policy uses the default class class-default, which drops OSPF packets.

B.The police rate is in bits per second, but OSPF hello packets are small; the packet-per-second rate is exceeded, causing drops.

C.OSPF uses UDP, and CoPP only filters TCP traffic.

D.The CoPP policy is applied to the wrong interface; it should be applied to the management interface.

AnswerB

OSPF hello packets are small, so bps rate limiting can be misleading; pps is more appropriate for protocol packets.

Why this answer

OSPF hello packets are small (typically 44–64 bytes), so a police rate of 64000 bps translates to a very low packet-per-second (pps) allowance. When multiple OSPF neighbors send hellos and other OSPF packets, the pps limit is easily exceeded, causing CoPP to drop packets and disrupt neighbor adjacencies. This is the most likely cause of intermittent OSPF neighbor drops despite normal link utilization.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a bps-based police rate is sufficient for small-packet protocols like OSPF, leading candidates to overlook the packet-per-second (pps) limitation that causes drops.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the default class class-default only matches traffic not explicitly classified; if OSPF traffic is matched by a specific class-map, it is not subject to class-default actions. Option C is wrong because OSPF uses IP protocol 89, not UDP or TCP, and CoPP can filter any IP traffic, not just TCP. Option D is wrong because CoPP is applied globally to the control plane using the 'service-policy input' command under 'control-plane', not to a specific interface; applying it to the management interface would not affect OSPF control-plane traffic.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

A router is configured with PBR using a route-map that sets the next-hop to 10.0.0.2 for traffic from subnet 192.168.1.0/24. The route-map is applied inbound on interface GigabitEthernet0/0. The engineer also configures 'ip policy route-map' on the same interface. However, the engineer notices that PBR is not working for traffic that is fragmented. What is the most likely reason?

A.PBR only matches the first fragment; subsequent fragments are forwarded based on the routing table because they lack Layer 4 headers.

B.The route-map is missing a 'match fragment' command.

C.Fragmented packets are always dropped by PBR.

D.The ACL in the route-map is using a 'deny' statement for fragmented packets.

AnswerA

Fragments after the first do not have Layer 4 info, so ACLs with port matching fail; PBR may not apply.

Why this answer

PBR processes only the first fragment of a fragmented packet; subsequent fragments do not contain Layer 4 information (e.g., TCP/UDP ports) and may not match the ACL if it includes Layer 4 criteria. Additionally, PBR may not be applied to non-initial fragments by default, causing them to be forwarded normally.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

Examine the following partial configuration on Router R1: ``` interface Tunnel0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::1/64 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 2001:DB8:2::2 tunnel mode ipv6ip ``` What is the effect of this configuration?

A.The tunnel will successfully encapsulate IPv6 packets in IPv4 and forward them.

B.The tunnel will not come up because the tunnel destination is an IPv6 address instead of an IPv4 address.

C.The tunnel will use IPv6 as the transport protocol, encapsulating IPv4 packets.

D.The configuration is correct for a 6to4 tunnel.

AnswerB

In ipv6ip mode, both tunnel source and destination must be IPv4 addresses.

Why this answer

The tunnel mode ipv6ip requires an IPv4 address as the tunnel destination because it encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets for transport over an IPv4 network. In this configuration, the tunnel destination is set to an IPv6 address (2001:DB8:2::2), which is invalid for this tunnel mode, preventing the tunnel interface from coming up.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between tunnel transport and passenger protocols, trapping candidates who confuse the tunnel destination address family with the tunnel mode requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the tunnel will not successfully encapsulate and forward packets due to the invalid IPv6 destination address; the tunnel interface will remain down. Option C is wrong because tunnel mode ipv6ip uses IPv4 as the transport protocol to carry IPv6 packets, not IPv6 as the transport. Option D is wrong because a 6to4 tunnel uses a special IPv4-embedded IPv6 address format (2002::/16) and does not use the tunnel mode ipv6ip command; this configuration lacks the required 6to4 parameters.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

What is the default behavior of EEM when multiple policies are registered for the same event?

A.All policies run simultaneously in parallel.

B.Only the first registered policy runs.

C.Policies run in order of priority (lower number = higher priority), then alphabetically by name.

D.Policies run in reverse order of registration.

AnswerC

Priority is the primary sort; ties are broken by policy name.

Why this answer

EEM policies are executed in order of their priority; if priorities are equal, the policy with the lowest name (alphanumeric) runs first.

Full explanation →

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following debug command to troubleshoot a DHCPv4 issue on router R1: R1# debug ip dhcp server events Output: DHCPD: DHCPDISCOVER received from 0050.7966.6800 on interface GigabitEthernet0/0 DHCPD: Sending DHCPOFFER to 0050.7966.6800 via GigabitEthernet0/0 DHCPD: DHCPREQUEST received from 0050.7966.6800 DHCPD: No binding found for client 0050.7966.6800 DHCPD: Adding binding for client 0050.7966.6800 DHCPD: Sending DHCPACK to 0050.7966.6800 via GigabitEthernet0/0 DHCPD: DHCPINFORM received from 0050.7966.6800 DHCPD: Sending DHCPACK to 0050.7966.6800 via GigabitEthernet0/0 What does this output indicate?

A.The DHCP server failed to create a binding for the client.

B.The DHCP server successfully assigned an IP address to the client, and the client sent a DHCPINFORM to request additional parameters.

C.The DHCP client is using a relay agent because the DISCOVER was received on a different interface.

D.The DHCP server rejected the DHCPREQUEST because no binding was found.

AnswerB

The sequence shows a successful DORA process (DISCOVER, OFFER, REQUEST, ACK) followed by an INFORM, which is used to get additional options like DNS servers.

Why this answer

The debug output shows the DHCP server receiving a DHCPDISCOVER, sending a DHCPOFFER, receiving a DHCPREQUEST, creating a new binding, and sending a DHCPACK. The subsequent DHCPINFORM from the client is a standard request for additional configuration parameters (like DNS or domain name) after the client already has an IP address. The server responds with a DHCPACK, confirming successful assignment and parameter delivery.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DHCPINFORM and DHCPREQUEST, where candidates mistakenly think DHCPINFORM indicates a failure or that the client is requesting a new IP address, rather than understanding it is a normal request for additional parameters after the client already has an IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the output explicitly shows 'Adding binding for client 0050.7966.6800', indicating the binding was successfully created, not failed. Option C is wrong because the DHCPDISCOVER was received on interface GigabitEthernet0/0, and the server sends the DHCPOFFER via the same interface; there is no mention of a relay agent or a different interface. Option D is wrong because although the server initially logs 'No binding found for client', it immediately adds a binding and sends a DHCPACK, meaning the DHCPREQUEST was accepted and processed successfully.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

Which statement correctly describes the default authentication behavior for EEM policy files stored in flash?

A.EEM requires all policy files to be signed with a digital certificate.

B.EEM uses MD5 hash verification by default.

C.EEM does not perform any authentication or integrity check on policy files by default.

D.EEM uses the device's AAA configuration to authenticate policy execution.

AnswerC

By default, EEM trusts the file system and executes policies without authentication.

Why this answer

EEM does not enforce any authentication by default; policy files are executed as-is without integrity checks.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R7: R7# show logging | include %SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL *Mar 1 00:05:10.123: %SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL: Memory allocation failed for size 1024, from process 0x12345678, pool Processor *Mar 1 00:06:20.456: %SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL: Memory allocation failed for size 2048, from process 0x12345678, pool Processor *Mar 1 00:07:30.789: %SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL: Memory allocation failed for size 512, from process 0x12345678, pool Processor Based on this output, what is the most likely problem?

A.The router has a memory leak or is running out of memory in the Processor pool.

B.The router is experiencing high CPU utilization due to routing protocol updates.

C.The router's logging buffer is full and cannot store new messages.

D.The router has a hardware failure in the memory module.

AnswerA

Multiple MALLOCFAIL messages indicate that the router cannot allocate memory, which is a sign of memory exhaustion or a leak.

Why this answer

The output shows memory allocation failures in the Processor pool. This indicates that the router is running low on memory, which can cause various issues including process crashes, inability to allocate buffers, and overall instability. The process ID 0x12345678 is likely a specific process that is consuming memory or failing to allocate.

Full explanation →

Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements about MPLS label operations (push, swap, pop) are true? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers

A.The ingress LSR performs a label push operation.

B.The transit LSR performs a label swap operation.

C.The egress LSR always performs a label pop operation.

D.The penultimate hop router (PHP) performs a label pop operation.

E.Label operations are determined by the IP routing table.

AnswersA, B, D

The ingress LSR adds a label to an unlabeled IP packet to begin MPLS forwarding.

Why this answer

In MPLS, the ingress LSR pushes a label, transit LSRs swap labels, and the penultimate hop router (PHP) pops the label. The egress LSR does not perform label operations if PHP is used. Label operations are based on the label forwarding table, not the routing table directly.

