FC0-U71 Practice Exam 53 — 20 Questions

Question 1

Which TWO of the following are common Ethernet cable categories used in local area networks?

Accepted Answer

Cat5e. Cat5e (A) is a standard twisted-pair Ethernet cable category rated for 100 MHz and commonly used for Gigabit Ethernet (1000BASE-T) in LANs, making it a correct answer. Cat6 (D) is also a twisted-pair Ethernet cable category rated for 250 MHz, supporting Gigabit Ethernet and 10GBASE-T at limited distances, so it is likewise correct. USB (B) is a serial bus interface for connecting peripherals, not an Ethernet cable category. Coaxial (C) is a cable type historically used in older Ethernet (10BASE5/10BASE2) and for cable broadband, but it is not one of the common modern Ethernet cable categories referenced here. HDMI (E) is a digital audio/video interface for displays, unrelated to Ethernet LAN cabling.

Answer

USB

Answer

Coaxial

Answer

HDMI

Question 2

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a relational database? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Data is stored in tables with rows and columns.. Option B is correct because a relational database stores data in structured tables composed of rows (records) and columns (attributes), which is the fundamental organizing principle of the relational model. Option E is correct because relational databases establish relationships between tables through keys — typically primary keys that uniquely identify rows and foreign keys that reference primary keys in other tables — enabling joins and referential integrity. Option A is incorrect because relational databases are precisely the systems queried with SQL (Structured Query Language), so they do support SQL queries. Option C is incorrect because relational databases are optimized for structured, tabular data; unstructured content like videos is typically handled by object storage or NoSQL/document stores. Option D is incorrect because relational databases generally use a fixed, predefined schema (with controlled migrations via DDL), whereas flexible, dynamically changing schemas are characteristic of NoSQL databases.

Answer

It does not support SQL queries.

Answer

It is optimized for storing unstructured data like videos.

Answer

It uses a flexible schema that can change dynamically.

Question 3

A company is developing a security policy. Which THREE of the following are examples of physical security controls?

Accepted Answer

Employing security guards to monitor entrances. Option A is correct because security guards monitoring entrances are a classic physical security control, providing deterrence and access control at the facility perimeter. Option D is correct because badge readers on doors are physical access control mechanisms that restrict entry to authorized personnel using credentials such as RFID or smart cards. Option E is correct because biometric locks on server rooms are physical controls that authenticate individuals via fingerprints, iris scans, or similar traits before granting access to sensitive areas. Option B is not a physical control; strong passwords are a logical/technical authentication control. Option C is not a physical control; firewalls are network security devices that filter traffic at the logical layer.

Answer

Requiring employees to use strong passwords

Answer

Using a firewall to filter network traffic

Question 4

Which TWO of the following are best practices for password security?

Accepted Answer

Enabling multi-factor authentication whenever possible. Option A is correct because enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA) adds a second verification factor (something you have, such as a TOTP code or hardware token, or something you are, such as a fingerprint) on top of the password, so a stolen or guessed password alone is no longer sufficient to compromise the account. Option E is correct because a password manager generates high-entropy, unique passwords for each account and stores them encrypted (typically with AES-256) behind a single strong master passphrase, which eliminates password reuse and makes credential stuffing attacks ineffective. The remaining options are poor practices: B uses trivially guessable patterns that appear at the top of every breach wordlist, C enables credential stuffing and lateral movement because one breach exposes all accounts, and D destroys individual accountability and non-repudiation while widening the attack surface to every person who knows the shared secret.

Answer

Using simple patterns like '123456' or 'password'

Answer

Using the same password for multiple accounts

Answer

Sharing passwords with coworkers for convenience

Question 5

A user is trying to install a new application but receives an error that the system does not meet the minimum requirements. Which TWO hardware components should the user check first to ensure compatibility?

