MS-900 Practice Exam 55 — 20 Questions

Question 1

Your organization is deploying Microsoft 365 and needs to ensure that data stored in Exchange Online is protected against accidental deletion. You need to implement a solution that allows users to recover deleted emails for up to 30 days, but also enables administrators to recover items for up to 90 days. Which feature should you configure?

Accepted Answer

Litigation Hold. Option B is correct because the Litigation Hold feature allows administrators to preserve mailbox items for a specified period, enabling recovery for up to 90 days. Single Item Recovery (A) only allows recovery within the deleted item retention period (default 14 days). In-Place Hold (C) is for eDiscovery holds, not general recovery. Retention Policy (D) manages retention but not recovery.

Answer

In-Place Hold

Answer

Single Item Recovery

Answer

Retention Policy

Question 2

A company wants to ensure that only managed and compliant devices can access corporate email in Microsoft 365. Which Microsoft Entra ID capability should they configure?

Accepted Answer

Conditional Access. Option B is correct because Conditional Access policies in Microsoft Entra ID can require devices to be compliant (e.g., via Intune) before granting access. Option A is incorrect because Identity Protection is for risk detection, not device compliance. Option C is incorrect because Privileged Identity Management is for managing admin roles. Option D is incorrect because Microsoft Authenticator is an app for MFA, not device compliance.

Answer

Microsoft Authenticator

Answer

Privileged Identity Management

Answer

Identity Protection

Question 3

A multinational company uses Microsoft 365 and wants to ensure that data stored in SharePoint Online is only accessible from specific geographic regions. The company has offices in the US, EU, and Asia. You need to implement a solution that restricts access based on the user's physical location. Which feature should you configure?

Accepted Answer

Conditional Access policies in Microsoft Entra ID. Option C is correct because Conditional Access policies can enforce location-based controls using IP addresses. Location-Based Policies (A) are not a built-in feature. Data Residency (B) is about data storage location, not access control. Geofencing (D) is a general concept but not a specific Microsoft 365 feature.

Answer

Data Residency in Microsoft Purview

Answer

Geofencing in Microsoft Intune

Answer

Location-Based Policies in SharePoint Admin Center

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. A Microsoft Entra ID role assignment is shown. An administrator is assigned the Global Reader role with a condition. What is the effect of the condition?

Accepted Answer

The condition has no practical effect because Global Reader already cannot write role assignments.. Option D is correct because the condition prevents the Global Reader from writing role assignments, but since Global Reader already cannot write role assignments, the condition is redundant. Option A is incorrect because Global Reader inherently cannot create users. Option B is incorrect because the condition does not restrict read access. Option C is incorrect because the condition only blocks role assignment write operations.

Answer

The administrator can create new users.

Answer

The administrator can only read security recommendations.

Answer

The administrator cannot assign roles to other users.

Question 5

Which THREE of the following are included in Microsoft Defender XDR? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Option A is correct because Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is part of Defender XDR. Option B is correct because Microsoft Defender for Endpoint is included. Option C is correct because Microsoft Defender for Identity is part of Defender XDR. Option D is incorrect because Microsoft Sentinel is a separate SIEM. Option E is incorrect because Microsoft Purview is a compliance solution.

Answer

Microsoft Purview

Answer

Microsoft Sentinel

Question 6

A compliance-aware administrator is selecting the right Microsoft 365 capability to require MFA only for sign-ins from outside trusted locations. Microsoft security, identity, or compliance capability should it use?

Accepted Answer

Conditional Access. Conditional Access is the correct Microsoft 365 capability because it allows administrators to create policies that enforce MFA based on specific conditions, such as sign-in location. By configuring a Conditional Access policy with a 'location' condition that includes trusted IP ranges (defined via named locations), you can require MFA only when users sign in from outside those trusted locations. This directly addresses the requirement for location-aware MFA enforcement without affecting sign-ins from trusted networks.

Answer

Microsoft Stream

Answer

Microsoft Planner

Answer

Microsoft Forms

Question 7

A company wants to prevent users from sharing documents that contain credit card numbers via email. When a user attempts to share such a document, they should see a policy tip explaining the restriction and the share should be blocked. Which Microsoft Purview solution should the compliance team configure?