Full explanation →

MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show ip sla statistics 3 Round Trip Time (RTT) for Index 3 Latest RTT: 150 ms Latest RTT (milliseconds): 150 Latest RTT (microseconds): 150000 Number of successes: 80 Number of failures: 20 Operation time to live: Forever Output: OK R1# show track 1 Track 1 IP SLA 3 reachability Reachability is Up 2 changes, last change 00:00:10 Latest operation return code: OK Latest RTT (milliseconds): 150 Tracked by: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 track 1 Based on this output, which statement is correct?

A.The static route is removed because the IP SLA operation has failures.

B.The IP SLA operation is considered reachable, and the tracked static route is active.

C.The IP SLA operation has a 20% failure rate, so the track should be down.

D.The IP SLA operation is using a wrong source address.

AnswerB

The track shows 'Up', meaning the IP SLA is reachable, and the static route is installed.

Why this answer

The track shows 'Reachability is Up' based on IP SLA 3. The IP SLA statistics show successes and failures, but the latest return code is OK, so the track is up. This means the static route is active.

The failures (20) indicate some probes failed, but the track still considers it reachable because the threshold for reachability is likely based on a percentage or consecutive failures.

Full explanation →

Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to verify and validate Route Maps and Route Filtering operational state into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps

Order

1Step 1

2Step 2

3Step 3

4Step 4

5Step 5

Why this order

First, display the route-map configuration and statistics with show route-map. Second, check which route-map is applied to interfaces or routing protocols using show ip policy. Third, verify the filtered prefixes in the BGP table with show ip bgp.

Fourth, confirm the impact on routing table entries with show ip route. Finally, test connectivity end-to-end using ping or traceroute.

Full explanation →

100

MCQmedium

Given the following partial DMVPN configuration on a hub router: interface Tunnel0 ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 ip nhrp network-id 100 ip nhrp authentication cisco123 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel mode gre multipoint ip nhrp map multicast dynamic ip nhrp redirect ! What is the purpose of the 'ip nhrp redirect' command?

A.It enables the hub to send redirect messages to spokes, telling them to use a direct tunnel to another spoke.

B.It causes the hub to redirect all traffic through the hub itself.

C.It enables the hub to dynamically map multicast addresses.

D.It disables NHRP on the tunnel interface.

AnswerA

This is the correct function of NHRP redirect in Phase 3 DMVPN.

Why this answer

In DMVPN Phase 3, the hub uses NHRP redirect to inform spokes about better paths to other spokes, enabling spoke-to-spoke direct tunnels.

Full explanation →

101

MCQhard

An engineer configures OSPF between two PE routers in an MPLS L3VPN backbone. Both routers are directly connected via a GigabitEthernet link. The OSPF adjacency forms and then repeatedly flaps between FULL and EXSTART. The engineer verifies that both routers have matching OSPF network types (broadcast), matching area IDs, and no authentication mismatch. What is the most likely cause of the flapping?

A.The MTU on one of the interfaces is lower than the other, causing DBD packet fragmentation.

B.The OSPF hello interval is mismatched between the two routers.

C.The OSPF dead interval is too short, causing the neighbor to be declared dead prematurely.

D.The OSPF router ID is duplicated on the segment.

AnswerA

Correct. A lower MTU on one side causes DBD packets to be dropped, preventing the adjacency from leaving EXSTART.

Why this answer

In OSPF, if the MTU of the interface on one side is smaller than the size of a Database Description (DBD) packet, the neighbor will be stuck in EXSTART or the adjacency will flap. This is because OSPF uses the interface MTU to determine the maximum size of DBD packets, and if a router receives a DBD packet larger than its interface MTU, it drops it and the neighbor relationship cannot progress. This is a common edge case when one interface has a reduced MTU (e.g., due to MPLS overhead or misconfiguration) while the other uses the default 1500 bytes.

Full explanation →

102

MCQhard

A network engineer configures EEM to monitor interface state changes on R1. R1 has: event manager applet INT-MONITOR event syslog pattern "%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN" action 1.0 cli command "enable" action 2.0 cli command "show ip route" action 3.0 syslog msg "Interface state change detected". After a link flap on interface GigabitEthernet0/1, the engineer notices that the EEM applet runs multiple times, but the show ip route output is incomplete. Router R2 shows: routing table updates are delayed. What is the root cause?

A.The EEM applet executes before the routing protocol has converged, showing incomplete routing information.

B.The syslog pattern matches too many events, causing the applet to run excessively.

C.The 'show ip route' command requires privileged mode, but the applet is already in privileged mode.

D.The interface flap is causing routing protocol instability, not the EEM applet.

AnswerA

The applet runs immediately, but routing updates take time; adding a delay ensures accurate output.

Why this answer

The EEM applet runs immediately upon the syslog message, but the routing protocol may not have converged yet. The show ip route command may show stale or incomplete routes because the routing table update occurs asynchronously. The correct fix is to add a delay using 'action wait' before executing the show command.

Full explanation →

103

MCQhard

An engineer configures OSPF on two routers connected via a point-to-point link. The routers are stuck in EXSTART state. 'show ip ospf neighbor' shows neighbor state EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The OSPF network type is mismatched (point-to-point vs broadcast).

B.The MTU on the interfaces is mismatched.

C.The OSPF router IDs are identical.

D.The hello/dead intervals are mismatched.

AnswerB

An MTU mismatch prevents DBD packets from being exchanged, causing the adjacency to remain in EXSTART.

Why this answer

In OSPF, the EXSTART state involves negotiating the master/slave relationship and the Database Description (DBD) packet size. If the MTU on the interfaces differs, the larger DBD packet from the router with the larger MTU will be dropped by the router with the smaller MTU, causing the adjacency to remain stuck in EXSTART. This is a common edge case that is often overlooked.

Full explanation →

104

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot a Control Plane Policing (CoPP) issue: R1# debug ip ospf adj OSPF adjacency debugging is on R1# *Mar 1 00:05:23.123: OSPF: Rcv pkt from 10.1.1.2, FastEthernet0/0, area 0.0.0.0, packet type: 1 (Hello) *Mar 1 00:05:23.123: OSPF: 2 Way Communication to 10.1.1.2 on FastEthernet0/0, state 2WAY *Mar 1 00:05:23.124: OSPF: Send immediate hello to nbr 10.1.1.2, src address 10.1.1.1, on FastEthernet0/0 *Mar 1 00:05:23.124: OSPF: Rcv pkt from 10.1.1.2, FastEthernet0/0, area 0.0.0.0, packet type: 2 (DBD) *Mar 1 00:05:23.125: OSPF: Rcv DBD from 10.1.1.2, seq 0x1234, opts 0x2, flag 0x7, mtu 1500 state EXSTART *Mar 1 00:05:23.126: OSPF: Nbr 10.1.1.2 has state FULL What does this output indicate?

A.OSPF adjacency is failing due to CoPP dropping Hello packets.

B.OSPF adjacency is established successfully, indicating CoPP is not blocking OSPF traffic.

C.OSPF is experiencing packet loss due to MTU mismatch.

D.OSPF is stuck in EXSTART state due to CoPP.

AnswerB

The adjacency reached FULL state, meaning OSPF packets are being processed correctly.

Why this answer

The debug output shows the OSPF adjacency progressing through the expected states (2WAY, EXSTART) and reaching FULL after receiving a Database Description (DBD) packet. This confirms that OSPF Hello and DBD packets are being processed normally, which means Control Plane Policing (CoPP) is not dropping OSPF traffic. CoPP would typically drop packets at the control plane, preventing state transitions like 2WAY or FULL.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that any debug output showing OSPF packet reception implies a problem, when in fact the sequence of states (2WAY to FULL) indicates successful adjacency formation, and candidates may incorrectly attribute normal behavior to CoPP failure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the debug output shows successful reception of Hello packets and progression to 2WAY state, indicating CoPP is not dropping Hello packets. Option C is wrong because the adjacency reaches FULL with MTU 1500 in the DBD, and an MTU mismatch would cause the adjacency to stall in EXSTART/EXCHANGE state, not reach FULL. Option D is wrong because the adjacency transitions from EXSTART to FULL after receiving the DBD, proving it is not stuck in EXSTART due to CoPP or any other reason.

Full explanation →

105

MCQhard

MPLS LDP neighbor mismatch is causing label distribution failures for summary routes. Router R1 and R2 are LDP peers. R1 has: mpls ip ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 mpls ip ! router ospf 1 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 ! R2 shows: R2# show mpls ldp neighbor Peer LDP Ident: 10.0.0.2:0, Transport address: 10.0.0.2 TCP connection: 10.0.0.2.646 - 10.0.0.1.646 State: Oper, Msgs sent/rcvd: 10/10 R2# show mpls forwarding-table 10.0.0.0/22 Local tag outgoing tag prefix tag(s) next-hop 16 Untagged 10.0.0.0/22 0 10.0.0.1 But R2 cannot forward traffic for 10.0.1.0/24. What is the root cause?

A.The OSPF summary suppresses the /24 routes, so LDP does not assign labels to them, causing forwarding failures.

B.LDP is not enabled on the interface, so no labels are exchanged.

C.The OSPF area range command is not supported with MPLS.

D.R2 has a static route for 10.0.1.0/24 that overrides LDP.

AnswerA

LDP only labels routes present in the routing table; the /24 routes are missing.