Accepted Answer

Available storage space. Option A (Available storage space) is correct because installation failures citing unmet minimum requirements commonly stem from insufficient free disk space, since the installer must write the application files plus temporary data, and the minimum requirements typically list a required amount of free storage. Option D (Amount of RAM) is correct because RAM is one of the most frequently specified minimum requirements, and a system with less memory than the application needs will fail the compatibility check or refuse to install. Options B, C, and E are not the first components to verify in this scenario: CPU clock speed is rarely the limiting factor compared to RAM and disk space, the number of USB ports is irrelevant to software installation requirements, and monitor refresh rate is a display characteristic that does not affect whether an application can be installed.

Answer

CPU clock speed

Answer

Number of USB ports

Answer

Monitor refresh rate

Question 6

Which TWO of the following are commonly considered business productivity software? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Word processing software. Word processing software (A) is a core business productivity application because it lets users create, edit, format, and share text documents such as memos, reports, and contracts, which are everyday office tasks. Spreadsheet software (C) is likewise a standard productivity tool, used for budgeting, data analysis, charts, and calculations via formulas and functions in business settings. Together, these are typically bundled in office suites (e.g., Microsoft Word and Excel in Microsoft 365) and are considered general-purpose productivity software. Video editing software (B) and graphic design software (D) are specialized creative/media tools rather than general business productivity applications, and a database management system (E) is a data platform for storing and querying structured data, not a typical end-user productivity program.

Answer

Video editing software

Answer

Graphic design software

Answer

Database management system

Question 7

A software development team is adopting agile practices. Which TWO of the following are common characteristics of agile methodologies? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Iterative development with short cycles. Option B is correct because agile methodologies, such as Scrum and Extreme Programming, deliver work in short, repeating iterations (typically 1–4 week sprints) that produce a potentially shippable increment each cycle, rather than progressing through one long sequential pass. Option C is correct because it reflects one of the four values in the Agile Manifesto, which explicitly states a preference for 'responding to change over following a plan,' allowing teams to adapt scope and priorities as requirements evolve. Option A is incorrect because sequential phases (requirements→design→implementation) describe the waterfall model, which agile explicitly contrasts with its iterative and incremental approach. Option D is incorrect because agile embraces emergent and evolving scope rather than fixing the full scope at the start, which is characteristic of plan-driven/waterfall contracts. Option E is incorrect because agile values 'working software over comprehensive documentation,' favoring lightweight, just-enough documentation over exhaustive artifacts at each phase.

Answer

Sequential phases (requirements→design→implementation)

Answer

Fixed scope defined at the start

Answer

Comprehensive documentation at each phase

Question 8

A junior developer is learning about data structures. The developer needs to choose a data structure for the following scenarios:
- Storing a list of items where order matters and items can be accessed by index.
- Storing key-value pairs for fast lookups.
Which TWO data structures should the developer consider?

Accepted Answer

Dictionary. Option C (Array) is correct because an array stores elements in a defined, ordered sequence and allows direct access to each item by its numeric index, which exactly matches the requirement of a list where order matters and items are retrieved by position. Option A (Dictionary) is correct because a dictionary stores data as key-value pairs and provides fast lookups by key, typically with average O(1) access time in hash-based implementations, matching the key-value lookup scenario. Option B (Tree) is not the best fit here because, although trees can support ordered data and key-based search, they are hierarchical structures used for scenarios like sorted data, ranges, or balanced search rather than simple indexed lists or direct key-value lookup. Option D (Stack) does not belong because it is a LIFO structure that only allows access to the most recently added item, not indexed access or key-based lookup. Option E (Queue) is also incorrect because it is a FIFO structure that only allows removal of the oldest item, so it does not support index access or fast key-value retrieval.

Answer

Tree

Answer

Stack

Answer

Queue

Question 9

A developer is using Git for version control. Which THREE actions are core Git operations? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

merge. Option A (merge) is a core Git operation because it combines changes from one branch into another, using the commit history and a three-way merge to integrate divergent lines of development. Option B (commit) is fundamental to Git, as it records a snapshot of the staged changes into the local repository, creating a new commit object with a unique SHA-1 hash. Option C (branch) is also a core Git operation, allowing the creation, listing, or deletion of branches, which are lightweight movable pointers to commits that enable parallel development. Options D (debug) and E (compile) are not Git operations; debugging and compiling are development tasks performed by debuggers and compilers, not by Git's version control commands.

