Courseiva

Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP (CISSP) — Questions 301375

747 questions total · 10pages · All types, answers revealed

Page 4

Page 5 of 10

Page 6
301
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is reviewing potential risks associated with orphaned accounts. Which TWO of the following are risks of orphaned accounts?

Select 2 answers
A.Compliance with password policies is weakened
B.Performance degradation of authentication servers
C.Increased logging overhead
D.Attackers can use orphaned accounts to gain unauthorized access
E.Former employees can still access systems
AnswersD, E

Attackers actively seek out orphaned accounts because they often represent overlooked security gaps. These accounts may retain elevated privileges, possess weak or default passwords that were never updated, or simply go unnoticed in routine security audits, making them prime targets for credential stuffing, brute-force attacks, or lateral movement once initial network access is achieved. Exploiting such accounts provides a persistent backdoor for unauthorized access and privilege escalation.

Why this answer

Orphaned accounts are active accounts of former employees or unused accounts, which can be exploited to gain unauthorized access or persist undetected.

302
Multi-Selectmedium

A data breach has occurred involving a database that contains personally identifiable information (PII). As part of incident response, the organization needs to identify all roles responsible for data protection. Which TWO roles are primarily accountable for data classification and protection requirements according to typical data governance frameworks?

Select 2 answers
A.Senior management
B.Data subject
C.Data steward
D.Data custodian
E.Data owner
AnswersA, E

Senior management holds the ultimate accountability for an organization's overall data protection posture and compliance. They are responsible for establishing the overarching security policy, allocating necessary resources, and ensuring that appropriate governance structures are in place. This includes accepting the residual risk associated with data breaches and bearing the legal and reputational consequences, making them the final arbiter of data protection strategy.

Why this answer

The data owner is accountable for classification and protection requirements, while senior management has ultimate accountability.

303
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key feature of TLS 1.3 that enhances security compared to earlier versions?

A.Support for RC4 encryption
B.Support for DES and 3DES
C.Mandatory forward secrecy
D.Use of static RSA key exchange
AnswerC

Mandatory forward secrecy is a cornerstone security feature enforced by TLS 1.3, significantly enhancing protection against future compromise. This is achieved by requiring the use of ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE) or Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) key exchange mechanisms. Consequently, even if a server's long-term private key is compromised at a later date, an attacker cannot decrypt previously recorded session traffic because the session keys were unique and discarded after use, ensuring past communications remain confidential.

Why this answer

TLS 1.3 mandates forward secrecy by requiring ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (DHE or ECDHE) key exchange for all sessions, eliminating static RSA and static DH key exchanges. This ensures that even if the server's long-term private key is compromised, past session keys cannot be derived, protecting historical traffic. Earlier TLS versions allowed static key exchanges, making them vulnerable to retrospective decryption.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'forward secrecy' with 'encryption strength' or 'cipher support,' and may incorrectly think that simply using a strong cipher like AES provides forward secrecy, when in fact it is the key exchange mechanism (ephemeral vs. static) that determines whether past sessions remain secure after key compromise.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RC4 is a stream cipher with known biases (e.g., in the first output bytes) and has been deprecated in all TLS versions since 1.1; TLS 1.3 completely removes RC4 and all other non-AEAD ciphers. Option B is wrong because DES and 3DES are block ciphers with small block sizes (64-bit) and are vulnerable to Sweet32 birthday attacks; TLS 1.3 eliminates them entirely, requiring AEAD ciphers like AES-GCM or ChaCha20-Poly1305. Option D is wrong because static RSA key exchange does not provide forward secrecy—if the server's RSA private key is compromised, all past session keys can be decrypted; TLS 1.3 removes static RSA entirely.

304
MCQmedium

After a recent security audit, a network administrator discovers that an attacker has been intercepting traffic by associating with a legitimate access point's MAC address and broadcasting a stronger signal. Which type of attack has occurred?

A.Rogue access point
B.Karma attack
C.Evil twin attack
D.ARP spoofing
AnswerC

An evil twin attack involves an attacker setting up a malicious access point that precisely mimics a legitimate Wi-Fi network, typically by using the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) and often the same MAC address. The attacker then broadcasts this imposter network with a stronger signal than the legitimate one, luring unsuspecting users to connect to it instead. Once connected, the attacker can intercept all network traffic, harvest credentials, or inject malware, making it a highly effective man-in-the-middle attack.

Why this answer

Evil twin attack. This attack involves an attacker setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate access point by spoofing its MAC address (BSSID) and broadcasting a stronger signal, causing clients to associate with the attacker's device instead of the legitimate AP. The key distinction is the active impersonation of a specific legitimate AP, not just the presence of an unauthorized AP.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'rogue access point' (any unauthorized AP) with 'evil twin' (a specific impersonation of a legitimate AP), but the key differentiator is the active spoofing of the legitimate AP's MAC address and signal strength to intercept traffic, not just the presence of an unauthorized device.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a rogue access point is any unauthorized AP connected to the network, but it does not necessarily spoof a legitimate AP's MAC address or broadcast a stronger signal to intercept traffic; it is simply an unapproved device on the network. Option B is wrong because a Karma attack exploits probe requests from clients by responding with a fake AP that matches any SSID the client has previously connected to, but it does not involve spoofing a specific legitimate AP's MAC address or broadcasting a stronger signal from that same AP. Option D is wrong because ARP spoofing is a Layer 2 attack that manipulates ARP tables to redirect traffic on a local network, not an attack that uses a fake access point or wireless signal strength to intercept traffic.

305
Multi-Selecteasy

An organization is planning a penetration test of its internal network. Which TWO of the following are essential elements to include in the test scope and rules of engagement?

Select 2 answers
A.List of specific exploitation tools to be used.
B.Time windows when testing is permitted (e.g., after business hours).
C.Schedule for automated vulnerability scanning of all external systems.
D.List of IP addresses and systems authorized for testing.
E.Detailed plan for exploiting client-side vulnerabilities.
AnswersB, D

Defining specific time windows during which penetration testing is permitted is a critical component of the Rules of Engagement (RoE). This ensures that testing activities, which can sometimes be disruptive or resource-intensive, occur during periods of low operational impact, such as after business hours or on weekends. Establishing these boundaries helps prevent service interruptions to critical business functions and minimizes potential negative effects on user experience or system availability.

Why this answer

The rules of engagement (ROE) and scope define the boundaries of the penetration test. Essential elements include authorized time windows (option B) to minimize business disruption and ensure testing occurs during agreed-upon periods, and a list of authorized IP addresses and systems (option D) to clearly define the target scope and avoid legal issues. Option A (list of specific tools) is not necessarily required in the scope; tools can be agreed upon but are not essential.

Option C (vulnerability scanning schedule) is a separate activity and not part of penetration test scope. Option E (detailed client-side exploitation plan) is too specific and not a required element of the overall scope.

306
MCQeasy

Which type of security testing involves analyzing source code for vulnerabilities without executing the code?

