Question 1mediummultiple choice
Full question →mediummultiple choiceObjective-mapped
A security manager at a hospital is reviewing the annual vendor risk assessment for a cloud-based electronic health record (EHR) provider. The provider's SOC 2 Type II report, issued six months ago, identifies a significant deficiency in logical access controls: the provider failed to revoke access for former employees in a timely manner. The provider's management has asserted that this deficiency has been fully remediated, but the next SOC 2 audit is not scheduled for another eight months. The hospital's data protection policy requires that any vendor handling protected health information (PHI) must have a current SOC 2 Type II report with no unresolved significant deficiencies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the security manager?
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Good practice is not just finding the correct option. The wrong answers often show the exact trap the exam wants you to fall into.
A
Distractor review
Accept the vendor's assertion that the deficiency has been remediated and continue the relationship as is.
Accepting an unsupported assertion without independent verification contradicts the hospital's policy requiring a current SOC 2 report with no unresolved significant deficiencies. The manager should not rely solely on the vendor's word.
B
Best answer
Require the vendor to provide a bridge letter from their external auditor confirming that the remediation has been implemented and is operating effectively.
A bridge letter provides independent assurance that the deficiency has been corrected, bridging the gap until the next full audit. This satisfies policy requirements and is a standard practice in vendor risk management.
C
Distractor review
Immediately terminate the contract with the EHR provider and begin the process of selecting a new vendor.
Termination is a severe action that should be reserved for cases where the vendor cannot or will not demonstrate remediation. Since the vendor claims to have fixed the issue and can provide a bridge letter, termination is premature and would cause significant operational disruption.
D
Distractor review
Increase the frequency of manual access reviews performed by the hospital's internal IT staff on the vendor's systems.
Manual reviews by internal staff are not a substitute for an independent audit report. The hospital's policy specifically requires a current SOC 2 report; internal reviews do not fulfill this requirement and are not scalable or reliable for this purpose.
Common exam trap
Common exam trap: NAT rules depend on direction and matching traffic
NAT is not only about the public address. The inside/outside interface roles and the ACL or rule that matches traffic are just as important.
Technical deep dive
How to think about this question
NAT questions usually test address translation, overload/PAT behaviour, static mappings and whether the right traffic is being translated. Read the interface direction and address terms carefully.
KKey Concepts to Remember
- Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
- PAT allows many inside hosts to share one public address using ports.
- Inside local and inside global describe the private and translated addresses.
- NAT ACLs identify traffic for translation, not always security filtering.
TExam Day Tips
- Identify inside and outside interfaces first.
- Check whether the scenario needs static NAT, dynamic NAT or PAT.
- Do not confuse NAT matching ACLs with normal packet-filtering intent.
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Keep practising from the same exam bank, or move into a focused topic page if this question exposed a weak area.
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Question 5
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FAQ
Questions learners often ask
What does this SY0-701 question test?
Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Require the vendor to provide a bridge letter from their external auditor confirming that the remediation has been implemented and is operating effectively. — When a vendor's SOC 2 Type II report shows a significant deficiency that has been remediated but not yet audited, the most appropriate action is to require a bridge letter from the vendor's external auditor. A bridge letter is a formal attestation from the auditor that confirms the remediation has been implemented and operating effectively for a sufficient period, providing reasonable assurance until the next full audit. This maintains compliance with the hospital's policy while avoiding unnecessary disruption. Accepting the vendor's unsupported assertion (option A) is not acceptable because it lacks independent verification. Terminating the contract (option C) is too drastic and not necessary if the vendor has credible remediation. Increasing manual reviews by in-house staff (option D) is impractical and does not address the requirement for an independent audit report; it also places an undue burden on the hospital's resources.
What should I do if I get this SY0-701 question wrong?
Then try more questions from the same exam bank and focus on understanding why the wrong options are tempting.
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