Answer

debug

Answer

compile

Question 10

A development team is using an agile methodology. Which TWO of the following are typical practices in agile development?

Accepted Answer

Iterative development with short cycles. Option C is correct because agile development is built on iterative, incremental delivery through short cycles (sprints or iterations, typically 1–4 weeks) that produce a potentially shippable increment and allow frequent reprioritization based on feedback. Option D is correct because the daily standup (a short, time-boxed Scrum ceremony, usually 15 minutes) is a hallmark agile practice for synchronizing the team, surfacing impediments, and maintaining transparency. Options A and E are incorrect because waterfall phase transitions and a detailed design phase completed before coding reflect sequential, plan-driven lifecycle models rather than agile's continuous, cross-functional delivery. Option B is incorrect because agile embraces emergent, reprioritized scope (e.g., a groomed product backlog) rather than a fixed scope locked at project start.

Answer

Waterfall phase transitions

Answer

Fixed scope defined at project start

Answer

Detailed design phase before coding

Question 11

An IT administrator is hardening a server. Which three of the following actions should be taken to improve security? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Disable unused services and ports. Option A is correct because disabling unused services and closing unused ports reduces the attack surface, eliminating unnecessary daemons and listening sockets that attackers could exploit. Option B is correct because applying the principle of least privilege ensures users and processes receive only the minimum rights needed, limiting the blast radius of a compromise or insider misuse. Option D is correct because enabling automatic software updates ensures timely patching of known vulnerabilities in the OS and applications, closing exploits before they can be leveraged. Option C is incorrect because disabling the firewall removes a critical network access control layer and exposes services to unauthorized traffic, harming rather than improving security. Option E is incorrect because granting all users administrative rights violates least privilege and dramatically increases the risk of privilege abuse and malware propagation.

Answer

Disable the firewall for better performance

Answer

Grant all users administrative rights

Question 12

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of ransomware?

Accepted Answer

It encrypts the victim's files.. Option C is correct because the defining behavior of ransomware is that it encrypts the victim's files (often using strong symmetric ciphers like AES with a per-file key, then wrapping that key with asymmetric encryption such as RSA), rendering the data inaccessible until a key is provided. Option D is correct because ransomware is a form of extortion: after encryption it presents a ransom note demanding payment, typically in cryptocurrency such as Bitcoin or Monero, in exchange for the decryption key or tool. Option A describes spyware, which covertly harvests user information rather than encrypting and holding data hostage. Option B describes a worm, which propagates across systems autonomously without user interaction, a spreading mechanism rather than the extortion characteristic of ransomware. Option E describes a Trojan, which masquerades as legitimate software to trick users into running it, and while ransomware is often delivered via Trojans, disguise is not its defining characteristic.

Answer

It collects user information without consent.

Answer

It self-replicates to other systems without user interaction.

Answer

It disguises itself as legitimate software.

Question 13

A small business is setting up a database to track its customers and their orders. The owner wants to ensure that every order is linked to an existing customer and that the customer ID in the Order table cannot refer to a non-existent customer. Which database concept should be implemented?

Accepted Answer

Foreign key constraint on the Order table. The requirement is to enforce that every order is linked to a valid customer, which is referential integrity. A foreign key constraint on the Order table referencing the Customer table's primary key ensures that any customer ID entered in the Order table must already exist in the Customer table. This prevents orphaned orders and maintains consistent relationships between the two tables.

Answer

Primary key constraint on the Customer table

Answer

Check constraint on the Order table

Answer

Unique constraint on the Order table

Question 14

A junior developer writes a program that stores a customer's age in a variable. The value should be a whole number between 0 and 120. Which data type is most appropriate for this variable?

Accepted Answer

Integer. The variable must hold a whole number representing age within a defined range, so an integer is the natural fit. It allows numeric comparisons and arithmetic without the overhead or ambiguity of text or fractional types. String, Boolean, and float either cannot represent the value correctly or introduce unnecessary complexity and invalid possibilities.

