PMP Multiple Select — 60 Questions

Question 1

Which TWO are inputs to the Control Schedule process? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Project management plan. The Control Schedule process monitors the status of project activities and manages schedule changes. The project management plan (B) is a key input because it contains the schedule management plan, which defines how the schedule will be controlled, including thresholds for variance and reporting formats. Work performance data (C) provides the raw observations and measurements of actual start/finish dates and progress against the schedule baseline, which is essential for calculating schedule variance.

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Schedule data

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Organizational process assets

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Schedule forecasts

Question 2

Which THREE are tools and techniques used in the Plan Risk Management process? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Meetings. Meetings (B) are a key tool and technique in the Plan Risk Management process because they bring stakeholders together to define the risk management approach, establish risk categories, and agree on risk thresholds. These meetings produce the risk management plan, which outlines how risk activities will be structured and performed throughout the project.

Answer

Probability and impact matrix

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Risk categorization

Question 3

Which TWO are key components of a project management plan? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Scope management plan. The project management plan is a formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled. The scope management plan and schedule management plan are subsidiary plans that are key components of the overall project management plan, as they detail the processes for defining, developing, monitoring, controlling, and verifying the project's scope and schedule.

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Stakeholder register

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Project charter

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Work performance data

Question 4

Which THREE of the following are common causes of project change requests?

Accepted Answer

Regulatory changes. Regulatory changes are a common cause of project change requests because new laws or compliance requirements (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS) can mandate modifications to project scope, deliverables, or processes. These external mandates often require immediate adjustments to avoid legal penalties, making them a frequent trigger for formal change requests in technology projects.

Answer

Team member vacation

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Budget surplus

Question 5

A project manager is building a new project team. Which TWO actions are most effective for establishing a high-performing team?

Accepted Answer

Conduct a kick-off meeting to align on goals and build rapport.. Option C is correct because a kick-off meeting aligns the team on project goals, establishes shared understanding, and builds rapport among members, which are foundational for collaboration and high performance. Option E is correct because developing a team charter with the team's input fosters ownership, clarifies norms, and sets expectations for communication and decision-making, directly contributing to team cohesion and effectiveness.

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Avoid discussing potential conflicts to maintain harmony.

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Mandate overtime to meet aggressive deadlines.

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Assign roles and responsibilities without team input.

Question 6

A project team is experiencing low morale due to high workload and unclear priorities. The project manager wants to improve motivation. Which TWO actions are most effective according to motivational theories?

Accepted Answer

Recognize individual contributions in team meetings.. Option A is correct because recognizing individual contributions in team meetings directly addresses the esteem needs in Maslow's hierarchy and provides positive reinforcement per Herzberg's hygiene-motivation theory. This action boosts morale by validating effort, which is critical when workload is high and priorities are unclear.

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Increase oversight to ensure no tasks are missed.

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Conduct a blame-free review of recent failures.

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Offer a bonus for meeting deadlines.

Question 7

During project execution, a project manager discovers that a key stakeholder is dissatisfied with the team's communication. The stakeholder feels left out of decisions and receives information too late. Which THREE actions should the project manager take to address this?

Accepted Answer

Invite the stakeholder to relevant project meetings and decision points.. Option A is correct because inviting the stakeholder to relevant meetings and decision points directly addresses their feeling of being left out. This action ensures the stakeholder is included in the communication loop and can participate in decisions that affect them, which is a key aspect of stakeholder engagement in project management.

Answer

Wait until the next stakeholder feedback cycle to address concerns.

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Reduce the number of status meetings to avoid information overload.

Question 8

Which THREE of the following are effective techniques for motivating a project team according to PMI?

Accepted Answer

Empower team members with autonomy and decision-making authority.. Empowering team members with autonomy and decision-making authority is a core motivation technique in PMI's leadership framework. It aligns with the 'Servant Leadership' approach, where the project manager enables the team by removing impediments and trusting them to own their work, which increases engagement and accountability.

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Offer competitive salaries and bonuses.

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Closely monitor team members' work to ensure compliance.

Question 9

Which TWO actions are effective for improving team performance in a virtual environment? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Schedule daily stand-up meetings via video conference.. Option C is correct because daily stand-up meetings via video conference foster regular communication, alignment, and accountability in a virtual team, which is a key practice in agile project management. Video adds non-verbal cues that improve engagement and trust, directly addressing the isolation common in remote work.

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Increase meeting duration to cover all topics in one session.

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Replace synchronous meetings with email updates.

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Encourage team members to record their contributions for later review.

Question 10

Which THREE of the following are key considerations when evaluating the strategic value of a proposed project during portfolio selection? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Strategic alignment. Strategic alignment (A) is a key consideration because it ensures the proposed project directly supports the organization's overarching goals and competitive strategy, which is the primary filter in portfolio selection. Without alignment, even a profitable project can divert resources from more critical strategic initiatives, leading to suboptimal portfolio value.