Accepted Answer

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy. Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are specifically designed to detect sensitive information types—such as credit card numbers—in documents and emails, and then automatically block sharing while displaying a policy tip to the user. This matches the requirement exactly: DLP can inspect content for credit card patterns using built-in sensitive info types (e.g., Credit Card Number), enforce actions like 'Block' with an overridable policy tip, and apply to Exchange Online, SharePoint, OneDrive, and Teams. Retention policies only manage data lifecycle, not content-based blocking.

Answer

Retention policy

Answer

Sensitivity label

Answer

Information Barriers

Question 8

A company is evaluating a move to the cloud. Which three of the following are advantages of using a public cloud model compared to a private cloud? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Elastic scaling of resources on demand. In a public cloud model, the cloud provider owns and manages the physical hardware, eliminating the need for the customer to make capital expenditures (CapEx) on servers, storage, and networking equipment. Public clouds offer elastic scaling, allowing resources like virtual machines or containers to be automatically provisioned or deprovisioned based on real-time demand, which is a core benefit of cloud computing. Provider-managed infrastructure maintenance means the cloud vendor handles all hardware patching, firmware updates, and physical security, offloading these operational responsibilities from the customer.

Answer

Lower total cost for all long-term workloads

Answer

Full control over physical security of data centers

Answer

Guaranteed data residency in a specific geographic location

Question 9

A cloud provider bills a customer monthly based on the precise number of gigabytes of storage used and the number of virtual machine hours consumed. Which essential cloud computing characteristic does this billing model demonstrate?

Accepted Answer

Measured service. The billing model charges based on exact gigabytes of storage used and virtual machine hours consumed, which directly aligns with the 'measured service' characteristic. This means the cloud provider meters resource usage (e.g., storage IOPS, compute hours) and bills only for what is consumed, enabling pay-as-you-go pricing. Measured service relies on telemetry and monitoring systems (e.g., Azure Monitor, AWS CloudWatch) to track usage and generate invoices.

Answer

Resource pooling

Answer

On-demand self-service

Answer

Broad network access

Question 10

Which three of the following are characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

On-demand self-service. NIST SP 800-145 defines cloud computing by five essential characteristics. On-demand self-service allows a consumer to provision computing capabilities automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Broad network access means capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms (e.g., mobile phones, tablets, laptops, and workstations). Resource pooling enables the provider's computing resources to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model, with different physical and virtual resources dynamically assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand.

Answer

Dedicated hardware per tenant

Answer

Fixed pricing models

Answer

Limited scalability

Question 11

Which TWO Microsoft 365 services are primarily used for enterprise social networking and communication within an organization?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Teams. Microsoft Teams is correct because it serves as the primary hub for persistent chat, meetings, and collaboration, integrating enterprise social networking features such as channels, @mentions, and threaded conversations. Microsoft Viva Engage (formerly Yammer) is correct because it provides a dedicated enterprise social network for broad organizational communication, communities, and knowledge sharing, distinct from Teams' more team-focused interactions.

Answer

Microsoft SharePoint

Answer

Microsoft Stream

Answer

Exchange Online

Question 12

A user wants to access their work files from a personal laptop without installing any Microsoft 365 Apps. Which web-based service allows them to view and edit documents in a browser?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft 365 for the web. Microsoft 365 for the web (formerly Office Web Apps) provides browser-based versions of Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and OneNote, enabling users to view and edit documents without installing any local applications. This service is accessed through a web browser on any device, including a personal laptop, and requires only an internet connection and a valid Microsoft 365 subscription.

Answer

Microsoft OneDrive

Answer

Microsoft Teams

Answer

Microsoft SharePoint

Question 13

Which TWO Microsoft 365 plans include Microsoft Copilot for Microsoft 365 as a built-in feature? (Choose 2)

Accepted Answer

Microsoft 365 Business Premium. Microsoft Copilot for Microsoft 365 is included as a built-in feature only in the premium and enterprise-scale plans that include the full Microsoft 365 suite with advanced AI capabilities. Microsoft 365 Business Premium (A) and Microsoft 365 E5 (D) both include Copilot for Microsoft 365 as a standard component, providing AI-powered assistance across Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Outlook, and Teams without requiring an additional license.