Why this answer

The OSPF area range command creates a summary route 10.0.0.0/22 in the routing table, but LDP assigns labels only to routes that are in the routing table. The more specific /24 routes are suppressed by the summary, so LDP does not have labels for them. When R2 receives a packet for 10.0.1.0/24, it looks up the route, finds the summary, and forwards it to R1 with a label, but R1 may not have a label for the specific /24, causing a label mismatch or blackholing.

The fix is to not summarize or to use label binding for more specific prefixes.

Full explanation →

106

MCQhard

An engineer configures route summarization in OSPF using the 'area range' command. After configuration, some routes are missing from the routing table of other routers. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The 'area range' command is configured with the 'not-advertise' keyword, suppressing the summary.

B.The summary route is being filtered by a distribute-list on the receiving router.

C.The component routes are not present in the OSPF database.

D.The summary route is being advertised with a metric that is too high.

AnswerA

The 'not-advertise' keyword explicitly prevents the summary route from being advertised, which would cause the routes to be missing.

Why this answer

The 'area range' command in OSPF creates a summary route that is advertised as a Type 3 LSA. However, if the 'not-advertise' keyword is used, the summary route is suppressed. Additionally, if the summary route is more specific than the component routes, it may be rejected by the receiving router due to OSPF's route selection rules.

Another edge case is that the summary route may be created but the component routes are still advertised individually if the 'advertise' keyword is not explicitly used (default is advertise).

Full explanation →

107

MCQmedium

snmp-server enable traps\nsnmp-server host 192.168.1.100 traps version 2c public\nsnmp-server host 192.168.1.200 informs version 2c public What is the effect of this configuration?

A.Traps are sent to 192.168.1.100 and informs are sent to 192.168.1.200.

B.Both hosts receive traps.

C.Both hosts receive informs.

D.Only traps are enabled; informs require SNMPv3.

AnswerA

The first host is configured for traps, the second for informs, as specified by the 'traps' and 'informs' keywords.

Why this answer

The configuration explicitly uses the 'traps' keyword for 192.168.1.100 and the 'informs' keyword for 192.168.1.200. In SNMP, the 'snmp-server host' command defines the destination and type of notification; 'traps' are unacknowledged UDP messages, while 'informs' are acknowledged (requiring a response from the receiver). Therefore, traps are sent to 192.168.1.100 and informs to 192.168.1.200, making option A correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that informs are only available in SNMPv3, but SNMPv2c also supports informs, and the 'traps' vs 'informs' keywords in the 'snmp-server host' command directly determine the notification type per destination.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the configuration specifies different notification types for each host; 192.168.1.200 is set to receive informs, not traps, so both hosts do not receive traps. Option C is wrong because 192.168.1.100 is configured to receive traps, not informs, so both hosts do not receive informs. Option D is wrong because informs are fully supported with SNMPv2c (as used here with version 2c); the statement that informs require SNMPv3 is incorrect—SNMPv2c supports informs, though they require a reliable transport mechanism.

Full explanation →

108

MCQmedium

Router R5 has this DHCP configuration: ip dhcp pool POOL3 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.0 default-router 172.16.0.1 option 150 ip 10.10.10.10 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown What is the purpose of the option 150 command?

A.It provides the IP address of a TFTP server to DHCP clients, typically used by VoIP phones.

B.It sets the DNS server for the DHCP pool.

C.It defines a custom option that is ignored by standard DHCP clients.

D.It specifies the default gateway for the clients.

AnswerA

Option 150 is used to specify a TFTP server for VoIP phones or other devices that need to download configuration files.

Why this answer

Option 150 is a DHCP option that specifies the IP address of a TFTP server. Cisco IP phones use this option to locate the TFTP server from which they download their configuration and firmware files. The correct answer is A because this is the standard purpose of option 150 in a Cisco VoIP environment.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse option 150 with option 66 (TFTP server name) or assume it is a generic custom option, but Cisco specifically tests that option 150 provides the TFTP server IP address for VoIP phones.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the DNS server is set using the 'dns-server' command in the DHCP pool, not option 150. Option C is wrong because option 150 is a well-known DHCP option defined by Cisco for TFTP server address, not a custom or ignored option. Option D is wrong because the default gateway is set using the 'default-router' command, not option 150.

Full explanation →

109

MCQhard

A router R1 is redistributing BGP routes into OSPF, but some prefixes are missing. Router R1 has the following relevant configuration: router bgp 65000 neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 65001 address-family ipv4 unicast neighbor 10.1.1.2 activate network 172.16.0.0 mask 255.255.255.0 router ospf 1 redistribute bgp 65000 subnets metric 100 Router R2 shows: show ip ospf database external 172.16.0.0 OSPF Router with ID 10.1.1.1 Type-5 AS External Link States LS age: 600 Options: (No TOS-capability, DC) LS Type: AS External Link Link State ID: 172.16.0.0 Advertising Router: 10.1.1.1 LS Seq Number: 80000001 Checksum: 0x1234 Length: 36 Network Mask: /24 Metric Type: 2 (Larger than any valid route) TOS: 0 Metric: 16777215 Forward Address: 0.0.0.0 External Route Tag: 0 What is the root cause?

A.The BGP route 172.16.0.0/24 is not in the routing table; check BGP table and next-hop reachability.

B.The metric 100 is too low; increase to match OSPF cost.

C.The subnets keyword is missing; add it to redistribute classful routes.

D.The OSPF process ID is mismatched; use process 1 on both routers.

AnswerA

OSPF redistributes only routes from routing table; if BGP route is not installed, OSPF may inject a default or max-metric route.

Why this answer

The metric of 16777215 (max) indicates the route is unreachable. This happens when BGP route is not valid (e.g., missing next-hop reachability) or when route-map sets metric to max. The BGP route may not be installed in routing table due to missing network statement or next-hop issue.

The correct fix is to ensure BGP route is valid and reachable.

Full explanation →

110

MCQhard

A network engineer configures IP SLA with a UDP echo operation to monitor a remote server. The IP SLA responder is configured on the remote router. The engineer notices that the operation shows 'Timeout' intermittently, but standard UDP connectivity tests from the router to the server succeed. The engineer checks the IP SLA responder configuration and finds that the control port is set to a non-default value. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The IP SLA responder is not configured to respond to UDP echo requests from the initiator.

B.The IP SLA initiator must be configured with the 'control' keyword to match the non-default control port on the responder.

C.The UDP echo operation uses a different protocol than standard UDP, causing packet drops.

D.The IP SLA operation has a threshold that is too low, causing the operation to time out.

AnswerB

The control port mismatch causes the initiator to fail to establish the operation, leading to timeouts.

Why this answer

IP SLA UDP echo operations require the IP SLA responder to be configured with the correct control port. If the responder uses a non-default control port, the initiator must be configured to use that port using the 'control' keyword under the IP SLA operation. Without this, the initiator uses the default control port (1967), causing communication failures and intermittent timeouts.

Full explanation →

111

MCQmedium

What is the default BGP administrative distance for routes learned from an external peer (eBGP) in Cisco IOS-XE?

A.20

B.200

C.110

D.120

AnswerA

In Cisco IOS-XE, the default administrative distance for eBGP routes is 20, which is lower than iBGP’s 200 and interior protocols like OSPF (110) or EIGRP (90). This value directly satisfies the stem’s constraint of “routes learned from an external peer (eBGP)” by ensuring eBGP-learned prefixes are preferred over those from most IGPs, reflecting the design principle that external paths should be trusted more than internal redistributions.

Why this answer

Cisco IOS-XE assigns eBGP routes an administrative distance of 20 by default.

Full explanation →

112

MCQhard

What is the default BGP update timer interval in Cisco IOS-XE?

A.30 seconds for eBGP, 0 seconds for iBGP

B.60 seconds for both eBGP and iBGP

C.5 seconds for eBGP, 15 seconds for iBGP

D.0 seconds for eBGP, 30 seconds for iBGP

AnswerA

Correct. The MRAI timer defaults to 30 seconds for eBGP and 0 for iBGP.

Why this answer

BGP does not have a fixed update timer like RIP; updates are triggered by changes, but the default minimum route advertisement interval (MRAI) is 30 seconds for eBGP and 0 seconds for iBGP.

Full explanation →

113

Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to troubleshoot Device Access Control adjacency or connectivity failures into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps

Order

1Step 1

2Step 2

3Step 3

4Step 4

5Step 5

Why this order

Start by verifying physical connectivity with ping to isolate Layer 1/2 issues. Then check the access control configuration on the interface to ensure it is not blocking traffic. Next, examine the adjacency table to confirm neighbor relationships.

After that, review logs for authentication or authorization errors. Finally, use debug commands to capture real-time access control events.

Full explanation →

114

MCQeasy

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot a Policy-Based Routing (PBR) issue: R1# show route-map PBR-MAP route-map PBR-MAP, permit, sequence 10 Match clauses: ip address (access-lists): 101 Set clauses: ip next-hop 10.1.1.2 Policy routing matches: 50 packets, 6000 bytes What does this output indicate?

A.PBR is successfully forwarding matching traffic to 10.1.1.2.

B.The next-hop 10.1.1.2 is not reachable.

C.The ACL 101 is misconfigured.