A.SAST
B.Penetration testing
C.IAST
D.DAST
AnswerA

SAST (Static Application Security Testing) is a white-box testing methodology that directly analyzes an application's source code, bytecode, or binary code for security vulnerabilities without actually executing the program. It identifies potential flaws such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), buffer overflows, and insecure direct object references by examining code patterns and data flows. This static analysis occurs early in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), allowing developers to fix issues before deployment.

Why this answer

SAST (Static Application Security Testing) analyzes source code, bytecode, or binary code for security vulnerabilities without executing the program. It operates by scanning the codebase for patterns known to be insecure (e.g., SQL injection via string concatenation) using techniques like data flow analysis, taint tracking, and pattern matching, all performed at rest.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse SAST with DAST because both are 'security testing' acronyms, but the key differentiator is that SAST analyzes code without execution (static), while DAST requires a running application (dynamic).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because penetration testing is a dynamic, manual or automated process that tests a running application or system by simulating attacks, not by analyzing static source code. Option C is wrong because IAST (Interactive Application Security Testing) combines static and dynamic analysis by instrumenting the application and monitoring its behavior during runtime execution, not by analyzing code without execution. Option D is wrong because DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing) tests an application while it is running, typically by sending malicious payloads and observing responses, which requires execution and does not involve source code analysis.

307
MCQhard

During a penetration test, a security analyst discovers that a web application allows an attacker to bypass authorization and view another user's private messages by simply changing a numeric ID in the URL. Which vulnerability is being exploited?

A.Broken authentication
B.Insecure direct object reference (IDOR)
C.Server-side request forgery (SSRF)
D.Security misconfiguration
AnswerB

Insecure direct object reference (IDOR) occurs when an application exposes a direct reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file, database key, or directory, and fails to implement sufficient authorization checks. An attacker can manipulate these references, often found in URL parameters or request bodies, to access or modify resources belonging to other users or system components without explicit permission. This directly aligns with a penetration test discovery where an analyst accesses unauthorized objects by altering an identifier.

Why this answer

B is correct because the vulnerability allows an attacker to access another user's private messages by simply changing a numeric ID in the URL, which is a classic example of Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR). This occurs when the application exposes a direct reference to an internal object (e.g., a database key) without proper access control checks, enabling unauthorized access to resources belonging to other users.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse IDOR with broken authentication because both involve unauthorized access, but IDOR specifically targets direct object references without proper access controls, whereas broken authentication focuses on flaws in the authentication process itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because broken authentication refers to flaws in session management, credential handling, or login mechanisms (e.g., weak password policies, session fixation), not the direct manipulation of object references in URLs. Option C is wrong because Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) involves an attacker inducing the server to make requests to internal or external resources, not directly accessing another user's data via a modified URL parameter. Option D is wrong because security misconfiguration covers issues like default credentials, unnecessary services, or verbose error messages, but does not specifically describe the lack of authorization checks on object references.

308
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) in business continuity planning?

A.Identify critical business functions and dependencies
B.Develop and test the continuity plan
C.Determine recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO)
D.Create the business continuity plan document
AnswerA

BIA focuses on impact and prioritization.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to identify critical business functions and their dependencies on resources such as personnel, systems, data, and third-party services. This identification drives all subsequent continuity planning by quantifying the impact of disruptions and establishing the basis for recovery strategies. Without a BIA, recovery objectives and plans would be based on assumptions rather than empirical data about operational priorities.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the BIA's primary purpose with its outputs (RTO/RPO), but the BIA is fundamentally about identifying what is critical and why, not setting the numerical targets themselves.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because developing and testing the continuity plan occurs after the BIA, using its outputs to design and validate recovery procedures; the BIA itself does not involve plan creation or testing. Option C is wrong because while RTO and RPO are derived from BIA findings, they are not the primary purpose—the BIA first identifies critical functions and dependencies, and then those metrics are calculated as part of the recovery strategy phase. Option D is wrong because creating the business continuity plan document is a separate step that synthesizes BIA results, recovery strategies, and procedures into a formal document; the BIA is an analytical input, not the document itself.

309
MCQhard

A company is designing a database that will contain personally identifiable information (PII). To reduce privacy risk, they decide to add controlled noise to query results. This technique is known as:

A.Data masking
B.Tokenization
C.Differential privacy
D.Anonymization
AnswerC

Differential privacy is a rigorous mathematical framework that quantifies and limits the privacy risk to individuals when their data is part of a dataset used for statistical queries. It achieves this by strategically injecting calibrated noise into query results or the data itself, ensuring that the presence or absence of any single individual's data in the dataset does not significantly alter the output of an analysis. This allows for aggregate insights while providing strong, provable guarantees against re-identification, even by an attacker with auxiliary information.

Why this answer

Differential privacy adds noise to query outputs to protect individual privacy while allowing aggregate analysis.

310
MCQmedium

A security administrator is configuring role-based access control (RBAC) for a cloud storage system. Which of the following is the best practice for assigning permissions?

A.Use access control lists on each object
B.Implement mandatory access control
C.Create roles based on job functions and assign users to roles
D.Assign permissions directly to users for flexibility
AnswerC

Creating roles based on job functions and then assigning users to these predefined roles is the fundamental principle of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). This method centralizes permission management by associating specific permissions with a role, ensuring that users automatically inherit the appropriate access rights for their position. It significantly simplifies administration, enhances security by enforcing least privilege, and provides a scalable, consistent access policy across the organization.

Why this answer

Role-based access control (RBAC) is the recommended approach for managing permissions in cloud storage systems because it aligns with the principle of least privilege and simplifies administration. By creating roles based on job functions and assigning users to those roles, permissions are granted consistently and can be easily audited or modified without touching individual user accounts. This reduces the risk of excessive permissions and makes compliance with policies like separation of duties more manageable.

Exam trap

A common misconception in CISSP is that ACLs are the best way to secure cloud storage because they seem granular, but the trap is that ACLs are a legacy DAC mechanism that does not scale and violates the RBAC model's centralized management principle.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using access control lists (ACLs) on each object is a discretionary access control (DAC) method that becomes unmanageable at scale in cloud storage, leading to permission sprawl and increased risk of misconfiguration. Option B is wrong because mandatory access control (MAC) relies on system-enforced labels and clearances, which is overly rigid for a cloud storage system where users need flexible, role-based access rather than government-style classification. Option D is wrong because assigning permissions directly to users violates the core RBAC principle of role-based assignment, creating administrative overhead and making it difficult to enforce consistent access policies across the organization.

311
MCQmedium

A SOC team is using a SIEM to correlate events from multiple sources. They want to automate responses to common threats. Which technology should they integrate to achieve security orchestration and automation?

A.Vulnerability scanner
B.SOAR
C.Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
D.Network-based IDS
AnswerB

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platforms are specifically designed to integrate with SIEM systems to automate and orchestrate incident response workflows. SOAR tools ingest alerts, enrich them with contextual data, and execute predefined playbooks, enabling a SOC team to rapidly respond to threats by automating tasks such as blocking malicious IPs, isolating compromised endpoints, or gathering additional forensic evidence, thereby significantly reducing manual effort and improving response times.

