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HomeCertifications200-301ScenariosSelect Two (Multi-Select) Questions
Scenario PracticeCisco · 200-301

200-301 Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions

Multi-select questions tell you to 'Choose TWO' or 'Choose THREE'. Getting partial credit is not a thing — you must select all correct answers with no incorrect ones. The stem always states how many to choose, so trust it. These questions require precision, not best-guess elimination.

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Common Traps on Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions

  • ·Selecting too many answers — only the stated count is correct, over-selecting voids the correct ones.
  • ·Selecting only one answer when two are required — both or nothing.
  • ·Treating 'which two' as 'which best two' — both correct options are equally correct, not ranked.
  • ·Overlooking options D and E — distractors A–C are often plausible to make you stop reading early.

Sample Questions

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1.

Which TWO statements correctly describe the causes or implications of CRC errors, runts, giants, or output errors as seen in the output of 'show interface' or 'show interface status'?

A.CRC errors are always caused by a faulty switch port and require port replacement.
B.A high number of runts on an interface typically indicates excessive collisions or a faulty NIC.
C.Giants are frames that exceed the maximum transmission unit (MTU) and are always discarded by the switch.
D.Output errors, including late collisions, can be caused by a duplex mismatch between the switch and the connected device.

Explanation: Option B is correct because runts—frames smaller than 64 bytes—often result from collisions truncating frames on half-duplex links or a faulty NIC. Option D is correct because duplex mismatch can cause late collisions, which appear as output errors in 'show interface'; a device on one side full-duplex and the other half-duplex leads to collisions and framing errors. Option A is wrong because CRC errors can stem from faulty cabling, interference, or a mismatched NIC, not exclusively a bad switch port. Option C is wrong because giants (frames over maximum MTU) may be forwarded if the interface is configured with jumbo frames or the switch is set to accept oversize frames. Option E is wrong because 'show controllers' displays frame-size errors like runts and giants, including details beyond CRC errors.

2.

Which TWO statements accurately describe how AI/ML concepts are applied to network operations in modern enterprise networks?

A.Supervised machine learning models can be used to classify network traffic into predefined categories, such as identifying whether traffic is voice, video, or data.
B.Anomaly detection algorithms, often based on unsupervised learning, can identify unusual network behavior that may indicate a security threat or device malfunction.
C.Reinforcement learning is primarily used to automatically classify email traffic as spam or not spam based on a labeled dataset.
D.Clustering algorithms, a type of unsupervised learning, are used to predict the exact bandwidth usage of a specific application over the next hour.

Explanation: Option A is correct because supervised learning uses labeled data to classify traffic (e.g., voice, video, data). Option B is correct because anomaly detection often uses unsupervised learning to identify deviations from normal behavior. Option C is wrong because reinforcement learning is not used for spam classification; that task uses supervised learning. Option D is wrong because clustering groups data but cannot predict exact bandwidth usage; prediction requires regression models. Option E is wrong because predictive analytics in network operations leverages machine learning models, not solely static thresholds defined by administrators.

3.

Which TWO switch port configurations are required when connecting a Cisco IP phone and a desktop PC to a single access port?

A.Configure the port as a trunk and allow both VLANs.
B.Use the 'switchport voice vlan' command to assign a dedicated voice VLAN.
C.Disable spanning tree on the port to prevent voice delays.
D.Apply 'mls qos trust cos' on the interface to preserve voice packet markings.

Explanation: Option B is correct because the 'switchport voice vlan' command assigns a dedicated VLAN for voice traffic, allowing the IP phone to tag its packets with the voice VLAN ID while the PC remains in the native (data) VLAN. Option D is correct because 'mls qos trust cos' preserves the Layer 2 Class of Service (CoS) markings from the IP phone, ensuring voice packets receive appropriate QoS treatment across the network. Option A is incorrect because a trunk port is not required—the access port with the voice VLAN command handles both VLANs without trunking. Option C is incorrect because disabling Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is not a recommended practice and does not prevent voice delays; STP is essential for loop prevention and can be tuned with PortFast instead. Option E is incorrect because the port must remain a Layer 2 access port, not a routed port, to support both the PC and IP phone.

4.

Which TWO statements about IPv4/IPv6 static routing are true?

A.A floating static route is configured with a lower administrative distance than the primary route.
B.An IPv6 default static route can be configured using the destination prefix ::/0.
C.A static route with an administrative distance of 1 is preferred over a directly connected route.
D.A floating static route becomes active in the routing table only when the primary route is removed or fails.

Explanation: Option B is correct because the IPv6 default static route uses the destination prefix ::/0, which matches all IPv6 addresses, similar to 0.0.0.0/0 in IPv4. Option D is correct because a floating static route is configured with a higher administrative distance and only becomes active when the primary route (with a lower AD) is removed or fails. Option A is wrong: a floating static route is configured with a higher administrative distance, not lower. Option C is wrong: a directly connected route has an administrative distance of 0, which is always preferred over a static route (even with AD 1). Option E is wrong: IPv4 static routes use the 'ip route' command, while IPv6 static routes use the 'ipv6 route' command; the syntax is different.

5.

Which four of the following correctly describe how AI/ML techniques can improve network operations in a modern enterprise? (Choose all that apply.)

A.AI models can analyze historical traffic data to predict future bandwidth congestion
B.Natural language processing (NLP) can be used to automate responses to helpdesk tickets based on intent
C.Reinforcement learning can adjust firewall rules dynamically in response to evolving attack patterns
D.Unsupervised learning can identify unknown device types on the network by clustering behavior patterns

Explanation: Options A, B, C, and D are correct. AI models can predict bandwidth congestion by analyzing historical traffic data, enabling proactive capacity planning. Natural language processing (NLP) automates helpdesk ticket responses by interpreting user intent, reducing manual effort. Reinforcement learning can dynamically adjust firewall rules in response to evolving attack patterns, improving threat response without human intervention. Unsupervised learning can cluster behavior patterns to identify unknown device types on the network. Option E ("AI eliminates the need for baseline performance metrics because it learns in real-time") is incorrect because even AI/ML models require baseline metrics to establish normal behavior and detect anomalies; real-time learning does not remove the need for baselines. Option F ("ML models always require labeled training data to be effective in network operations") is incorrect because many ML techniques, such as unsupervised learning (as shown in option D), operate effectively on unlabeled data by discovering patterns and clusters without predefined labels.

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Frequently asked questions

How do "Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions" appear on the real 200-301?

Multi-select questions tell you to 'Choose TWO' or 'Choose THREE'. Getting partial credit is not a thing — you must select all correct answers with no incorrect ones. The stem always states how many to choose, so trust it. These questions require precision, not best-guess elimination. These appear throughout the 200-301 and require you to apply your knowledge, not just recall facts.

How many scenario questions are on the 200-301 exam?

Cisco doesn't publish an exact breakdown, but scenario-based questions (especially exhibit and command-output formats) make up a significant portion of the 200-301. Practicing each scenario type ensures you're ready for any format.

Are these 200-301 scenario practice questions free?

Yes. Courseiva provides free 200-301 scenario practice across all official exam domains. The platform includes scenario-based questions, command-output interpretation, topic-based practice, mock exams, and readiness tracking — no account required.

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Scenario Info

Type

Scenario Practice

Exam

200-301

Questions

20+