D.PBR is not applied to any interface.

AnswerA

The packet counter shows successful matches and forwarding.

Why this answer

The output shows that 50 packets have matched the route-map and have been policy-routed to next-hop 10.1.1.2. This indicates PBR is working.

Full explanation →

115

MCQhard

A network engineer configures EEM to monitor OSPF neighbor state changes. R1 has: event manager applet OSPF-MON event syslog pattern "%OSPF-5-ADJCHG" action 1.0 cli command "enable" action 2.0 cli command "show ip ospf neighbor" action 3.0 syslog msg "OSPF neighbor change detected". After a link flap, the engineer notices that the EEM applet does not execute. Router R2 shows: OSPF neighbor state changes are logged, but no EEM actions occur. What is the root cause?

A.The EEM applet is not registered correctly; it needs to be enabled with 'event manager applet OSPF-MON trigger'

B.The syslog pattern matches, but the OSPF ADJCHG message is severity 5, which is below the default EEM syslog severity threshold of 4.

C.The 'action 1.0 cli command "enable"' fails because the applet is already in privileged mode.

D.The OSPF neighbor change is not generating a syslog message due to logging buffer size.

AnswerB

EEM syslog triggers require severity 0-4 by default; OSPF ADJCHG is severity 5.

Why this answer

The EEM applet uses the syslog pattern trigger, but the OSPF ADJCHG message is logged at severity 5 (notification). By default, EEM syslog triggers only match severity 0-4 (emergency through warning). The engineer must adjust the logging severity or use a different trigger (e.g., event syslog pattern with severity).

Full explanation →

116

MCQhard

A network engineer configures IP SLA with an HTTP GET operation to monitor a web server. The operation shows 'Success' but the response time is extremely high. The engineer checks the web server and finds it is overloaded. The engineer wants to configure a threshold so that the IP SLA operation triggers a track object when the response time exceeds 500 ms. Which configuration change is required?

A.Configure the 'threshold' command under the IP SLA operation and use the 'track' command with 'threshold' keyword in the track object.

B.Configure the 'timeout' command to 500 ms; the track object will automatically react to timeouts.

C.Use the 'reaction' command under the IP SLA operation to trigger a trap; the track object cannot react to thresholds.

D.Configure the IP SLA operation with a lower frequency to get more samples; the track object will average the response time.

AnswerA

The track object must be configured to monitor the threshold state using the 'threshold' keyword; otherwise, it only tracks reachability.

Why this answer

IP SLA HTTP operations measure response time, but to trigger a track object based on threshold violation, the engineer must configure the 'threshold' command under the IP SLA operation and then configure the track object to react to the 'threshold' state, not just the 'up/down' state. By default, track objects only track up/down, not threshold violations.

Full explanation →

117

MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show ip policy Interface Route-map GigabitEthernet0/0 PBR-QOS R1# show route-map PBR-QOS route-map PBR-QOS, permit, sequence 10 Match clauses: ip address (access-lists): 120 Set clauses: ip next-hop 10.0.0.2 Policy routing matches: 500 packets, 45000 bytes R1# show access-lists 120 Extended IP access list 120 10 permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any R1# debug ip policy Policy routing debugging is on *Mar 1 00:05:23.123: IP: s=192.168.1.100 (GigabitEthernet0/0), d=8.8.8.8, len 100, policy match *Mar 1 00:05:23.123: IP: s=192.168.1.100 (GigabitEthernet0/0), d=8.8.8.8, len 100, policy rejected Based on this output, what is the most likely problem?

A.The next-hop 10.0.0.2 is unreachable.

B.The access list 120 is misconfigured.

C.The route map is applied to the wrong interface.

D.The route map sequence number is incorrect.

AnswerA

The debug 'policy rejected' after a match typically means the set next-hop is not reachable, so the packet is not policy-routed.

Why this answer

The debug output shows 'policy match' followed by 'policy rejected'. This indicates that the packet matched the route map, but the set clause was not applied because the next-hop is unreachable or the route map's set condition fails (e.g., verify-availability if used, or next-hop not in routing table). The show route-map shows matches, but the packet is rejected and forwarded normally.

Full explanation →

118

MCQhard

A network engineer is troubleshooting a PBR route-map that is supposed to set the next-hop for traffic from a specific source to a different next-hop. The route-map is applied to the incoming interface, and the ACL matches the traffic. However, the engineer notices that the traffic is still being forwarded using the routing table. The engineer checks the route-map and sees that the 'set ip next-hop' command points to an IP address that is not reachable. What is the most likely result?

A.PBR will fall back to the routing table and forward the packet normally.

B.The packet will be dropped because PBR cannot forward it.

C.The router will send an ICMP unreachable message to the source.

D.The route-map will be ignored and all traffic will be dropped.

AnswerA

Correct because PBR uses the routing table if the next-hop is unreachable.

Why this answer

If the next-hop in a PBR set command is not reachable (i.e., not in the routing table), PBR will fall back to the routing table for forwarding. PBR does not drop the packet; it uses the default routing decision.

Full explanation →

119

MCQhard

R1 and R2 are connected via an IPsec VPN tunnel. They are running OSPF over the tunnel. R1's show ip ospf neighbor shows R2 as FULL, but R1's show ip ospf database shows the LSA from R2 but with a high age (e.g., 3600). R1's show ip route does not have routes from R2. What is the root cause?

A.The OSPF dead interval on R1's tunnel interface is too short, causing frequent neighbor resets and LSA aging.

B.The IPsec tunnel is dropping OSPF packets due to MTU issues.

C.OSPF network type is point-to-multipoint, causing LSA flooding issues.

D.R2 has a distribute-list out filtering OSPF routes.

AnswerA

A short dead interval causes the neighbor to be declared dead and re-established, but LSAs are not refreshed, leading to high age and eventual removal.

Why this answer

When the OSPF dead interval on R1's tunnel interface is too short, R1 may temporarily lose neighbor adjacency with R2, causing the LSA from R2 to be prematurely aged out (age reaches 3600, the MaxAge) and removed from the OSPF database. Even though the neighbor state shows FULL at the moment of inspection, the LSA has already been flushed due to a previous timeout, so routes are not installed in the routing table.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between neighbor state (which can appear FULL momentarily after a flap) and LSA age (which reflects the last successful refresh), leading candidates to overlook that a short dead interval can cause LSA expiration without a permanent neighbor down state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because MTU issues would typically cause OSPF packets to be fragmented or dropped, leading to neighbor state changes (e.g., stuck in EXSTART/EXCHANGE) or packet loss, not a FULL neighbor state with a high-aged LSA. Option C is wrong because point-to-multipoint network type does not inherently cause LSA flooding issues that result in a high age of 3600; it uses additional LSAs (Type 2) but still maintains proper aging. Option D is wrong because a distribute-list out on R2 would filter routes from being advertised into OSPF, which would prevent the LSA from being generated in the first place, not cause an existing LSA to age to 3600 while the neighbor remains FULL.

Full explanation →

120

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot an IPv4 Access Control Lists issue: R1# debug ip packet 150 IP packet debugging is on for access list 150 *Mar 1 00:25:45.678: IP: s=192.168.1.1 (GigabitEthernet0/0), d=10.1.1.1, len 100, proto UDP, flags 0x0, sport 12345, dport 53, access list 150: matched line 10 permit udp host 192.168.1.1 host 10.1.1.1 eq 53 *Mar 1 00:25:45.679: IP: s=192.168.1.1 (GigabitEthernet0/0), d=10.1.1.1, len 100, proto TCP, flags 0x2, sport 12346, dport 53, access list 150: matched line 20 permit tcp host 192.168.1.1 host 10.1.1.1 eq 53 What does this output indicate?

A.DNS traffic from 192.168.1.1 to 10.1.1.1 is being permitted by ACL 150.

B.DNS traffic from 192.168.1.1 to 10.1.1.1 is being denied by ACL 150.

C.ACL 150 is applied outbound on GigabitEthernet0/0.

D.ACL 150 has no line 10 or 20.

AnswerA

Both UDP and TCP DNS packets match permit lines.

Why this answer

The debug output shows that packets from source 192.168.1.1 to destination 10.1.1.1 with destination port 53 (DNS) are matching permit statements in ACL 150 (line 10 for UDP and line 20 for TCP). Since the ACL is permitting these packets, DNS traffic is allowed through the interface where the ACL is applied.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that 'debug ip packet' output shows only denied packets, but it actually shows all packets that match the ACL, whether permitted or denied, and the 'permit' or 'deny' keyword in the matched line is what determines the action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the debug output explicitly shows 'permit' for both UDP and TCP DNS packets, not 'deny'. Option C is wrong because the debug output does not indicate the direction (inbound or outbound) of the ACL application; it only shows that packets are being matched against ACL 150 on GigabitEthernet0/0, but the direction is not specified. Option D is wrong because the debug output clearly shows 'matched line 10' and 'matched line 20', confirming that lines 10 and 20 exist in ACL 150.