Answer

Microsoft 365 E1

Answer

Microsoft 365 Business Basic

Answer

Microsoft 365 F3

Question 14

Which three of the following are key capabilities of Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise (formerly Office 365 ProPlus)? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Real-time co-authoring in Word, Excel, and PowerPoint. Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise provides always-up-to-date versions of core Office applications like Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and Outlook, with updates delivered via the Click-to-Run technology from the cloud. It allows installation on up to 5 PCs or Macs per user, enabling productivity across multiple devices. Real-time co-authoring in Word, Excel, and PowerPoint is a key capability, leveraging OneDrive or SharePoint to allow multiple users to edit the same document simultaneously.

Answer

On-premises deployment with perpetual licensing

Answer

Built-in video conferencing with unlimited meeting duration

Answer

Unlimited cloud storage per user in OneDrive

Question 15

A project manager needs to assign tasks to team members, set deadlines, and track progress in a shared workspace. The workspace should integrate with Outlook and Teams. Which Microsoft 365 app is best suited for this requirement?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Planner. Microsoft Planner is best suited because it provides a shared workspace with task assignment, deadline setting, and progress tracking via Kanban boards, and it integrates natively with Outlook for task synchronization and with Teams as a tab app for collaborative access.

Answer

Microsoft To Do

Answer

SharePoint

Answer

Microsoft Lists

Question 16

Which of the following are included as part of Microsoft 365 E3 or E5 subscriptions? Choose all that apply. (There are four correct answers.)

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Teams. Microsoft 365 E3 and E5 subscriptions include Microsoft Teams as a core collaboration service, Exchange Online with a 100 GB mailbox and unlimited archive storage via auto-expanding archiving, Windows 10/11 Enterprise E3 for device management and security, and Microsoft Defender for Office 365 (in E5, and as an add-on for E3 but included in the E5 suite). These are standard components of the enterprise-grade plans.

Answer

Microsoft 365 Personal (single user) license

Answer

Azure Active Directory Premium P1 only (not P2)

Question 17

Which TWO Microsoft 365 compliance features are available in Microsoft Purview to help organizations manage and protect sensitive data?

Accepted Answer

Data Lifecycle Management. Data Lifecycle Management (B) is correct because it enables organizations to govern their data through retention policies and retention labels, automatically retaining or deleting content based on regulatory requirements. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) (E) is correct because it identifies, monitors, and protects sensitive data across Microsoft 365 services (Exchange, SharePoint, OneDrive, Teams) by applying policies that prevent unauthorized sharing or leakage.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps

Answer

Microsoft Entra ID Protection

Answer

Microsoft Defender XDR

Question 18

Which THREE Microsoft 365 services are included in the Enterprise Mobility + Security (EMS) suite?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Intune. Microsoft Intune is a core component of Enterprise Mobility + Security (EMS) because it provides cloud-based mobile device management (MDM) and mobile application management (MAM) using the OMA-DM protocol. It enforces conditional access policies and allows IT to manage devices and applications without requiring on-premises infrastructure, directly aligning with EMS's goal of securing and managing endpoints.

Answer

Microsoft Sentinel

Answer

Microsoft Purview

Question 19

Your organization uses Microsoft 365 E5 and wants to implement Microsoft Copilot for Microsoft 365. Which licensing prerequisite must be met for each user?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft 365 E5. Microsoft Copilot for Microsoft 365 requires users to have a license that includes Microsoft 365 E5 or an equivalent (such as Microsoft 365 E3 plus the Copilot add-on). The question specifies that the organization already uses Microsoft 365 E5, which is the prerequisite license for Copilot without needing an additional add-on. Option C is correct because Microsoft 365 E5 includes the necessary AI and security features (e.g., Microsoft Graph, Azure AD Premium P2, and advanced compliance) that Copilot relies on.

Answer

Microsoft 365 F3

Answer

Microsoft 365 E3

Answer

Microsoft 365 Business Premium

Question 20

A hospital uses Microsoft 365 and wants to enable secure messaging between doctors and nurses that supports compliance with health data regulations. Which Microsoft 365 service provides encrypted, compliant messaging?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Teams. Microsoft Teams supports encrypted messaging and compliance with health data regulations like HIPAA through features such as data encryption at rest and in transit, Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies, and eDiscovery. It provides secure communication channels for healthcare professionals while meeting regulatory requirements for protected health information (PHI).

Answer

Microsoft Yammer

Answer

Microsoft Viva

Answer

Microsoft Bookings