Why this answer

SOAR tools automate and orchestrate security responses, integrating with SIEM.

312
Multi-Selecthard

A security engineer is investigating a covert channel in a system. Which TWO types of covert channels could be used to leak information from a high-security to a low-security process?

Select 2 answers
A.TOCTOU
B.Emanations
C.Covert timing channel
D.Side-channel
E.Covert storage channel
AnswersC, E

A covert timing channel transmits information by modulating the temporal characteristics of system events or resource access, such as the precise timing of CPU cycles, network packet delays, or disk I/O operations. A sender encodes data by introducing subtle, detectable delays or variations in these timings, which a receiver then observes and decodes. This method exploits shared system resources or observable event sequences to establish a hidden communication path, bypassing explicit security policies.

Why this answer

Covert timing channels modulate the timing of events to signal information. Covert storage channels write data to a shared resource that the other process can read.

313
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy. The security architect must ensure that corporate data on the device is protected from unauthorized access if the device is lost or stolen, while minimizing impact on user privacy. Which solution is most appropriate?

A.Use mobile device management (MDM) to create a secure container for corporate apps and data
B.Require employees to use company-issued devices only
C.Disable camera and microphone on the device
D.Full device encryption with remote wipe capability
AnswerA

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the most appropriate solution for securing corporate data on personal devices in a BYOD program. By creating a secure container, MDM logically isolates corporate applications and data from the user's personal information. This isolation allows the organization to enforce specific security policies, manage corporate applications, and perform a selective wipe of only the corporate container if the device is lost, stolen, or an employee departs, without affecting personal data.

Why this answer

A secure container (often implemented via MDM with app wrapping or per-app VPN) creates an encrypted, isolated partition on the device for corporate apps and data. This ensures that if the device is lost or stolen, the corporate data remains encrypted and inaccessible without the container's authentication, while personal apps and data outside the container remain untouched, thus minimizing privacy impact.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose full device encryption with remote wipe (Option D) because it sounds strong, but they overlook the privacy impact of wiping personal data, which the question explicitly states must be minimized.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because requiring company-issued devices only eliminates BYOD entirely, failing to meet the policy's goal of allowing personal devices while protecting corporate data. Option C is wrong because disabling camera and microphone does not protect corporate data from unauthorized access on a lost or stolen device; it addresses data exfiltration via sensors, not storage security. Option D is wrong because full device encryption with remote wipe protects all data but wipes personal data too, violating the requirement to minimize impact on user privacy; it also lacks granularity for selective corporate data protection.

314
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 authentication factor?

A.OTP token
B.Fingerprint
C.Password
D.Smart card
AnswerC

A password serves as a classic example of a Type 1 authentication factor, representing "something you know." This form of authentication relies on a secret piece of information, such as a string of characters, that only the legitimate user is supposed to possess and recall. Users must cognitively remember and accurately input this credential to prove their identity, making it a foundational element in most access control systems. Its security is directly dependent on its complexity and the user's ability to keep it confidential.

Why this answer

A Type 1 factor is something you know, such as a password, PIN, or security question.

315
MCQmedium

A financial application requires strict integrity controls to prevent unauthorized modifications. The security team implements a model where users cannot write data to higher integrity levels (no write up) and cannot read data from lower integrity levels (no read down). Which model is being applied?

A.Bell-LaPadula
B.Graham-Denning
C.Clark-Wilson
D.Biba
AnswerD

The Biba integrity model is specifically designed to prevent data corruption and maintain data integrity. It operates on two core principles: the Simple Integrity Axiom (no read down) and the * (Star) Integrity Axiom (no write up). These rules ensure that subjects cannot read data of lower integrity (to prevent being corrupted) and cannot write to data of higher integrity (to prevent corrupting it), making it ideal for applications requiring strict integrity controls.

Why this answer

Biba model enforces integrity: no write up (subjects cannot write to higher integrity objects) and no read down (subjects cannot read lower integrity data).

316
MCQeasy

A large financial institution is finalizing its annual risk treatment plan based on a recent enterprise risk assessment. The risk appetite statement approved by the board specifies that the organization will accept only low residual risks for financial loss, but is willing to accept moderate risks for reputational damage if cost-benefit justifies. The risk register includes the following findings: 1) A critical SQL injection vulnerability in the online banking portal with high likelihood and critical impact; current controls include a web application firewall (WAF) that is not fully tuned. 2) Use of outdated TLS 1.0 encryption on internal communications between data centers; likelihood is medium, impact is low. 3) Lack of background checks for third-party vendors with access to sensitive data; likelihood is low, impact is moderate. 4) A single point of failure in the primary data center's power supply; likelihood is low, impact is critical. 5) An incident response plan that has not been tested in two years; likelihood is medium, impact is moderate. The CISO must prioritize actions for the upcoming quarter. What is the most appropriate first step?

A.Transfer the single point of failure risk by purchasing business interruption insurance.
B.Immediately remediate the SQL injection vulnerability by tuning the WAF and applying vendor patches.
C.Outsource incident response to a managed security service provider (MSSP) to compensate for the untested plan.
D.Accept the risk of outdated TLS 1.0 encryption because impact is low.
AnswerB

Immediately remediating the SQL injection vulnerability by tuning the Web Application Firewall (WAF) and applying vendor patches is the most appropriate action because SQL injection represents a critical threat with potentially severe impact and high likelihood. This direct technical mitigation strategy actively reduces the attack surface and closes known security gaps, preventing unauthorized data access or manipulation. This proactive approach aligns with best practices for addressing the highest-priority risks first, directly improving the organization's security posture.

Why this answer

The SQL injection vulnerability has high likelihood and critical impact, resulting in a high risk level that exceeds the risk appetite for financial loss. Immediate remediation (tuning the WAF and applying vendor patches) is necessary to reduce the risk to an acceptable level and is the highest priority. Option A (transferring power supply risk via insurance) addresses a low-likelihood risk and is less urgent.

Option C (outsourcing incident response) does not directly address the untested plan and is not as critical. Option D (accepting outdated TLS) may be acceptable given low impact, but it is not the first step.

317
MCQhard

An attacker who has compromised the Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) could forge a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) to impersonate any user. This type of attack is known as:

A.Golden ticket attack
B.Silver ticket attack
C.Pass-the-ticket attack
D.Kerberos poisoning attack
AnswerA

A golden ticket attack leverages a compromised Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) account's NTLM hash (specifically, the krbtgt account) to forge a valid Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT). This forged TGT grants the attacker unlimited, domain-wide administrative access to all resources within the Active Directory environment. The attacker can impersonate any user, including non-existent ones, and request service tickets for any service without further authentication from the legitimate KDC.

Why this answer

A golden ticket attack involves forging a TGT using the KRBTGT account hash, granting access to any resource in the domain.