Answer

Float

Answer

String

Answer

Boolean

Question 15

A small retail store keeps its sales records in a spreadsheet file. The owner complains that customer addresses are typed slightly differently in different rows, and that correcting one address requires editing many rows. Which data concept best describes the root problem the owner is experiencing?

Accepted Answer

Data redundancy with resulting inconsistency. Because the same customer detail is retyped into every sales row, one real-world fact exists in many places at once. That duplication is redundancy, and the divergent spellings are the inconsistency it produces. A structure that stores the customer once and references it from sales rows removes both symptoms.

Answer

A weak wireless network connection to the file share

Answer

Insufficient storage capacity on the workstation

Answer

Missing antivirus definitions on the store's computer

Question 16

A technician is evaluating the CPU specifications of two computers. Which THREE factors directly affect the CPU's performance? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Number of cores. The number of cores (A) directly affects CPU performance because more cores allow the processor to execute multiple threads or processes simultaneously, improving throughput in multi-threaded workloads. Clock speed (C), measured in GHz, determines how many cycles the CPU can execute per second, so a higher clock speed generally means faster single-threaded execution. Cache size (E), including L1, L2, and L3 levels, directly impacts performance by reducing memory latency; larger caches keep frequently used data closer to the CPU cores, avoiding slower trips to RAM. The amount of RAM installed (B) affects overall system performance and multitasking but is a separate memory subsystem, not a CPU specification. Power supply wattage (D) only determines whether the system can deliver enough power to components and does not directly influence CPU processing capability.

Answer

Amount of RAM installed

Answer

Power supply wattage

Question 17

A team is choosing a version control workflow. They want developers to work on features in isolation without affecting the stable main codebase, and then integrate changes after review. Which version control concept directly supports this isolation?

Accepted Answer

Branching. Branching lets a developer diverge from the main line of development, make changes in an isolated line, and later merge those changes back after review. This protects the stable codebase from unfinished or untested work. Committing records changes, cloning copies a repository, and tagging labels a commit, but none of those creates the separate line of development the team requires.

Answer

Tagging

Answer

Cloning

Answer

Committing

Question 18

A user receives a suspicious email with an attachment claiming to be an invoice. Which three practices should the user follow? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Do not download unexpected attachments. Option A is correct because unexpected attachments are a primary malware and phishing delivery vector, so the user should not download or open them. Option B is correct because attackers often spoof or typosquat sender addresses, so carefully verifying the sender's actual email address helps confirm legitimacy. Option D is correct because hovering over a link reveals the true destination URL in the status bar or tooltip, exposing mismatched or malicious domains before any click. Option C is wrong because forwarding a suspicious email to all employees can spread malicious links or attachments and cause panic; it should instead be reported to IT/security. Option E is wrong because downloading and opening the attachment to inspect it can execute malicious code and compromise the user's system.

Answer

Forward the email to all employees for awareness

Answer

Download and open the attachment to check its content

Question 19

Which TWO of the following are examples of social engineering attacks? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Pretexting. Pretexting (B) is a social engineering attack because it manipulates a person through a fabricated scenario or false identity to obtain information or access, exploiting human trust rather than technical vulnerabilities. Tailgating (D) is also a social engineering attack, as it relies on physically following an authorized person into a restricted area without proper credentials, exploiting human courtesy or inattention. The remaining options are technical malware or attack types rather than social engineering: a rootkit (A) is stealthy software that hides privileged access, a worm (C) is self-replicating malware that spreads across networks, and ransomware (E) is malware that encrypts data and demands payment.

Answer

Rootkit

Answer

Worm

Answer

Ransomware

Question 20

Which TWO of the following are examples of security software? (Choose TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Antivirus. Antivirus (A) is security software because it detects, blocks, and removes malware such as viruses, worms, and trojans through signature scanning and behavioral heuristics. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) (D) is security software because it creates an encrypted tunnel (e.g., using IPsec or TLS) that protects data confidentiality and integrity in transit and can authenticate remote users. The media player (B), web browser (C), and text editor (E) are general-purpose application software for playback, web access, and text manipulation, respectively; they do not primarily provide security functions, so they are not examples of security software.

Answer

Media player

Answer

Web browser

Answer

Text editor