Full explanation →

121

Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO configuration steps are required to enable SNMPv3 with authentication and encryption on a Cisco router? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers

A.snmp-server group GROUP v3 priv

B.snmp-server user USER GROUP v3 auth sha PASSWORD priv aes 128 PASSWORD

C.snmp-server community PUBLIC ro

D.snmp-server host 10.1.1.1 version 3 priv USER

E.snmp-server enable traps

AnswersA, B

Creates an SNMPv3 group with the 'priv' keyword to enable encryption.

Why this answer

The `snmp-server group GROUP v3 priv` command creates an SNMPv3 group that enforces the `priv` security level, which requires both authentication and encryption for all users in that group. This is the foundational step to enable SNMPv3 with auth and encryption, as the group defines the minimum security model (noAuthNoPriv, authNoPriv, or authPriv) that users must meet. Without this group configuration, users cannot be assigned the necessary privileges for encrypted communication.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the group-level security level and the user-level auth/priv parameters; the trap here is that candidates think only the user command is needed, forgetting that the group must first be configured with `priv` to allow the user to use encryption.

Full explanation →

122

Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to verify and validate SPAN, RSPAN, and ERSPAN operational state into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps

Order

1Step 1

2Step 2

3Step 3

4Step 4

5Step 5

Why this order

First, use show monitor session all to list all sessions. Then, inspect the specific session details with show monitor session <id>. Next, check the RSPAN VLAN status if using RSPAN.

After that, verify ERSPAN packet capture at the destination. Finally, confirm that the mirrored traffic matches expected patterns.

Full explanation →

123

Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements about IPv6 First Hop Security (FHS) Source Guard are true? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers

A.IPv6 Source Guard dynamically creates binding entries for all IPv6 addresses learned via ND.

B.IPv6 Source Guard uses the IPv6 binding table to permit or deny traffic based on source address.

C.IPv6 Source Guard filters traffic based on the destination IPv6 address in the packet.

D.IPv6 Source Guard can be enabled on a per-interface or per-VLAN basis.

E.IPv6 Source Guard only works with addresses learned via DHCPv6.

AnswersB, D

Correct. Source Guard checks the source IPv6 address and MAC against the binding table and drops unauthorized traffic.

Why this answer

IPv6 Source Guard uses the IPv6 binding table (populated by ND snooping and/or DHCPv6 snooping) to permit or deny traffic based on the source IPv6 address in the packet. This prevents spoofing attacks by ensuring that only traffic from legitimate, learned source addresses is forwarded, similar to IPv4 Source Guard.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that IPv6 Source Guard creates its own bindings or only works with DHCPv6, when in fact it relies on the binding table built by ND snooping and DHCPv6 snooping, and it filters based on source address, not destination.

Full explanation →

124

MCQmedium

When troubleshooting SNMPv3 authentication failures, which default HMAC algorithm is used if the user is configured with "auth md5"?

A.HMAC-SHA-96

B.HMAC-MD5-96

C.HMAC-SHA-256

D.No HMAC is used; MD5 is used directly.

AnswerB

RFC 3414 defines HMAC-MD5-96 as the authentication protocol for usmHMACMD5AuthProtocol.

Why this answer

When a user is configured with 'auth md5' in SNMPv3, the default HMAC algorithm used is HMAC-MD5-96. This is defined in RFC 3414, which specifies that the authentication protocol 'MD5' actually refers to HMAC-MD5-96, not raw MD5. The HMAC construction provides keyed hashing for message integrity and authentication, and the '-96' indicates that the output is truncated to 96 bits (12 bytes).

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that 'auth md5' uses raw MD5 directly, when in fact SNMPv3 always wraps the hash in an HMAC construction, and the '-96' suffix indicates the truncated output length.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HMAC-SHA-96 is used when the user is configured with 'auth sha', not 'auth md5'. Option C is wrong because HMAC-SHA-256 is a stronger hash used with 'auth sha-256' in newer SNMPv3 implementations, not with 'auth md5'. Option D is wrong because SNMPv3 always uses HMAC (keyed-hash) for authentication, never raw MD5 directly; the 'auth md5' configuration invokes HMAC-MD5-96 per RFC 3414.

Full explanation →

125

MCQhard

A network using IPv6 over IPv4 ISATAP tunnels is experiencing connectivity issues. Router R1 has the following relevant configuration: interface Tunnel0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::/64 eui-64 tunnel source 192.0.2.1 tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap. Router R2 shows: R2# show ipv6 interface Tunnel0 Tunnel0 is up, line protocol is up IPv6 is enabled, link-local address is FE80::5EFE:192.0.2.2 Global unicast address(es): 2001:DB8:1::5EFE:192.0.2.2. What is the root cause?

A.The IPv6 address on R1 should be configured without the eui-64 keyword to allow manual assignment.

B.The tunnel mode should be ipv6ip isatap on both ends, but R2's address shows correct ISATAP format, indicating R1's address is wrong.

C.The tunnel source on R1 should be the IPv4 address of R2.

D.ISATAP requires the use of a link-local address only.

AnswerB

R1's address uses EUI-64, which does not produce the ISATAP-specific interface identifier, causing address mismatch.

Why this answer

ISATAP tunnels require both endpoints to use the same tunnel mode (ipv6ip isatap) and to form the IPv6 interface identifier from the IPv4 tunnel source using the format ::5EFE:w.x.y.z. R2's global address 2001:DB8:1::5EFE:192.0.2.2 correctly embeds its IPv4 address 192.0.2.2, but R1's configuration with the eui-64 keyword causes it to derive an interface identifier from its MAC address instead of the required ISATAP format. This mismatch prevents proper IPv6 neighbor discovery and connectivity over the tunnel.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between standard EUI-64 address generation and ISATAP's fixed interface identifier format, trapping candidates who assume that eui-64 is always correct for IPv6 tunnel interfaces.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because removing the eui-64 keyword and manually assigning an address would not fix the root cause; the issue is that R1 must use the ISATAP-specific interface identifier (::5EFE:IPv4) derived from its tunnel source, not a manually assigned or MAC-based identifier. Option C is wrong because the tunnel source on R1 should be its own IPv4 address (192.0.2.1) to identify the tunnel endpoint; pointing to R2's IPv4 address would break the tunnel encapsulation. Option D is wrong because ISATAP tunnels support both link-local and global unicast addresses; the link-local address is automatically derived, but global addresses are required for end-to-end connectivity and are correctly used in this scenario.

Full explanation →

126

MCQhard

Router R1 and R2 are running OSPF and BGP. R1 is an ASBR redistributing BGP routes into OSPF. R2 is an ABR between area 0 and area 1. R2 has 'distance ospf external 150' configured. R3 in area 1 learns a BGP-redistributed route 10.0.0.0/8 via R2 with AD 150. R3 also learns the same prefix via a different path from R4 (another ABR) with AD 110 (default OSPF external). R3's 'show ip route 10.0.0.0' shows the route via R4. What is the root cause?

A.R2's 'distance ospf external 150' makes the external route less preferred than the default AD 110 from R4.

B.R4's route is an inter-area route (AD 110) while R2's route is external (AD 150), so inter-area is preferred.

C.R3 has a route-map that prefers routes from R4.

D.The route from R2 is not in the OSPF database due to a filter.

AnswerA

Higher AD means less trust; R3 chooses the lower AD route.

Why this answer

OSPF administrative distance can be set per route type. With 'distance ospf external 150', the external routes from R2 have AD 150, while routes from R4 have default AD 110. R3 prefers the route with lower AD (110 via R4).

This is expected behavior, but the question might imply that the route via R2 should be preferred due to some other reason. The correct answer is that the configuration on R2 increases the AD for external routes, making them less preferred.

Full explanation →

127

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot a NAT issue: R1# debug ip nat detailed NAT: s=10.1.1.1->10.2.2.2, d=192.168.1.1 [45] NAT: s=10.1.1.1->10.2.2.2, d=192.168.1.1 [46] NAT: s=10.1.1.1->10.2.2.2, d=192.168.1.1 [47] NAT*: s=192.168.1.1, d=10.2.2.2->10.1.1.1 [48] NAT: s=10.1.1.1->10.2.2.2, d=192.168.1.1 [49] What does this output indicate?

A.NAT is working correctly; the asterisk indicates a packet that was translated and fast-switched.

B.NAT is failing; the asterisk indicates a packet that was dropped.

C.NAT is working but only for outbound traffic; return traffic is not being translated.

D.NAT is not configured; the output shows only routing information.

AnswerA

The asterisk shows fast-switching, and translations are occurring bidirectionally.

Why this answer

The output shows successful NAT translations: the source IP 10.1.1.1 is translated to 10.2.2.2 for outbound packets (lines without asterisk), and the return packet from 192.168.1.1 has its destination translated back to 10.1.1.1 (line with asterisk). The asterisk in 'NAT*' indicates that the packet was both translated and fast-switched (process-switched packets lack the asterisk), confirming correct operation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the asterisk in NAT debug output indicates a problem or drop, when in fact it confirms fast-switched translation and successful bidirectional NAT operation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the asterisk does not indicate a dropped packet; it indicates a fast-switched translation, and the output shows successful translation of both outbound and return traffic. Option C is wrong because the return traffic is clearly being translated (line [48] shows destination translation from 10.2.2.2 to 10.1.1.1), so NAT is working bidirectionally. Option D is wrong because the output explicitly shows NAT translations (s=10.1.1.1->10.2.2.2), not routing information; the 'debug ip nat detailed' command only displays NAT events.

