How many Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions questions are on this page?

This page has 20 Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions scenario questions for the 200-301 exam, each with detailed explanations and wrong-answer analysis.

How should I approach 200-301 scenario questions?

Read the full scenario before looking at the answer options. Identify the constraint or requirement in the scenario, then eliminate options that are generally true but wrong for this specific case. Scenario questions reward careful reading over pattern matching.

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Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions

Practise CCNA 200-301 v2 practice questions — original exam-style scenarios covering every exam domain, with detailed explanations, wrong-answer analysis, and common exam traps.

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scenario questions

200-301

exam code

Cisco

vendor

Scenario guide

How to approach select two (multi-select) questions

Multi-select questions tell you to 'Choose TWO' or 'Choose THREE'. Getting partial credit is not a thing — you must select all correct answers with no incorrect ones. The stem always states how many to choose, so trust it. These questions require precision, not best-guess elimination.

Quick answer

Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions questions test whether you can apply the concept in context, not just recognise a definition.

How the topic appears in realistic exam-style scenarios.

Which detail in the question changes the correct answer.

How to eliminate plausible but wrong options.

How to connect the question back to the wider exam objective.

Practice scenarios

Question 1mediummulti select

Full question →

Which TWO statements correctly describe the causes or implications of CRC errors, runts, giants, or output errors as seen in the output of 'show interface' or 'show interface status'?

A
CRC errors are always caused by a faulty switch port and require port replacement.
Why wrong: CRC errors are usually caused by cabling issues or electromagnetic interference, not necessarily a faulty port.
B
A high number of runts on an interface typically indicates excessive collisions or a faulty NIC.
Runts are frames smaller than 64 bytes and often result from collisions (e.g., in half-duplex) or a malfunctioning NIC that generates undersized frames.
C
Giants are frames that exceed the maximum transmission unit (MTU) and are always discarded by the switch.
Why wrong: Giants are frames larger than the maximum allowed size, but some switches may forward them if configured for jumbo frames; they are not always discarded.
D
Output errors, including late collisions, can be caused by a duplex mismatch between the switch and the connected device.
A duplex mismatch (e.g., one side full-duplex, the other half-duplex) leads to late collisions and other output errors due to timing issues.
E
The 'show controllers' command provides a detailed view of CRC errors but does not show runts or giants.
Why wrong: 'show controllers' displays hardware-level details including CRC errors, but it can also show runts, giants, and other frame errors depending on the platform.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 2mediummulti select

Full question →

Which TWO statements accurately describe how AI/ML concepts are applied to network operations in modern enterprise networks?

A
Supervised machine learning models can be used to classify network traffic into predefined categories, such as identifying whether traffic is voice, video, or data.
Supervised learning trains on labeled data to classify new traffic, enabling accurate identification of application types for QoS or security policies.
B
Anomaly detection algorithms, often based on unsupervised learning, can identify unusual network behavior that may indicate a security threat or device malfunction.
Unsupervised learning detects deviations from normal baselines, flagging anomalies without requiring labeled attack data.
C
Reinforcement learning is primarily used to automatically classify email traffic as spam or not spam based on a labeled dataset.
Why wrong: Reinforcement learning learns through trial-and-error for sequential decisions (e.g., routing optimization), not for static classification tasks like spam filtering, which typically use supervised learning.
D
Clustering algorithms, a type of unsupervised learning, are used to predict the exact bandwidth usage of a specific application over the next hour.
Why wrong: Clustering groups similar data points but does not predict numeric values; prediction tasks require regression or time-series forecasting, not clustering.
E
Predictive analytics in network operations relies solely on static thresholds defined by network administrators to forecast potential failures.
Why wrong: Modern predictive analytics uses ML models that learn from historical data and adapt to changing patterns, not just static thresholds.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 3mediummulti select

Full question →

Which TWO switch port configurations are required when connecting a Cisco IP phone and a desktop PC to a single access port?

A
Configure the port as a trunk and allow both VLANs.
Why wrong: This is incorrect because the port should remain an access port, not a trunk. Trunk ports are used for switch-to-switch or switch-to-router links, not for end devices like phones and PCs.
B
Use the 'switchport voice vlan' command to assign a dedicated voice VLAN.
This command separates voice traffic from data traffic by placing the phone in a specific VLAN, typically VLAN 10 or similar, while the PC remains in the native access VLAN.
C
Disable spanning tree on the port to prevent voice delays.
Why wrong: Disabling spanning tree is dangerous and unnecessary; STP prevents loops and should remain enabled. Voice delays are better managed by QoS and proper VLAN configuration.
D
Apply 'mls qos trust cos' on the interface to preserve voice packet markings.
Cisco IP phones mark voice packets with CoS value 5. Trusting these markings on the access port ensures that the QoS policy in the network treats voice traffic with priority.
E
Configure the port as a routed port with an IP address for management.
Why wrong: Routed ports are used for Layer 3 connectivity between routers or switches, not for connecting end devices like phones and PCs. This would break VLAN segmentation.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 4mediummulti select

Study the full IPv6 explanation →

Which TWO statements about IPv4/IPv6 static routing are true?