318
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is implementing a digital signature system to ensure non-repudiation. The security architect must select a hash function that meets the required security properties. Which THREE of the following are necessary properties for the hash function?

Select 3 answers
A.Preimage resistance
B.Reversibility
C.Collision resistance
D.Second preimage resistance
E.Determinism
AnswersA, C, D

Preimage resistance is a fundamental security property for digital signatures, ensuring that given a hash value, it is computationally infeasible to find any input message that produces that specific hash. This prevents an attacker from forging a signature by simply generating a new document that hashes to a known, legitimately signed hash, thereby upholding the non-repudiation principle.

Why this answer

A hash function must be preimage resistant (unable to invert), second preimage resistant (cannot find another input with the same hash), and collision resistant (cannot find two inputs with the same hash). Reversibility is not a property of hash functions—they are one-way. Determinism is inherent to all hash functions but is not a security property.

319
MCQeasy

A small business owner stores customer payment card information (PCI) in a legacy database that is not compliant with PCI DSS. The business is migrating to a new cloud-based point-of-sale (POS) system that uses tokenization. The owner wants to ensure that the legacy data is handled securely during the transition. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

A.Migrate the legacy data into the new POS system and have the tokenization service replace it
B.Encrypt the legacy database using AES-256 and store the encryption key on a separate server
C.Archive the legacy database to a tape backup and store it in a secure offsite vault
D.Tokenize the payment data in the legacy database, then securely purge the original cardholder data and verify the purge
AnswerD

This is the most effective strategy for reducing PCI DSS scope and inherent risk. Tokenization replaces actual sensitive payment card information with non-sensitive, algorithmically generated tokens, which are then stored. Crucially, the subsequent secure purging and verification of the original cardholder data completely eliminates the sensitive information from the organization's systems, significantly reducing the attack surface and compliance burden.

Why this answer

Tokenization replaces sensitive cardholder data with a non-sensitive token, rendering the original data useless for attackers. After tokenizing the legacy database, securely purging the original cardholder data (e.g., using NIST SP 800-88 compliant methods like overwriting or degaussing) and verifying the purge ensures compliance with PCI DSS requirement 3.1 (minimize stored cardholder data) and eliminates the risk of data breach from the legacy system.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose encryption (Option B) as a 'secure' catch-all, but PCI DSS requires minimizing stored cardholder data, not just protecting it—tokenization with purging is the only option that eliminates the data entirely, which is the core principle of asset security and data minimization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because migrating raw PCI data into the new POS system before tokenization would expose the data in transit and at rest, violating PCI DSS requirement 4 (encrypt transmission) and 3.4 (render stored data unreadable); tokenization should occur before or during migration, not after. Option B is wrong because encrypting the legacy database with AES-256 but storing the encryption key on a separate server still leaves the encrypted data vulnerable to key compromise and does not meet PCI DSS requirement 3.1 to minimize stored cardholder data—encryption is a compensating control, not a replacement for purging. Option C is wrong because archiving the legacy database to tape backup preserves the cardholder data indefinitely, violating PCI DSS requirement 3.1 and 3.2 (retention policy); even if stored offsite, the data remains a liability and must be purged after business need ends.

320
MCQeasy

Which cryptographic algorithm is an example of a symmetric stream cipher?

A.RC4
B.AES
C.3DES
D.RSA
AnswerA

RC4 is indeed a symmetric stream cipher, meaning it encrypts data one byte or bit at a time, generating a pseudorandom keystream that is then XORed with the plaintext to produce ciphertext. This approach makes it highly efficient for real-time communication and variable-length data streams, as it does not require padding to fixed block sizes. While widely used in protocols like WEP and SSL/TLS in the past, RC4 is now largely deprecated due to identified vulnerabilities when used improperly, particularly related to weak keys and non-random keystream generation.

Why this answer

RC4 is a widely known stream cipher that encrypts data one byte at a time.

321
MCQhard

A security team is evaluating a new endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution. Which of the following capabilities is MOST important for detecting fileless malware?

A.Static malware analysis.
B.Signature-based detection.
C.Behavioral analysis and process monitoring.
D.Network traffic inspection.
AnswerC

Behavioral analysis and process monitoring are highly effective against fileless malware because they observe the actual actions and interactions of processes in real-time on the endpoint. This includes detecting anomalous process creation, suspicious command-line arguments (e.g., PowerShell executing encoded commands), unauthorized memory access (e.g., process injection), and unusual system calls, regardless of whether a file was ever written to disk.

Why this answer

Behavioral analysis and process monitoring detect anomalous behavior typical of fileless malware. Signature-based detection is ineffective against fileless variants.

322
MCQhard

Which type of SOC report provides a public summary of controls related to security, availability, confidentiality, integrity, and privacy, but does not include detailed testing results?

A.SOC 2 Type II
B.SOC 3
C.SOC 1 Type II
D.SOC 2 Type I
AnswerB

A SOC 3 report is specifically designed for general public use, offering a high-level summary of a service organization's internal controls related to the Trust Services Criteria (security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy). Unlike SOC 2 reports, it omits the detailed description of controls and test results, making it suitable for marketing purposes or posting on a website without revealing sensitive operational details. Its primary purpose is public assurance.

Why this answer

SOC 3 reports are designed for public distribution and provide a high-level summary of an organization's controls related to security, availability, confidentiality, integrity, and privacy (the Trust Services Criteria). Unlike SOC 2 reports, SOC 3 reports do not include detailed testing results, control descriptions, or the auditor's opinion on control effectiveness, making them suitable for marketing or public disclosure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse SOC 2 Type II (which includes detailed testing results) with SOC 3, or assume that SOC 2 Type I (point-in-time) is a public summary, when in fact SOC 3 is the only report designed for public distribution without detailed testing results.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SOC 2 Type II reports include detailed testing results over a period of time, including the auditor's opinion on the effectiveness of controls, which contradicts the question's requirement for a public summary without detailed testing results. Option C is wrong because SOC 1 Type II reports focus on controls relevant to financial reporting (under SSAE 18) and are restricted to user entities and their auditors, not public summaries, and they include detailed testing results. Option D is wrong because SOC 2 Type I reports, while covering the same Trust Services Criteria, describe controls at a single point in time and include detailed control descriptions and auditor opinions, not a public summary without testing results.

323
MCQhard

An organization uses a custom application that stores user passwords using salted SHA-256 hashes. During a security audit, the auditor recommends migrating to a more secure password storage mechanism. Which of the following is the best recommendation?

A.Use plaintext with database encryption
B.Use AES-256 encryption for passwords
C.Use bcrypt with a cost factor of 12
D.Use MD5 with a salt
E.Use PBKDF2 with 10,000 iterations
AnswerC

Bcrypt is an excellent choice for password storage because it is a deliberately slow, adaptive hashing algorithm designed to resist brute-force and rainbow table attacks. Its "cost factor" (or work factor) parameter, set at 12 in this case, controls the computational difficulty, making it expensive for attackers to test many passwords per second. This inherent slowness, combined with built-in salting, significantly enhances the security of stored passwords against modern cracking techniques, including those utilizing GPUs.