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Organizational culture

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Resource availability

Question 11

Which TWO of the following are typically included in a business case? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Cost-benefit analysis. The business case is a foundational document used to justify the initiation of a project or investment. It must demonstrate that the project is worthwhile, which is why a cost-benefit analysis (Option B) is a core component, quantifying the financial viability. Additionally, the business case must show how the project aligns with the organization's strategic objectives (Option C) to ensure it supports the broader business goals and receives executive sponsorship.

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Risk register

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Detailed project schedule

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Communication plan

Question 12

Which THREE are common techniques used for quantitative risk analysis? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Monte Carlo simulation. Monte Carlo simulation is a quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling to model the probability distribution of potential project outcomes. It allows the project manager to see the range of possible completion dates or costs and their associated probabilities, providing a data-driven basis for contingency reserves.

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SWOT analysis

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Checklist analysis

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the 'Plan Risk Management' process?

Accepted Answer

Risk budget. The 'Plan Risk Management' process is the first step in risk management planning, and its primary output is the Risk Management Plan (Option C). This plan defines how risk management activities will be structured and performed throughout the project. The Risk Budget (Option A) is also an output of this process, as it allocates funds specifically for risk responses, including contingency reserves, based on the agreed risk thresholds and management approach.

Answer

Work breakdown structure

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Probability and impact matrix

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Risk register

Question 14

A project manager is defining the benefits management plan. Which TWO of the following are key components of a benefits management plan?

Accepted Answer

Metrics for measuring benefits and the timing of measurement.. Option A is correct because the benefits management plan must define how benefits will be measured (e.g., KPIs, metrics) and when those measurements will occur (e.g., post-implementation review milestones). This ensures objective verification that the expected benefits have been realized. Option C is correct because the plan must explicitly state the target benefits (e.g., cost savings, revenue increase) and demonstrate how they align with the organization's strategic objectives, ensuring the project delivers value beyond its deliverables.

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS) for benefit delivery.

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Business case assumptions and constraints.

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Project charter approval signatures.

Question 15

A project manager is building a new team from scratch. To maximize team performance, which THREE actions should the project manager take during the forming stage?

Accepted Answer

Plan team-building activities to build relationships.. Option A is correct because during the forming stage of Tuckman's model, team members are often polite and uncertain; planned team-building activities help establish trust and social bonds, which are essential for later stages. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's emphasis on developing the team as a key process in the People domain.

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Empower the team to make all project decisions.

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Encourage open conflict to surface issues.

Question 16

Which THREE factors are most critical when selecting a conflict resolution technique for a project team? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

The personalities and relationship of the conflicting parties.. Option B is correct because the personalities and relationship of the conflicting parties directly influence which conflict resolution technique (e.g., collaborating, compromising, avoiding) will be effective. A technique that works for a collaborative team may fail with highly competitive individuals, so understanding interpersonal dynamics is critical for selecting an approach that de-escalates rather than intensifies the conflict.

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The cost of implementing the resolution technique.

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The organizational hierarchy and reporting structure.

Question 17

A project manager is leading a globally distributed team with members in different time zones. The team is experiencing communication breakdowns and missed deadlines. Which TWO actions should the project manager take to improve team performance? (Choose two)

Accepted Answer

Implement a shared collaboration tool that highlights time zones.. Option A is correct because a shared collaboration tool that highlights time zones directly addresses the challenge of coordinating across different time zones. By making time zone differences visible, team members can schedule meetings and deadlines more effectively, reducing communication breakdowns and missed deadlines. This is a practical, technology-enabled solution that supports asynchronous collaboration.

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Increase the frequency of status meetings to daily.

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Require all team members to work in a single time zone.

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Assign a single point of contact for each location to relay information.

Question 18

A project manager is developing the project schedule. Which TWO techniques can be used to compress the schedule without changing project scope?

Accepted Answer

Fast tracking. Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique that involves performing activities in parallel that would normally be done sequentially. This can shorten the project schedule without altering the project scope, as it only changes the logical relationships between tasks.

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Critical chain method

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Resource leveling

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Monte Carlo simulation

Question 19

A project manager is defining the benefits management plan for a new product launch. The company's strategy includes expanding into emerging markets. Which TWO elements must be included in the benefits management plan to align with the company's strategy?

Accepted Answer

Timeline for realizing benefits. The benefits management plan must include a timeline for realizing benefits (Option B) to ensure that the expected value from the product launch in emerging markets is achieved within a defined period, aligning with the company's strategic expansion. Target benefits such as market share increase (Option C) are also required to quantify the specific outcomes that support the strategy, providing measurable criteria for success.

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The business case justifying the project

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The project's strategic objectives

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The project scope statement

Question 20

Which THREE of the following are key inputs to the Develop Schedule process?

Accepted Answer

Resource requirements. Option A is correct because resource requirements (e.g., people, equipment, materials) are key inputs to the Develop Schedule process. They define the availability and capacity constraints that directly affect activity durations and the sequencing of work, enabling the creation of a realistic project schedule.

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Risk register

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Cost baseline