A
A floating static route is configured with a lower administrative distance than the primary route.
Why wrong: A floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is only used as a backup.
B
An IPv6 default static route can be configured using the destination prefix ::/0.
The IPv6 default route is ::/0, similar to 0.0.0.0/0 for IPv4.
C
A static route with an administrative distance of 1 is preferred over a directly connected route.
Why wrong: Directly connected routes have an administrative distance of 0, which is lower (more preferred) than 1.
D
A floating static route becomes active in the routing table only when the primary route is removed or fails.
Due to its higher administrative distance, the floating static route is not installed until the primary route (with lower AD) disappears.
E
IPv4 and IPv6 static routes are configured using the same command syntax.
Why wrong: IPv4 static routes use 'ip route' while IPv6 static routes use 'ipv6 route'. They are different commands.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 5mediummulti select

Full question →

Which four of the following correctly describe how AI/ML techniques can improve network operations in a modern enterprise? (Choose all that apply.)

Question 6mediummulti select

Open the full VLAN trunking answer →

Which three of the following statements about VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) are correct? (Choose three.)

Question 7mediummulti select

Full question →

Which three statements about Power over Ethernet (PoE) and PoE+ standards are correct? (Choose three.)

Question 8mediummulti select

Read the full EtherChannel explanation →

Which three of the following are valid considerations when configuring EtherChannel? (Choose three.)

Question 9mediummulti select

Full question →

Which three of the following are correct steps in the process of CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) neighbor discovery? (Choose three.)

Question 10mediummulti select

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A network engineer is implementing AIOps to improve network reliability. Which four of the following are core capabilities that AIOps platforms typically provide? (Choose four.)

Question 11mediummulti select

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Which three of the following are typical use cases for automation in network security operations? (Choose three.)

Question 12mediummulti select

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Which four of the following are best practices for securing network services and devices? (Choose four.)

Question 13mediummulti select

Full question →

Which TWO statements accurately describe the encapsulation process in the TCP/IP model as data moves from the application layer to the network access layer?

A
At the application layer, the PDU is called a segment and includes a transport layer header.
Why wrong: The application layer PDU is simply called data; a segment is a transport layer PDU.
B
At the transport layer, the PDU is called a segment (for TCP) and includes source and destination port numbers.
The transport layer encapsulates data with a header containing port numbers to identify the application.
C
At the network layer, the PDU is called a frame and includes source and destination MAC addresses.
Why wrong: The network layer PDU is a packet, not a frame; frames are at the data link layer.
D
At the network layer, the PDU is called a packet and includes source and destination IP addresses.
The network layer encapsulates the segment with an IP header containing source and destination IP addresses.
E
At the data link layer, the PDU is called a packet and includes source and destination IP addresses.
Why wrong: The data link layer PDU is a frame, not a packet, and it uses MAC addresses, not IP addresses.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 14hardmulti select

Review the full OSPF breakdown →

R1 learns the route 192.0.2.0/24 via OSPF, RIP, and a static route configured with an administrative distance of 130. Based on this information, which two statements are correct?

Exhibit

show ip route 192.0.2.0
Routing entry for 192.0.2.0/24
  Known via "ospf 1", distance 110, metric 20, type intra area
  Last update from 10.1.12.2 on GigabitEthernet0/0

Configured routes:
ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.13.3 130

RIP also advertises 192.0.2.0/24 with distance 120.

A
The OSPF route is installed because its administrative distance is lower than RIP and the floating static route.
For the same /24 prefix, OSPF AD 110 beats RIP 120 and static 130.
B
The static route will be preferred because static routes always beat dynamic routes.
Why wrong: Only if the static route has a lower AD than the competing routes.
C
The static route acts as a backup and can be installed if the OSPF route disappears.
With AD 130, it is a classic floating static route.
D
RIP wins because its metric is lower than OSPF cost.
Why wrong: Different routing protocols are compared by AD first, not by their internal metrics.
E
All three routes should load-balance because the prefix length is the same.
Why wrong: Equal prefix length alone is not enough; the route source and attributes do not match for ECMP here.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 15mediummulti select

Review the full routing breakdown →

Which three statements about the routing table and route selection are correct? (Choose three.)

Question 16mediummulti select

Review the full subnetting walkthrough →

Which TWO commands or tools would a network engineer use to verify if a client has a duplicate IP address conflict on the local subnet?

A
ipconfig /all
Why wrong: This command displays the client's own IP configuration (IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, etc.) but does not detect or reveal duplicate IP conflicts on the network.
B
arp -a
This command displays the ARP cache, which maps IP addresses to MAC addresses. If a duplicate IP exists, the ARP cache may show two different MAC addresses for the same IP address, indicating a conflict.
C
nslookup
Why wrong: This command is used to query DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses or vice versa. It does not provide any information about IP address conflicts on the local subnet.
D
ping
Why wrong: By pinging the client's IP address from another device, you can verify if a response is received. If the ping succeeds and the MAC address in the ARP cache differs from the client's actual MAC, a duplicate IP conflict is likely.
E
tracert
Why wrong: This command traces the route packets take to a destination IP address, showing each hop. It is used for path troubleshooting and does not help in detecting local IP conflicts.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 17mediummulti select

Open the full VLAN trunking answer →

Which four of the following are correct statements about VLAN configuration and verification on a Cisco switch? (Choose four.)