Why this answer

bcrypt is a deliberately slow, adaptive password hashing function that includes a built-in salt and a configurable cost factor. A cost factor of 12 makes each hash computation computationally expensive, effectively thwarting brute-force and GPU-based attacks. Unlike SHA-256, which is designed for speed and can be cracked rapidly with modern hardware, bcrypt's design inherently resists parallelization and ASIC/GPU acceleration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'encryption' (reversible) with 'hashing' (one-way) and mistakenly choose AES-256 or database encryption, failing to recognize that password storage must use a slow, salted, one-way hashing algorithm specifically designed for credential protection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because storing passwords in plaintext, even with database encryption, exposes them to any attacker who gains access to the decryption key or the running application, violating the fundamental principle of never storing passwords in recoverable form. Option B is wrong because AES-256 encryption is reversible; if the encryption key is compromised, all passwords are instantly exposed, and encryption does not protect against insider threats or application-level breaches. Option D is wrong because MD5 is cryptographically broken and vulnerable to collision attacks, and even with a salt, it is far too fast to compute, allowing attackers to crack hashes at billions per second.

Option E is wrong because while PBKDF2 is a reasonable key derivation function, 10,000 iterations is considered a weak and outdated iteration count; modern recommendations (e.g., NIST SP 800-63B) suggest at least 310,000 iterations for SHA-256, and PBKDF2 is less resistant to GPU/ASIC attacks than bcrypt or Argon2.

324
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO are essential components of a security policy framework?

Select 2 answers
A.Specific encryption key lengths
B.Incident response flowcharts
C.Network topology diagrams
D.Roles and responsibilities
E.Statement of scope
AnswersD, E

Defining roles and responsibilities is an essential component of a security policy framework because it assigns accountability and clarifies who is responsible for specific security tasks and decisions. This ensures that all personnel understand their obligations regarding information security, from data ownership and system administration to compliance monitoring. Without clearly delineated roles, policies lack enforceability and the organization cannot effectively manage its security posture, leading to potential gaps and failures in implementation.

Why this answer

Roles and responsibilities (D) are essential because they define who is accountable for implementing, maintaining, and enforcing the security policy. Without clear assignment of duties, policy execution becomes unenforceable and audit trails lack ownership, violating the separation of duties principle central to the Security and Risk Management domain.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse operational documents (flowcharts, diagrams, key lengths) with the foundational governance components of a policy framework, which must always include scope and accountability to be enforceable.

325
MCQhard

A government agency's data retention policy requires that classified documents be destroyed after 10 years. Which method ensures both the information and the media are completely destroyed in a way that is verifiable and auditable?

A.Incineration in a certified facility
B.Overwriting the data seven times
C.Degaussing the storage media
D.Deleting all files and emptying the recycle bin
AnswerA

Incineration in a certified facility provides the most absolute method of data destruction by physically reducing the storage media to ash. This process renders all data completely unrecoverable, satisfying the highest security requirements for sensitive government information. The certification ensures compliance with environmental regulations and provides an essential audit trail through destruction certificates, verifying the complete and irreversible elimination of the data-bearing asset.

Why this answer

Incineration in a certified facility is the only option that completely destroys both the information and the physical media, leaving no residue that could be reconstructed. For classified government documents, the destruction must be verifiable and auditable, which a certified incineration facility provides through documented chain-of-custody and destruction certificates. This method ensures the media is physically reduced to ash, eliminating any possibility of data recovery, unlike logical or magnetic techniques.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'sanitization' with 'destruction' — they may choose degaussing or overwriting because those methods effectively erase data, but the question explicitly requires complete destruction of both information and media, which only physical destruction methods like incineration achieve.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because overwriting data seven times (e.g., using the Gutmann method) only addresses logical data on functional media; it does not destroy the physical media itself, and for classified documents, the media must be physically destroyed to prevent reconstruction from residual magnetic patterns or platter remnants. Option C is wrong because degaussing destroys the magnetic field on storage media, rendering data unreadable, but it does not destroy the media itself; degaussed drives can still be physically intact and potentially leak information through physical inspection or advanced forensic techniques, and it is not verifiable for all media types (e.g., SSDs). Option D is wrong because deleting files and emptying the recycle bin only removes file system pointers, leaving the actual data intact on the media until overwritten; this is completely insufficient for classified destruction and provides no verifiable or auditable proof of destruction.

326
MCQhard

A multinational corporation is establishing a security governance framework. The board of directors wants to ensure that information security strategy aligns with business objectives. Which role is primarily responsible for integrating security into the organization's strategic decision-making?

A.IT security team
B.Internal audit team
C.Senior management
D.Data owner
AnswerC

Senior management is ultimately responsible for establishing and overseeing the organization's security governance framework. They possess the necessary authority to define the strategic direction for security, articulate the enterprise's risk appetite, and ensure that security objectives are fully integrated with and support overall business goals. This leadership ensures adequate resources are allocated and accountability is clearly defined across the organization.

Why this answer

Senior management (C) is primarily responsible for integrating security into strategic decision-making because they hold the authority to allocate resources, define risk appetite, and ensure that security initiatives directly support business objectives. In a governance framework, only senior management can bridge the gap between operational security and enterprise strategy, as they are accountable for the organization's overall risk posture and compliance mandates.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse operational responsibility (IT security team) with strategic accountability (senior management), leading them to select the IT security team because they are the ones executing security tasks, but the CISSP emphasizes that governance and strategic alignment are board-level duties.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the IT security team is responsible for implementing and operationalizing security controls, not for setting strategic direction or aligning security with business goals. Option B is wrong because the internal audit team provides independent assurance and evaluates control effectiveness, but they do not own or drive strategic integration of security. Option D is wrong because the data owner is accountable for classifying and protecting specific data assets, not for enterprise-wide strategic alignment of security with business objectives.

327
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a secure software development lifecycle (SSDLC). Which of the following is a key activity during the design phase?

A.Static code analysis
B.Code signing
C.Threat modeling
D.Penetration testing
AnswerC

Threat modeling is a structured approach used early in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), specifically during the design phase, to identify potential threats, vulnerabilities, and attack vectors. It involves analyzing the system's architecture, data flows, and trust boundaries to proactively understand where security controls are needed. By identifying and mitigating risks before coding begins, it significantly reduces the cost and effort of fixing security flaws later.