Full explanation →

128

MCQhard

A network engineer configures an EEM applet to monitor OSPF network type mismatches using the event syslog pattern 'OSPF-5-ADJCHG'. The applet is supposed to send a notification when an adjacency fails. Two routers are connected with an OSPF network type mismatch (one is broadcast, the other is point-to-point). The adjacency fails, but the EEM applet does not trigger. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.A network type mismatch prevents the routers from reaching the 2WAY state, so no OSPF-5-ADJCHG syslog is generated.

B.The EEM applet must use 'event ospf' to capture OSPF network type mismatches.

C.The network type mismatch generates a syslog with pattern 'OSPF-4-ERRRCV', but the EEM applet is looking for 'OSPF-5-ADJCHG'.

D.The OSPF process must be restarted for the EEM applet to detect the mismatch.

AnswerA

Correct. The adjacency fails early, and the syslog for state change is not generated because FULL was never reached.

Why this answer

When OSPF network types mismatch, the adjacency may fail during the database exchange process, but the syslog message generated is often 'OSPF-4-ERRRCV' or 'OSPF-5-ADJCHG' depending on the specific failure. However, if the mismatch is between broadcast and point-to-point, the routers may not even form a neighbor relationship because they interpret Hello packets differently. In some IOS versions, the syslog message is not generated at all because the routers never reach the 2WAY state.

The EEM applet relies on the 'OSPF-5-ADJCHG' pattern, which is only generated when there is a state change from FULL to DOWN or vice versa. If the adjacency never progresses beyond INIT, no ADJCHG message is produced.

Full explanation →

129

MCQeasy

A network engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two sites. R1 learns the prefix 10.0.0.0/8 via RIP (AD 120) from R2, and also via a directly connected interface on R3. The engineer notices that R1 uses the RIP route instead of the connected route. What is the most likely cause?

A.The connected interface on R3 has a higher metric than the RIP route.

B.The RIP route has an AD of 120, but the connected route is for a different subnet mask.

C.The distance rip 0 command was applied under RIP, making RIP routes have AD 0.

D.The connected interface is administratively down.

AnswerB

If the connected route is for 10.0.0.0/16 and the RIP route is for 10.0.0.0/8, they are different prefixes; the router will use the most specific match, but if the connected route is not for the exact prefix, RIP may be the only route.

Why this answer

Connected routes have an AD of 0, which is always preferred over any dynamic routing protocol. If the connected route is not used, it likely does not exist for that exact prefix, or the interface is down. However, if the prefix is learned via RIP with AD 120, the connected route should take precedence.

The only way RIP is preferred is if the connected route is not present for that prefix.

Full explanation →

130

MCQmedium

What is the default administrative distance for a route learned via the Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) protocol?

A.110

B.115

C.120

D.90

AnswerB

115 is the correct default AD for IS-IS routes.

Why this answer

IS-IS routes have a default administrative distance of 115.

Full explanation →

131

MCQhard

An engineer configures uRPF loose mode on an interface that is part of an IPv6 network with multiple equal-cost paths to the same destination via different interfaces. The router receives traffic from a source that is reachable via one of the paths, but the traffic arrives on a different interface. The traffic is dropped. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The source address is a link-local address (fe80::), which is not installed in the global routing table, causing uRPF loose mode to drop the packet.

B.The router has 'ipv6 uRPF strict' configured instead of loose, but the show command indicates loose.

C.The equal-cost paths cause the routing table to have multiple entries, and uRPF loose mode requires a single best path.

D.The interface has an IPv6 ACL that denies the traffic before uRPF is applied.

AnswerA

Correct. Link-local addresses are not in the routing table, so uRPF loose mode drops them.

Why this answer

In uRPF loose mode, the router checks that the source address of an incoming packet has a matching entry in the routing table, but it does not require that the packet arrives on the interface used to reach that source. However, link-local addresses (fe80::/10) are not installed in the global IPv6 routing table; they are only reachable on the local link. Therefore, when a packet with a link-local source address arrives, uRPF loose mode finds no matching route and drops the packet, regardless of the interface.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between uRPF strict and loose modes, but the trap here is that candidates forget link-local addresses are not in the global routing table, leading them to incorrectly attribute the drop to a mode mismatch or routing table issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if 'ipv6 uRPF strict' were configured, the packet would be dropped due to the interface mismatch, but the question states the show command indicates loose mode, so the configuration is correct. Option C is wrong because uRPF loose mode does not require a single best path; it only checks for the existence of any route to the source, and multiple equal-cost paths are perfectly valid. Option D is wrong because an IPv6 ACL would be applied before uRPF, but the question states the traffic is dropped due to uRPF, not an ACL; if an ACL were the cause, the drop would be attributed to the ACL, not uRPF.

Full explanation →

132

Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps to troubleshoot IPv6 First Hop Security adjacency or connectivity failures into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps

Order

1Step 1

2Step 2

3Step 3

4Step 4

5Step 5

Why this order

Start by checking basic connectivity with ping. Then examine the neighbor cache for incomplete entries. Verify if IPv6 snooping is enabled and inspect the binding table.

Check RA Guard and DHCPv6 Guard policies that may drop packets. Finally, use debug ipv6 snooping to capture packet drops.

Full explanation →

133

MCQhard

An engineer configures an IPsec VPN between two routers using a transform-set with ESP encryption (AES 256) and ESP authentication (SHA-256). The engineer also applies an IPv4 ACL to define interesting traffic that matches all IP traffic. After configuration, the VPN tunnel comes up, but only ICMP traffic is encrypted; other traffic like HTTP is sent in clear text. What is the most likely explanation?

A.The ACL for interesting traffic only permits ICMP, so only ICMP is encrypted.

B.The transform-set does not support HTTP traffic due to port filtering.

C.The IPsec SA is only established for ICMP; other traffic requires a separate SA.

D.The router has a NAT rule that bypasses IPsec for HTTP traffic.

AnswerA

IPsec uses the ACL to determine which traffic to protect; if only ICMP is permitted, other traffic is not encrypted.

Why this answer

The most likely explanation is that the ACL for interesting traffic only permits ICMP, so only ICMP is encrypted. In Cisco IOS, the crypto map uses the ACL to identify which traffic should be protected by IPsec. If the ACL only matches ICMP (e.g., 'permit icmp any any'), then only ICMP packets trigger IPsec encryption; all other traffic, such as HTTP, is forwarded in clear text because it does not match the ACL and is therefore not subject to IPsec processing.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the transform-set or the IPsec SA itself filters traffic by port or protocol, when in reality the ACL is the sole mechanism for defining interesting traffic in a crypto map.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because transform-sets define encryption and authentication algorithms (e.g., ESP with AES 256 and SHA-256) and do not perform port filtering; they apply to all traffic matched by the ACL. Option C is wrong because IPsec SAs are established per traffic selector (as defined by the ACL), but if the ACL only matches ICMP, only one SA is created for ICMP; other traffic like HTTP would not trigger a separate SA because it is not matched by the ACL. Option D is wrong because while a NAT rule could bypass IPsec, the question states the tunnel comes up and ICMP is encrypted, indicating IPsec is functioning; the most direct and common cause is a restrictive ACL, not a NAT misconfiguration.

Full explanation →

134

Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO configuration steps are required to enable TACACS+ authentication for device access control on a Cisco IOS router, assuming the TACACS+ server is already reachable? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers

A.Configure the TACACS+ server with the 'tacacs server' command and specify the server IP and key.

B.Create an AAA authentication login method list using 'aaa authentication login default group tacacs+' to use TACACS+ as the primary method.

C.Configure 'aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+' to authorize user commands after authentication.

D.Use 'radius-server host' to define the authentication server.

E.Enable 'aaa new-model' to activate AAA services.

AnswersA, B

This is required to define the TACACS+ server for the router to communicate with.

Why this answer

The 'tacacs server' command is required to define the TACACS+ server's IP address and the shared secret key, which is necessary for the router to communicate securely with the server. Option B is correct because 'aaa authentication login default group tacacs+' creates an authentication method list that tells the router to use TACACS+ as the primary method for login authentication, which is essential for device access control.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between authentication (verifying identity) and authorization (granting permissions), so candidates mistakenly select authorization commands like 'aaa authorization exec' when the question explicitly asks for authentication steps.

Full explanation →

135

MCQmedium

A network engineer is troubleshooting a routing issue in an EIGRP network. Router R1 is not learning a specific route from its neighbor R2, even though R2 has the route in its routing table. The engineer checks the EIGRP topology table on R1 and does not see the route. The output of 'show ip eigrp neighbors' shows that R1 and R2 are adjacent. What should the engineer check next?

A.Check if a distribute-list in or out is applied under the EIGRP process on R1.

B.Check if the route is being summarized on R2.

C.Check if the EIGRP metric for the route is too high.

D.Check if the route is a connected route on R2.

AnswerA

Correct because a distribute-list can filter incoming or outgoing routes, preventing them from being added to the topology table.