Question 18mediummulti select

Full question →

Which TWO commands can a network technician use on a modern Linux host to verify the IP address configuration and test reachability to a remote server?

A
ip addr
The `ip addr` command is the modern Linux utility to display all network interfaces and their assigned IP addresses, MAC addresses, and status.
B
ifconfig
Why wrong: `ifconfig` is a legacy command on Linux that may not be installed by default; it is deprecated in favor of `ip addr`.
C
tracert
Why wrong: `tracert` is a Windows command for tracing the route to a destination. Linux uses `traceroute` instead.
D
ping
`ping` sends ICMP echo requests to test reachability and round-trip time to a remote host, verifying connectivity.
E
nslookup
Why wrong: `nslookup` is used to query DNS records and resolve domain names to IP addresses, not to test basic IP connectivity.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 19mediummulti select

Full question →

Which two statements accurately describe the value of named administrative accounts?

A
They improve accountability by tying actions to specific individuals.
This is correct because named identities make it easier to attribute actions accurately.
B
They improve traceability during audits or incident reviews.
This is correct because individual identity improves the value of logs and records.
C
They replace the need for authorization controls.
Why wrong: This is wrong because identity alone does not define what actions are permitted.
D
They can be used only with Telnet and not SSH.
Why wrong: This is wrong because named accounts are compatible with secure protocols such as SSH.
E
They exist only for wireless guest administration.
Why wrong: This is wrong because named accounts are broadly useful across administrative environments.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

Question 20mediummulti select

Full question →

Which two statements accurately describe ARP in an IPv4 Ethernet network?

A
ARP resolves a known IPv4 address to a MAC address on the local segment.
This is correct because ARP is used to discover the Layer 2 MAC address associated with a known IPv4 address on the local network.
B
ARP is used to choose the best Layer 3 path across multiple routers.
Why wrong: This is wrong because routing protocols and routing tables handle path selection, not ARP.
C
ARP requests are typically sent as broadcasts on the local LAN.
This is correct because ARP requests are broadcast so the device owning the target IP can respond.
D
ARP can normally resolve the MAC address of a host located across a routed network.
Why wrong: This is wrong because ARP is a local-link mechanism and does not normally resolve remote hosts across routers.
E
ARP replaces the need for a default gateway.
Why wrong: This is wrong because ARP does not replace gateway logic. It may help discover the gateway MAC on the local LAN, but the gateway is still required for off-subnet traffic.

Full breakdown with real-world context →

These 200-301 practice questions are part of Courseiva's free Cisco certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style 200-301 questions with detailed explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics.

Select Two (Multi-Select) Questions

How to approach select two (multi-select) questions

Quick answer

Related 200-301 topic practice pages

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CCNA STP practice questions

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Practice scenarios

Which TWO statements correctly describe the causes or implications of CRC errors, runts, giants, or output errors as seen in the output of 'show interface' or 'show interface status'?

Which TWO statements accurately describe how AI/ML concepts are applied to network operations in modern enterprise networks?

Which TWO switch port configurations are required when connecting a Cisco IP phone and a desktop PC to a single access port?

Which TWO statements about IPv4/IPv6 static routing are true?

Which four of the following correctly describe how AI/ML techniques can improve network operations in a modern enterprise? (Choose all that apply.)

Which three of the following statements about VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) are correct? (Choose three.)

Which three statements about Power over Ethernet (PoE) and PoE+ standards are correct? (Choose three.)

Which three of the following are valid considerations when configuring EtherChannel? (Choose three.)

Which three of the following are correct steps in the process of CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) neighbor discovery? (Choose three.)

A network engineer is implementing AIOps to improve network reliability. Which four of the following are core capabilities that AIOps platforms typically provide? (Choose four.)

Which three of the following are typical use cases for automation in network security operations? (Choose three.)

Which four of the following are best practices for securing network services and devices? (Choose four.)

Which TWO statements accurately describe the encapsulation process in the TCP/IP model as data moves from the application layer to the network access layer?

R1 learns the route 192.0.2.0/24 via OSPF, RIP, and a static route configured with an administrative distance of 130. Based on this information, which two statements are correct?

Exhibit

Which three statements about the routing table and route selection are correct? (Choose three.)

Which TWO commands or tools would a network engineer use to verify if a client has a duplicate IP address conflict on the local subnet?

Which four of the following are correct statements about VLAN configuration and verification on a Cisco switch? (Choose four.)

Which TWO commands can a network technician use on a modern Linux host to verify the IP address configuration and test reachability to a remote server?

Which two statements accurately describe the value of named administrative accounts?

Which two statements accurately describe ARP in an IPv4 Ethernet network?