Why this answer

Threat modeling is a key activity during the design phase of the SSDLC because it proactively identifies potential security threats, vulnerabilities, and attack vectors before any code is written. By analyzing the system's architecture, data flows, and trust boundaries (e.g., using STRIDE or PASTA methodologies), teams can design security controls directly into the system, reducing the cost and impact of fixes later. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-64 and Microsoft SDL frameworks, which mandate threat modeling as a core design-phase activity.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'design phase' with 'implementation phase' activities, mistakenly selecting static code analysis (A) because it is a common security review, but it requires code to exist, whereas threat modeling is the only design-phase option that addresses architecture before code is written.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because static code analysis is a source code review technique performed during the implementation phase, not the design phase, as it requires code to be written to scan for syntax errors and security flaws. Option B is wrong because code signing is a deployment-phase activity that uses digital signatures (e.g., Authenticode) to verify the integrity and origin of compiled binaries, not a design-phase task. Option D is wrong because penetration testing is a validation activity performed during the testing or operations phase, where live systems are attacked to find vulnerabilities, not during design.

328
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

A.To provide oversight and approval for significant changes
B.To implement changes as requested by management
C.To review security incidents after they occur
D.To approve all changes to the production environment
AnswerA

The Change Advisory Board (CAB) primarily serves as a governance body responsible for evaluating and authorizing significant changes to IT services and infrastructure. This oversight ensures that all high-impact or high-risk modifications are thoroughly assessed for potential security implications, operational disruptions, and resource requirements before implementation. Their approval process is crucial for maintaining system stability, security posture, and compliance.

Why this answer

The CAB reviews and approves changes to ensure they are properly assessed and minimize risk.

329
MCQmedium

Which of the following describes the concept of 'least privilege' in the context of access control?

A.Users are granted only the permissions necessary to perform their job functions
B.Access is granted on a need-to-know basis but with maximum permissions
C.Access is based on roles and seniority
D.Users have access to all resources unless explicitly denied
AnswerA

The principle of least privilege dictates that users, processes, and applications should be granted only the absolute minimum set of permissions required to perform their legitimate functions. This minimizes the potential damage from accidental errors, insider threats, or external attacks, as a compromised entity will have limited capabilities within the system. It's a foundational security concept that reduces the overall attack surface and limits the blast radius of any security incident.

Why this answer

Least privilege is a fundamental access control principle that mandates users be granted only the permissions necessary to perform their specific job functions. This minimizes the attack surface by reducing unnecessary access to sensitive resources, limiting potential damage from accidental or malicious actions. In practice, this is enforced through mechanisms like discretionary access control (DAC) or role-based access control (RBAC) with granular permission sets, ensuring no user has more rights than required.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'least privilege' with 'need-to-know' (which focuses on data confidentiality rather than permission granularity) or assume that role-based access inherently enforces least privilege, ignoring that roles can be overly broad.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because it contradicts least privilege by granting 'maximum permissions' on a need-to-know basis, which would over-provision access and increase risk. Option C is wrong because it conflates least privilege with role-based access control (RBAC) and seniority, which may assign excessive permissions based on role hierarchy rather than actual job necessity. Option D is wrong because it describes a default-allow or 'open' access model, which is the opposite of least privilege; least privilege requires explicit permission grants, not implicit access to all resources.

330
MCQhard

In OAuth 2.0, which grant type is recommended for a native mobile application that cannot securely store a client secret, and uses PKCE?

A.Client Credentials grant
B.Implicit grant
C.Device Code grant
D.Authorization Code grant with PKCE
AnswerD

The Authorization Code grant with Proof Key for Code Exchange (PKCE) is the recommended and most secure flow for public clients like native mobile applications. PKCE mitigates the authorization code interception attack by requiring the client to generate a cryptographically random `code_verifier` and send its hash (`code_challenge`) during the initial authorization request. The same `code_verifier` must then be presented when exchanging the authorization code for an access token, ensuring only the legitimate client that initiated the request can complete the exchange, even if the code is intercepted.

Why this answer

The Authorization Code grant with PKCE is designed for public clients like mobile apps to prevent interception of the authorization code.

331
MCQhard

A financial institution mandates that all administrative access to network devices must go through a privileged access management (PAM) solution. The PAM solution manages and rotates credentials automatically and logs all sessions. Recently, an auditor discovered that a router's configuration was changed outside of the approved change window. PAM logs show no session during that time. The router supports both local and RADIUS authentication. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for the unauthorized change?

A.A local account on the router was used that is not managed by the PAM solution.
B.The PAM solution's database was corrupted and failed to log the session.
C.The router's RADIUS configuration pointed to a different, unmonitored authentication server.
D.The network administrator used a shared service account not unique to the PAM system.
AnswerA

This is the most direct and common vulnerability that allows administrative actions to bypass centralized logging. If a router maintains local user accounts or an 'enable secret' password that is not integrated with or managed by the PAM solution, any access performed using these credentials will entirely circumvent the PAM system's session recording, auditing, and logging capabilities. This creates a critical blind spot, enabling unmonitored configuration changes and directly violating the financial institution's mandate for comprehensive administrative access logging.

Why this answer

The PAM solution logs all sessions, but the logs show no session during the time of the unauthorized change. Since the router supports both local and RADIUS authentication, the most likely explanation is that a local account (e.g., a console or enable password) was used directly on the router, bypassing the PAM-managed RADIUS authentication entirely. Local accounts are not managed or rotated by the PAM solution, so no session would be recorded.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume all administrative access must go through PAM, but they overlook that local accounts on the device itself are not managed by PAM and can be used to make changes without any PAM session log.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because database corruption would likely cause a failure to log multiple sessions or produce error logs, not a single missing session with all other logs intact. Option C is wrong because if the RADIUS configuration pointed to a different, unmonitored server, that server would still authenticate the session, and the PAM solution would not log it, but the router's RADIUS configuration is typically managed by the PAM solution or network team; however, the question states the PAM solution manages credentials and logs sessions, so a different RADIUS server would still generate a session log on that server, not a complete absence of logs. Option D is wrong because a shared service account not unique to the PAM system would still be authenticated via RADIUS (if configured) and would appear in the PAM logs as a session, even if the account is shared; the absence of any session log indicates no RADIUS authentication occurred.

332
MCQhard

A network architect is designing a network to comply with PCI DSS requirements that cardholder data must be encrypted during transmission over open networks. Which protocol should be used for encrypting traffic between a point-of-sale (POS) terminal and the payment gateway?

A.TLS 1.0
B.TLS 1.2
C.SSH
D.SSL 3.0
AnswerB

TLS 1.2 is currently considered a strong cryptographic protocol, supporting robust algorithms like AES-GCM and SHA-256 for encryption and hashing, respectively. It effectively mitigates vulnerabilities present in older versions, making it compliant with PCI DSS Requirement 4.1 for securing cardholder data in transit. Its widespread adoption ensures interoperability and strong security for payment transactions.

