- A
Escalate the issue to legal because all residual risk must be eliminated.
Why wrong: Residual risk is not automatically a legal issue; organizations routinely operate with approved risk remaining after controls are applied.
- B
Document the residual risk and obtain formal acceptance from the risk owner.
When controls have reduced the likelihood and impact but some exposure remains, the remaining risk should be documented and formally accepted by the appropriate risk owner. This creates accountability, supports governance, and shows that the organization knowingly approved the remaining exposure after considering business value, cost, and tolerance.
- C
Remove MFA because the remaining risk is already low.
Why wrong: Removing an effective control would increase risk and is the opposite of what should happen after identifying remaining exposure.
- D
Treat the issue as resolved because monitoring alone eliminates all risk.
Why wrong: Monitoring helps detect suspicious activity, but it does not remove the underlying risk. Residual risk still exists and requires formal handling.
SY0-701 Security Program Management and Oversight Practice Question
This SY0-701 practice question tests your understanding of security program management and oversight. Read the scenario carefully and evaluate each option against the stated constraints before committing to an answer. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
After implementing MFA and stronger monitoring, a department still has a small chance of account misuse that could affect a low-value internal tool. The business owner reviews the remaining exposure and agrees it is within tolerance. What should happen next?
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
Document the residual risk and obtain formal acceptance from the risk owner.
Option B is correct because after implementing MFA and stronger monitoring, the remaining exposure is residual risk that must be formally documented and accepted by the risk owner (the business owner). This aligns with the risk management process in Security Program Management, where residual risk that falls within the organization's risk appetite is accepted rather than eliminated. The business owner's agreement indicates formal acceptance, which should be recorded for audit and compliance purposes.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Escalate the issue to legal because all residual risk must be eliminated.
Why it's wrong here
Residual risk is not automatically a legal issue; organizations routinely operate with approved risk remaining after controls are applied.
- ✓
Document the residual risk and obtain formal acceptance from the risk owner.
Why this is correct
When controls have reduced the likelihood and impact but some exposure remains, the remaining risk should be documented and formally accepted by the appropriate risk owner. This creates accountability, supports governance, and shows that the organization knowingly approved the remaining exposure after considering business value, cost, and tolerance.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
- ✗
Remove MFA because the remaining risk is already low.
Why it's wrong here
Removing an effective control would increase risk and is the opposite of what should happen after identifying remaining exposure.
- ✗
Treat the issue as resolved because monitoring alone eliminates all risk.
Why it's wrong here
Monitoring helps detect suspicious activity, but it does not remove the underlying risk. Residual risk still exists and requires formal handling.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
The trap here is that candidates may think all risk must be eliminated or that monitoring alone suffices, but CompTIA tests the understanding that residual risk can be accepted when it falls within the organization's risk appetite, especially for low-value assets.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
Residual risk is the risk that remains after controls (e.g., MFA, monitoring) are applied, and it is formally accepted via a risk acceptance form signed by the risk owner. In frameworks like NIST SP 800-37, this step is part of the 'Authorize' phase, where the risk owner acknowledges the residual risk and accepts it for a defined period. A real-world scenario is a low-value internal tool where the cost of additional controls exceeds the potential impact, so the business owner accepts the small chance of account misuse.
KKey Concepts to Remember
- Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
- Find the constraint that changes the correct option.
- Eliminate answers that are true in general but not in this case.
TExam Day Tips
- Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
- Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A security analyst at a medium-sized enterprise encounters this scenario during an investigation or architecture review. The correct answer reflects best practice for the specific threat or control described. Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option. Security exam questions test whether you can match controls to threats in context — not just recall definitions.
What to study next
Got this wrong? Here's your next step.
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FAQ
Questions learners often ask
What does this SY0-701 question test?
Security Program Management and Oversight — This question tests Security Program Management and Oversight — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Document the residual risk and obtain formal acceptance from the risk owner. — Option B is correct because after implementing MFA and stronger monitoring, the remaining exposure is residual risk that must be formally documented and accepted by the risk owner (the business owner). This aligns with the risk management process in Security Program Management, where residual risk that falls within the organization's risk appetite is accepted rather than eliminated. The business owner's agreement indicates formal acceptance, which should be recorded for audit and compliance purposes.
What should I do if I get this SY0-701 question wrong?
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
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Last reviewed: Jun 11, 2026
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