Why this answer

If R1 and R2 are EIGRP neighbors but R1 does not have the route in its topology table, a distribute-list applied inbound on R1 or outbound on R2 could be filtering the route. Distribute-lists use access-lists or prefix-lists to permit or deny routes during the update process, preventing specific routes from being installed in the topology table even though the neighbor adjacency is established.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a route being absent from the topology table versus being present but not selected as the best path; candidates may incorrectly assume metric issues or summarization when the real cause is a distribute-list filtering the route before it enters the topology table.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because route summarization on R2 would cause R1 to see a summary route (possibly with a null0 next-hop) rather than the specific route, but the specific route would still appear in R2's routing table and R1 would see the summary in its topology table; the question states the route is not seen at all in R1's topology table. Option C is wrong because EIGRP does not have a maximum metric threshold that would cause a route to be hidden; a high metric would still result in the route being present in the topology table, though it might not be selected as the best path. Option D is wrong because whether the route is connected on R2 is irrelevant; EIGRP can redistribute connected routes, and if the route is in R2's routing table, it should be advertised to neighbors unless filtering is applied.

Full explanation →

136

MCQhard

An engineer configures OSPF on two routers connected via a serial link. The MTU on one side is 1500 and on the other is 1400. The OSPF adjacency forms but stays stuck in EXSTART state. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The router with the larger MTU cannot process OSPF hello packets from the neighbor.

B.The router with the smaller MTU rejects DBD packets that exceed its MTU, preventing the exchange of LSAs.

C.The OSPF network type must be point-to-point for serial links; otherwise, the adjacency fails.

D.The OSPF process ID must match on both routers for adjacency to form.

AnswerB

DBD packets must fit within the interface MTU; a mismatch causes the adjacency to stall in EXSTART.

Why this answer

OSPF uses the interface MTU to determine the maximum size of Database Description (DBD) packets. If the MTU mismatches, the router with the smaller MTU will reject DBD packets from the neighbor, causing the adjacency to remain in EXSTART state.

Full explanation →

137

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot a VRF-Lite MPLS LDP issue: R1# show mpls ldp bindings vrf CUSTOMER_F Output: lib entry: 10.4.4.0/24, rev 2 local binding: label: 16 remote binding: lsr: 2.2.2.2:0, label: 20 lib entry: 10.5.5.0/24, rev 3 local binding: label: 17 remote binding: lsr: 2.2.2.2:0, label: 21 What does this output indicate?

A.MPLS LDP has not established a session with the remote LSR 2.2.2.2.

B.The VRF CUSTOMER_F has two prefixes with local labels 16 and 17, and remote labels 20 and 21 from LSR 2.2.2.2.

C.The labels are not being used because the VRF is not configured correctly.

D.The remote LSR is using the same labels as the local router.

AnswerB

Correct. The output shows local and remote label bindings for two prefixes.

Why this answer

The 'show mpls ldp bindings vrf' command displays MPLS label bindings for a specific VRF. The output shows two prefixes (10.4.4.0/24 and 10.5.5.0/24) with local labels (16 and 17) and remote labels (20 and 21) from LSR 2.2.2.2. This indicates that LDP has successfully exchanged labels for these prefixes within the VRF.

Full explanation →

138

MCQhard

Which syslog facility code is used by default for Cisco IOS messages when sent to a syslog server?

A.Facility 16 (local0)

B.Facility 20 (local4)

C.Facility 23 (local7)

D.Facility 24 (no default)

AnswerB

Cisco IOS uses local4 (facility 20) as the default syslog facility.

Why this answer

Cisco IOS defaults to facility code 20 (local4) for syslog messages.

Full explanation →

139

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot an MPLS L3VPN issue: R1# debug ip bgp updates Output: *Mar 1 00:01:23.456: BGP(0): 10.0.0.2 UPDATE out w/ attr: nexthop 10.0.0.1, origin i, metric 0, path 65000, extended community RT:100:100 *Mar 1 00:01:23.456: BGP(0): 10.0.0.2 UPDATE out for 10.1.1.0/24 *Mar 1 00:01:23.456: BGP(0): 10.0.0.2 UPDATE run, update group 1 What does this output indicate?

A.R1 is advertising prefix 10.1.1.0/24 to BGP peer 10.0.0.2

B.R1 is receiving an update for 10.1.1.0/24 from 10.0.0.2

C.R1 is withdrawing prefix 10.1.1.0/24

D.R1 is using OSPF to advertise the prefix

AnswerA

The output clearly shows an UPDATE out for 10.1.1.0/24 to 10.0.0.2.

Why this answer

The debug ip bgp updates output shows that router R1 is sending a BGP update to neighbor 10.0.0.2 for prefix 10.1.1.0/24. The attributes include next hop 10.0.0.1, origin IGP, metric 0, AS path 65000, and extended community RT:100:100. This indicates a VPNv4 update is being advertised.

Full explanation →

140

MCQhard

Which BGP attribute is considered 'well-known mandatory' and must be present in all BGP update messages?

A.LOCAL_PREF

B.AS_PATH

C.MED

D.COMMUNITY

AnswerB

Correct. AS_PATH is well-known mandatory.

Why this answer

The AS_PATH attribute is well-known mandatory, meaning it must be included in all BGP updates. Other well-known mandatory attributes include NEXT_HOP and ORIGIN.

Full explanation →

141

MCQeasy

Which NetFlow version introduced the concept of templates to support variable-length flow records?

A.NetFlow version 5

B.NetFlow version 9

C.NetFlow version 8

D.NetFlow version 10 (IPFIX)

AnswerB

Correct. Version 9 introduced template-based flow records.

Why this answer

NetFlow version 9 introduced templates, allowing flexible and extensible flow record formats.

Full explanation →

142

MCQhard

A network engineer configures SNMPv3 with authentication only (no privacy) on a router. The NMS can poll the router successfully. Later, the engineer adds the 'priv' option to the user configuration. The NMS now fails to poll the router. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The NMS is still configured with the old credentials that do not include the privacy protocol and key.

B.The router's SNMP engine ID changed when the user was modified.

C.The privacy protocol (e.g., AES) is not supported on the router.

D.The NMS must restart to recognize the new security level.

AnswerA

SNMPv3 requires that both the agent and NMS agree on the security level; if the agent requires privacy but the NMS does not provide it, the request fails.

Why this answer

When the engineer adds the 'priv' option to the SNMPv3 user configuration on the router, the security level changes from authNoPriv to authPriv. The NMS must be updated with the matching privacy protocol (e.g., AES or DES) and the corresponding privacy key. If the NMS still uses the old credentials without the privacy parameters, the authentication will succeed but the privacy decryption will fail, causing the NMS to reject the response and report a polling failure.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that changing an SNMPv3 user's security level only requires a change on the router, but the trap is that the NMS must also be updated with the matching privacy protocol and key, otherwise the mismatch in security levels causes the polling to fail.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because modifying an SNMPv3 user's security level does not change the engine ID; the engine ID is typically derived from the router's MAC address or configured manually and remains stable. Option C is wrong because if the privacy protocol (e.g., AES) were not supported, the router would reject the 'priv' option at configuration time, not cause a later polling failure. Option D is wrong because the NMS does not need a restart to recognize a new security level; it only requires updated credentials in its SNMP configuration.

Full explanation →

143

MCQhard

An engineer configures IPsec between two routers using a site-to-site VPN. The tunnel is established, but traffic is not encrypted. The engineer checks the crypto map and sees that the ACL for interesting traffic is configured correctly. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The ACL on the remote router does not mirror the local ACL, so the remote router does not initiate an SA for the return traffic.

B.The crypto map is applied to the wrong interface (e.g., the inside interface instead of the outside interface).

C.The transform set uses ESP with authentication only, which does not provide encryption.

D.The IKE policy uses aggressive mode, which does not support encryption.

AnswerA

IPsec requires matching ACLs on both sides. If the remote ACL does not permit the return traffic, the SA will not be established for that direction, and traffic may be sent unencrypted.

Why this answer

A common edge case is that the ACL for interesting traffic is applied to the wrong interface or in the wrong direction. In site-to-site VPNs, the crypto map is applied to the outbound interface of the traffic. However, if the ACL is configured with the wrong source/destination (e.g., using the tunnel IP instead of the real IP), traffic will not match.

Another less obvious issue is that the ACL must be symmetric; if the ACL on one router permits traffic from A to B, the other router must permit traffic from B to A. If one side is missing, the traffic may be sent but not encrypted because the other side does not have a matching SA.

Full explanation →

144

MCQhard

On a DMVPN Phase 2 hub-and-spoke network, an engineer applies an inbound IPv4 ACL on the tunnel interface of a spoke router to permit only traffic from specific spoke IPs. After the ACL is applied, the spoke cannot establish a direct spoke-to-spoke tunnel with another spoke, even though NHRP resolution succeeds. What is the most likely explanation?

A.The ACL is filtering the outer IP header of the mGRE tunnel, blocking spoke-to-spoke traffic.

B.The ACL is filtering NHRP packets, preventing spoke-to-spoke resolution.

C.The spoke has a misconfigured NHRP authentication key.

D.The ACL is applied outbound, filtering outgoing traffic.