Why this answer

TLS 1.2 is the correct choice because it is a widely accepted, secure protocol for encrypting data in transit, and it meets PCI DSS requirements for strong cryptography. PCI DSS explicitly prohibits the use of SSL and early TLS versions (1.0) due to known vulnerabilities, and TLS 1.2 provides robust cipher suites and forward secrecy.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse TLS 1.0 with TLS 1.2, assuming all TLS versions are equally secure, but PCI DSS explicitly requires TLS 1.2 or higher, and TLS 1.0 is considered weak and non-compliant.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because TLS 1.0 is deprecated by PCI DSS as of June 30, 2018, due to vulnerabilities such as BEAST and POODLE, and does not meet the requirement for strong encryption. Option C is wrong because SSH is primarily used for secure remote administration and file transfer, not for encrypting POS-to-gateway traffic, and it operates at a different layer (application) than the transport-layer encryption needed for payment protocols. Option D is wrong because SSL 3.0 is completely broken and prohibited by PCI DSS since June 30, 2015, due to the POODLE attack and lack of secure cipher suites.

333
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a primary function of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?

A.Encrypting network traffic
B.Providing antivirus protection
C.Enforcing access control policies
D.Storing cryptographic keys securely
AnswerD

Storing cryptographic keys securely is a core and primary function of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). The TPM provides a tamper-resistant environment, often isolated from the main CPU, where sensitive cryptographic keys can be generated, stored, and used without being exposed to software vulnerabilities or physical attacks on the host system. This secure storage protects keys from unauthorized access and ensures their integrity, which is crucial for secure boot, disk encryption, and digital signing operations.

Why this answer

A TPM provides hardware-based secure storage for cryptographic keys, enabling secure boot and remote attestation.

334
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps for a secure password change procedure in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Password change: verify identity, enter new password, enforce history, hash storage, log.

335
MCQhard

A security analyst discovers that a service account in Active Directory has not had its password changed in 5 years and has domain admin privileges. The account is used by a legacy application that does not support modern authentication protocols. Which of the following is the MOST secure approach to manage this account?

A.Convert the account to a group Managed Service Account (gMSA)
B.Set a very long, complex password and store it in a password manager
C.Decommission the legacy application and migrate to a modern alternative that supports secure authentication
D.Disable the account and create a new service account with limited privileges
AnswerC

Decommissioning the legacy application and migrating to a modern alternative is the most comprehensive and effective long-term solution. This approach eliminates the underlying security risk entirely by removing the need for a problematic service account that relies on insecure authentication methods. Modern applications typically support robust authentication mechanisms like OAuth 2.0, OpenID Connect, or integrated Windows authentication, which significantly enhance security posture and reduce the attack surface associated with static credentials. This strategy proactively addresses the root cause of the vulnerability.

Why this answer

The most secure approach because it eliminates the risk by decommissioning the legacy application and migrating to a modern alternative that supports secure authentication protocols such as Kerberos or modern federation. This removes the need for a highly privileged service account with a non-expiring password and resolves the underlying issue. Option A is not suitable because group Managed Service Accounts (gMSAs) require the application to support modern authentication and the system must meet domain functional level requirements.

Option B does not address the lack of automatic password rotation and still leaves a static credential vulnerable to theft. Option D would break the application immediately without a solution.

336
MCQeasy

A system administrator is configuring an LDAP directory for user authentication. The policy requires that account lockout occurs after a specified number of failed attempts. Which attribute should be configured?

A.failedLoginAttempts
B.lockoutThreshold
C.lockoutDuration
D.passwordLockoutTime
AnswerB

The `lockoutThreshold` attribute is the precise configuration setting that defines the maximum number of consecutive failed authentication attempts permitted for a user account before the system automatically locks it. This attribute establishes the critical security policy that prevents brute-force attacks by specifying *how many* failures will trigger the account lockout mechanism, directly addressing the system administrator's goal.

Why this answer

The `lockoutThreshold` attribute in an LDAP directory specifies the maximum number of consecutive failed authentication attempts allowed before the account is locked. This directly satisfies the policy requirement to lock the account after a specified number of failed attempts, making it the correct attribute to configure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the attribute that sets the failure limit (`lockoutThreshold`) with the attribute that tracks current failures (`failedLoginAttempts`) or the attribute that sets the lockout duration (`lockoutDuration`), leading them to pick a wrong option that describes a related but distinct function.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `failedLoginAttempts` is typically an operational attribute that tracks the current count of failed attempts, not a configuration parameter that sets the threshold for lockout. Option C is wrong because `lockoutDuration` defines how long the account remains locked after the threshold is exceeded, not the number of failed attempts that trigger the lockout. Option D is wrong because `passwordLockoutTime` is not a standard LDAP attribute; it may be confused with a timestamp of when the lockout occurred, but it does not set the failure count limit.

337
MCQmedium

An organization is developing an incident response plan. Which component is primarily responsible for defining the criteria for escalating an incident to senior management and legal counsel?

A.Escalation paths
B.Communication plan
C.Recovery procedures
D.Incident categories
AnswerA

Escalation paths are a critical component of an incident response plan, explicitly detailing the predefined triggers and the hierarchical notification process for significant incidents. They specify which individuals or departments, such as senior management, legal counsel, or public relations, must be informed at various stages of an incident based on its severity, impact, or regulatory implications. This ensures that appropriate leadership and specialized expertise are engaged promptly to manage the broader organizational consequences.

Why this answer

Escalation paths specify the conditions and hierarchy for notifying higher-level management and legal teams based on incident severity and impact.

338
MCQhard

A company uses BGP to exchange routes with its ISP. To prevent prefix hijacking, which mechanism should be implemented?

A.BGP MD5 authentication
B.BGP community values
C.RPKI
D.AS-path filtering
AnswerC

Resource Public Key Infrastructure (RPKI) provides a robust cryptographic framework for validating the origin of IP prefixes, directly addressing route hijacking. It enables legitimate IP address holders to create cryptographically signed Route Origin Authorizations (ROAs), which explicitly state which Autonomous System (AS) is authorized to originate specific IP prefixes. Routers can then use these ROAs to verify the authenticity of BGP announcements, filtering out routes where the advertised origin AS does not match the authorized AS, thereby effectively mitigating route hijacking.

Why this answer

RPKI (Resource Public Key Infrastructure) is the correct mechanism because it cryptographically validates the origin AS of a BGP route announcement, preventing prefix hijacking by ensuring that only the legitimate owner of an IP prefix can announce it. Unlike other options, RPKI provides a trust anchor based on the IP address allocation hierarchy, making it the only solution that directly addresses the root cause of hijacking—unauthorized origin AS claims.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests BGP MD5 authentication as a security measure, but the trap here is confusing session-level authentication (MD5) with route-level validation (RPKI), leading candidates to choose A because they think 'authentication' covers route integrity, when it only protects the BGP session itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because BGP MD5 authentication (RFC 2385) only secures the TCP session between BGP peers, preventing spoofed TCP resets or session hijacking, but does not validate the legitimacy of the route content itself, so it cannot stop a malicious AS from announcing a prefix it does not own. Option B is wrong because BGP community values are tags used for route policy and traffic engineering (e.g., prepending, local preference), but they are not authenticated or cryptographically bound to the origin AS, so they can be easily manipulated or ignored by an attacker. Option D is wrong because AS-path filtering relies on manually configured prefix lists or AS-path access lists to block routes based on AS-path patterns, which is static, error-prone, and cannot detect hijacks where the attacker uses a legitimate AS-path (e.g., via a compromised AS or by prepending a valid AS number).

