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A finance application has a known vulnerability in a third-party reporting component. The vendor says a patch will not be available for six months, but the business cannot stop using the application. What is the BEST risk treatment for the organization to pursue next?

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A finance application has a known vulnerability in a third-party reporting component. The vendor says a patch will not be available for six months, but the business cannot stop using the application. What is the BEST risk treatment for the organization to pursue next?

Answer choices

Why each option matters

Good practice is not just finding the correct option. The wrong answers often show the exact trap the exam wants you to fall into.

A

Distractor review

Avoid the risk by shutting down the finance application immediately.

Avoiding the risk would remove exposure, but it would also stop a critical business service that cannot be taken offline for six months.

B

Best answer

Mitigate the risk by adding compensating controls and tracking residual risk until the patch is available.

This approach reduces the likelihood or impact of exploitation while keeping the business service running. Compensating controls such as increased monitoring, segmentation, additional access restrictions, and temporary workarounds are appropriate when a patch is unavailable. The organization can then document the remaining risk, assign an owner, and revisit the issue when the vendor releases the fix.

C

Distractor review

Transfer the risk by asking the vendor to guarantee that no incident will occur.

A guarantee is not a realistic risk treatment, and responsibility cannot simply be shifted away without contractual or technical controls.

D

Distractor review

Accept the risk because any delay in patching is automatically low priority.

Risk acceptance is only appropriate when the residual risk is within tolerance and formally approved. This situation still has meaningful exposure.

Common exam trap

Common exam trap: NAT rules depend on direction and matching traffic

NAT is not only about the public address. The inside/outside interface roles and the ACL or rule that matches traffic are just as important.

Technical deep dive

How to think about this question

NAT questions usually test address translation, overload/PAT behaviour, static mappings and whether the right traffic is being translated. Read the interface direction and address terms carefully.

KKey Concepts to Remember

  • Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
  • PAT allows many inside hosts to share one public address using ports.
  • Inside local and inside global describe the private and translated addresses.
  • NAT ACLs identify traffic for translation, not always security filtering.

TExam Day Tips

  • Identify inside and outside interfaces first.
  • Check whether the scenario needs static NAT, dynamic NAT or PAT.
  • Do not confuse NAT matching ACLs with normal packet-filtering intent.

Related practice questions

Related SY0-701 practice-question pages

Use these pages to review the topic behind this question. This is how one missed question becomes focused revision.

More questions from this exam

Keep practising from the same exam bank, or move into a focused topic page if this question exposed a weak area.

FAQ

Questions learners often ask

What does this SY0-701 question test?

Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.

What is the correct answer to this question?

The correct answer is: Mitigate the risk by adding compensating controls and tracking residual risk until the patch is available. — Mitigation is the best choice because the organization still needs the application, and the patch is not available. In Security+ scenarios, when you cannot eliminate a risk by removing the system, you reduce exposure through compensating controls and document residual risk. That may include extra monitoring, tighter network segmentation, limiting access, and a temporary operational workaround until the vendor patch is released. Why others are wrong: Avoiding the system would disrupt a required business function, so it is not practical. Transferring risk is limited here because you cannot outsource the vulnerability itself, and a vendor promise is not a control. Accepting the risk would require formal approval after determining that the remaining exposure is tolerable, which is not the case when a critical unpatched weakness remains.

What should I do if I get this SY0-701 question wrong?

Then try more questions from the same exam bank and focus on understanding why the wrong options are tempting.

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