AnswerA

The ACL on the tunnel interface filters the encapsulated packets; if it only permits the hub's IP, traffic from other spokes is denied.

Why this answer

In a DMVPN Phase 2 network, spoke-to-spoke traffic is encapsulated in a new IP header with the destination IP set to the target spoke's public address. When an inbound ACL is applied to the spoke's tunnel interface, it filters traffic after decapsulation, meaning it inspects the inner (original) IP header. However, the ACL is applied on the physical interface or the tunnel interface in a way that inadvertently filters the outer IP header of the mGRE tunnel, blocking the encapsulated spoke-to-spoke packets before they can be processed.

Since NHRP resolution succeeds, the spoke knows the peer's address, but the actual data traffic is dropped because the ACL denies the outer encapsulation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between filtering the outer IP header (physical interface) versus the inner IP header (tunnel interface) in DMVPN, leading candidates to incorrectly assume that an ACL on the tunnel interface always inspects the inner packet, when in fact the ACL placement and direction determine which header is evaluated.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because NHRP resolution succeeds, indicating that NHRP packets (which use UDP port 1701) are not being filtered by the ACL; if they were, the spoke would not be able to resolve the target spoke's address. Option C is wrong because a misconfigured NHRP authentication key would prevent NHRP registration and resolution entirely, but the question states NHRP resolution succeeds. Option D is wrong because the ACL is explicitly stated as inbound on the tunnel interface; an outbound ACL would affect traffic leaving the spoke, not incoming spoke-to-spoke traffic, and the issue is with receiving traffic from the other spoke.

Full explanation →

145

MCQeasy

A network engineer runs the following command to troubleshoot an Administrative Distance issue: R1# show ip route summary Route Source Networks Subnets Overhead Memory (bytes) connected 2 0 0 512 static 1 0 0 256 eigrp 100 3 0 0 768 ospf 1 2 0 0 512 bgp 65001 1 0 0 256 internal 1 0 0 256 Total 10 0 0 2560 What does this output indicate?

A.The router has 10 routes total, with EIGRP contributing the most routes.

B.The administrative distance for EIGRP routes is 90.

C.The router is redistributing between OSPF and EIGRP.

D.The BGP route is preferred over the OSPF route for the same prefix.

AnswerA

EIGRP has 3 networks, which is the highest count among protocols.

Why this answer

The output shows a summary of routes from different sources. It does not show administrative distance values directly, but it lists the routing protocols and their route counts.

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146

MCQhard

A network engineer configures SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy on a router. The NMS polls the router successfully. The engineer then configures IPsec to encrypt all traffic between the router and the NMS. The NMS now fails to poll the router. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The IPsec configuration does not include an ACL that matches SNMP traffic (UDP port 161).

B.SNMPv3 encryption and IPsec encryption are incompatible and cannot be used together.

C.The IPsec configuration uses aggressive mode, which is incompatible with SNMPv3.

D.The router's SNMP process must be restarted after IPsec is configured.

AnswerA

If the IPsec crypto map's ACL does not match SNMP packets, the traffic is sent in clear text, but the NMS may expect encrypted traffic or the router may not process the packets correctly.

Why this answer

When IPsec is configured to encrypt traffic between the router and the NMS, it must explicitly match the SNMP traffic using an access control list (ACL) that permits UDP port 161. Without this ACL, the IPsec policy does not recognize SNMP packets as interesting traffic and does not apply encryption, but more critically, the IPsec security association (SA) may not be established for SNMP packets, causing them to be dropped or not processed correctly. The NMS fails to poll because the SNMP requests are not being encrypted/decrypted as expected, breaking communication.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that IPsec automatically encrypts all traffic on an interface, when in fact it requires an explicit ACL to match the desired traffic, and candidates may overlook the need to include SNMP (UDP 161) in that ACL.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SNMPv3 encryption (using DES or AES) and IPsec encryption operate at different layers (application vs. network) and can be used together without incompatibility; they are not mutually exclusive. Option C is wrong because aggressive mode is a phase 1 IKE negotiation mode that affects how the IPsec tunnel is established, not whether SNMPv3 traffic can pass through it; aggressive mode is compatible with SNMPv3. Option D is wrong because the SNMP process does not require a restart after IPsec is configured; IPsec operates at the network layer and does not interact with the SNMP agent process directly.

Full explanation →

147

MCQhard

An engineer configures EIGRP named mode on a router and uses an offset-list to increase the feasible distance (FD) of a specific route. Unexpectedly, the route is still installed in the routing table with the original metric. Which is the most likely explanation?

A.The offset-list was applied to outbound updates instead of inbound, so it affected the FD on the neighbor, not the local router.

B.The offset-list value was too large, causing the route to be suppressed.

C.The offset-list was applied to the wrong interface.

D.The route is a connected route, and offset-lists do not affect connected routes.

AnswerA

Correct. Offset-list direction matters; outbound affects neighbor's FD.

Why this answer

In EIGRP named mode, an offset-list applied to outbound updates modifies the metric on the route as advertised to neighbors, not the local router's feasible distance (FD). Since the local router's FD remains unchanged, the route is still installed with its original metric. To increase the FD locally, the offset-list must be applied to inbound updates.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between inbound and outbound offset-lists, trapping candidates who assume offset-lists always affect the local router's metric without considering the direction keyword.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a large offset-list value would increase the FD, potentially making the route less preferred or causing it to be suppressed only if it exceeds the variance or feasible successor conditions, but it would not leave the original metric unchanged. Option C is wrong because applying the offset-list to the wrong interface would affect routes learned on that interface, not universally leave the metric unchanged; the route would still be affected if learned via that interface. Option D is wrong because offset-lists can affect connected routes if they are redistributed into EIGRP, but the question implies the route is an EIGRP-learned route, and offset-lists do not apply to directly connected interfaces that are not part of the EIGRP topology.

Full explanation →

148

MCQmedium

When using an extended ACL to filter traffic, which fields can be matched? (Choose the most complete answer.)

A.Only source IP address.

B.Source and destination IP addresses, protocol, and port numbers.

C.Source IP address and destination port number only.

D.MAC address and IP address.

AnswerB

Correct. Extended ACLs can match these fields for fine-grained filtering.

Why this answer

Extended ACLs (access control lists) operate at Layer 3 and Layer 4 of the OSI model, allowing matching on source and destination IP addresses, protocol (e.g., TCP, UDP, ICMP), and port numbers. This granularity enables precise traffic filtering beyond the source-only limitation of standard ACLs. Option B correctly lists all these matchable fields, making it the most complete answer.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between standard and extended ACLs, trapping candidates who forget that extended ACLs can match protocol and port numbers in addition to source and destination IP addresses, leading them to choose an incomplete option like C or A.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it describes a standard ACL, which only matches on source IP address, not the extended ACL's capability. Option C is wrong because it omits destination IP address and protocol, which are essential fields in an extended ACL; extended ACLs can match both source and destination ports, not just destination. Option D is wrong because MAC addresses are Layer 2 fields matched by MAC ACLs or port security, not by extended IP ACLs; extended ACLs do not filter based on MAC addresses.

Full explanation →

149

MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show ip ospf database OSPF Router with ID (10.1.1.1) (Process ID 1) Router Link States (Area 0) Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count 10.1.1.1 10.1.1.1 100 0x80000001 0x00A0B0 1 10.2.2.2 10.2.2.2 200 0x80000003 0x00C0D0 2 Net Link States (Area 0) Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum 10.1.1.2 10.1.1.2 150 0x80000001 0x00E0F0 R1# show ip route ospf 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks O 10.2.2.0/24 [110/20] via 10.1.1.2, 00:10:00, FastEthernet0/0 Based on this output, what is a likely issue?

A.A route-map is filtering OSPF routes, causing only one route to be installed.

B.OSPF is not running on any interface.

C.The router ID is misconfigured.

D.The area is not configured correctly.

AnswerA

The database has more routes than the routing table, indicating filtering.

Why this answer

The OSPF database shows two routers and a net link, but only one OSPF route is in the routing table. This could be due to a route-map filtering OSPF routes. The correct answer is that a route-map may be filtering some OSPF routes from being installed.

Full explanation →

150

MCQmedium

A network engineer is troubleshooting a BGP route summarization issue. Router R1 is configured with the 'aggregate-address 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0' command without any keywords. The engineer notices that the ISP neighbor is receiving both the aggregate route and the more specific routes (192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.1.0/24, etc.), causing the ISP to prefer the specific routes. What should the engineer do to ensure the aggregate route is preferred?

A.Add the 'summary-only' keyword to the aggregate-address command.

B.Remove the network statements for the specific subnets from the BGP process.

C.Configure a route-map to set a higher local preference on the aggregate route.

D.Use the 'aggregate-address' command with the 'as-set' keyword.

AnswerA

Correct. The summary-only keyword suppresses the advertisement of more specific routes, leaving only the aggregate route.

Why this answer

By default, BGP prefers more specific routes over less specific ones. To make the aggregate route preferred, the engineer can use the 'summary-only' keyword to suppress specific routes, or use attributes like AS_PATH to make the aggregate more attractive.

Full explanation →

Cisco CCNP ENARSI 300-410 (300-410) — Questions 76–150