339
MCQeasy

A network security analyst receives an alert from the intrusion detection system (IDS) indicating a high volume of TCP SYN packets to a single external IP address from a compromised internal host. This is characteristic of which type of attack?

A.SYN flood
B.Man-in-the-middle
C.ARP spoofing
D.DNS amplification
AnswerA

A SYN flood is a classic Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack that exploits the TCP three-way handshake. Attackers send a high volume of TCP SYN packets to a target server, but intentionally never complete the handshake by sending the final ACK. This leaves the server with numerous half-open connections, rapidly exhausting its connection table and memory resources, thereby preventing legitimate users from establishing new connections and causing a service outage.

Why this answer

A SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending a high volume of SYN packets to a target, exhausting its connection table and preventing legitimate connections. The IDS alert specifically describes a compromised internal host generating many SYN packets to a single external IP, which matches the classic behavior of a SYN flood where the attacker spoofs the source IP or uses a bot to saturate the target's resources.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a SYN flood (which uses TCP SYN packets to exhaust resources) with a DNS amplification attack (which uses UDP and reflection), but the question's mention of 'TCP SYN packets' directly points to the SYN flood, not a volumetric reflection attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack involves intercepting and potentially altering communications between two parties, not generating a high volume of SYN packets to a single external IP. Option C is wrong because ARP spoofing operates at Layer 2 by associating an attacker's MAC address with a legitimate IP address on a local network, not by sending TCP SYN packets to an external IP. Option D is wrong because a DNS amplification attack uses small DNS queries with spoofed source IPs to generate large responses directed at a victim, relying on UDP and DNS servers, not TCP SYN packets from a compromised host.

340
MCQeasy

A company requires employees to authenticate using a smart card and PIN to access the corporate network. This is an example of which type of authentication?

A.Single-factor authentication
B.Biometric authentication
C.Two-factor authentication
D.Single sign-on
AnswerC

Two-factor authentication (2FA) requires a user to provide two different types of credentials from distinct categories to verify their identity. The scenario explicitly states the use of a smart card, which represents "something you have," and a PIN, which represents "something you know." Since these are two separate and independent authentication factors, this method precisely matches the definition and implementation of two-factor authentication, making it the correct answer.

Why this answer

This scenario requires two distinct authentication factors: something you have (the smart card) and something you know (the PIN). Smart cards store a private key or certificate that must be unlocked by the PIN, and both factors must be presented simultaneously to authenticate. This meets the NIST SP 800-63 definition of multi-factor authentication, specifically two-factor authentication.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may mistakenly think a smart card alone is a single factor, forgetting that the PIN is a separate knowledge factor, or they may confuse two-factor authentication with SSO because both can involve a single login event.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because single-factor authentication uses only one factor (e.g., just a password or just a smart card), but here both a smart card and a PIN are required. Option B is wrong because biometric authentication relies on physical characteristics like fingerprints or iris patterns, not a smart card and PIN. Option D is wrong because single sign-on (SSO) allows a user to authenticate once and access multiple systems without re-entering credentials, but it does not define the number of factors used in that initial authentication.

341
MCQeasy

A company hires a third party to perform an assessment where the testers are given no prior knowledge of the internal network. This type of penetration test is known as:

A.Black box
B.White box
C.Grey box
D.Internal test
AnswerA

Black box testing simulates an external attacker with no prior knowledge of the target system's internal structure, network architecture, or source code. The assessor approaches the system as an unprivileged outsider, attempting to discover vulnerabilities through publicly available information and external reconnaissance. This method effectively evaluates an organization's perimeter defenses and its ability to withstand real-world, unknown threats, making it ideal for a third-party assessment where initial knowledge is withheld.

Why this answer

A black box penetration test simulates an external attacker with no prior knowledge of the target environment. The testers are given no credentials, network diagrams, or internal details, forcing them to perform reconnaissance and exploitation from an outsider's perspective. This aligns directly with the scenario where the third party has 'no prior knowledge of the internal network.'

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the test's knowledge level (black, white, grey) with the test's origin (internal vs. external), leading candidates to incorrectly select 'Internal test' because they associate 'no prior knowledge' with an external perspective, but the question explicitly asks for the type based on knowledge, not location.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a white box test provides testers with full knowledge of the internal network, including credentials, source code, and architecture diagrams, which contradicts the 'no prior knowledge' condition. Option C is wrong because a grey box test offers limited knowledge, such as user-level credentials or partial network maps, not zero prior knowledge. Option D is wrong because an internal test is defined by the test's origin (inside the network perimeter), not by the level of knowledge; internal tests can be black, white, or grey box, and the question specifically describes the knowledge level, not the test location.

342
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is conducting a security assessment of its network infrastructure. Which of the following activities are typically performed during a vulnerability assessment? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Identification of missing security patches
B.Attempting to crack password hashes
C.Social engineering attacks against employees
D.Exploiting identified vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access
E.Automated scanning of open ports and services
AnswersA, E

Patch identification is a key component of vulnerability assessment.

Why this answer

A is correct because vulnerability assessments focus on identifying and cataloging weaknesses without exploitation. Missing security patches are a common finding from automated scanning tools like Nessus or OpenVAS, which compare system configurations against known vulnerability databases (e.g., CVE). This aligns with the assessment's goal of discovering vulnerabilities, not exploiting them.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing vulnerability assessment (identification only) with penetration testing (identification plus exploitation), leading candidates to select 'Exploiting identified vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access' as a correct activity.

343
MCQhard

A company uses differential privacy to release aggregate statistics from a dataset containing sensitive employee information. Which of the following is true regarding differential privacy?

A.It works by adding noise to the data or query results to protect individual privacy
B.It ensures that no individual's data can ever be inferred from the released statistics
C.It requires that data be encrypted before release
D.It is a method of pseudonymization that replaces identifiers with pseudonyms
AnswerA

Differential privacy achieves its robust privacy guarantees by systematically injecting carefully calibrated random noise into either the raw data before aggregation or directly into the query results. This noise obfuscates the contribution of any single individual, making it statistically difficult to determine if a particular individual's data was included in the dataset or query. This method allows for the release of aggregate statistics while mathematically bounding the risk of individual re-identification, balancing utility and privacy.

Why this answer

Differential privacy adds calibrated noise to query results to mask individual contributions, ensuring that the inclusion or exclusion of any single record does not significantly affect the output.

344
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, the tester has obtained initial access and is now trying to move laterally to other systems. Which phase of the penetration testing process does this represent?

A.Reconnaissance
B.Reporting
C.Post-exploitation/lateral movement
D.Exploitation
AnswerC

Post-exploitation begins immediately after initial access is successfully gained on a target system. This crucial phase focuses on maintaining access, escalating privileges within the compromised system, gathering sensitive information, and establishing persistence mechanisms. Lateral movement is a key component, involving techniques to pivot from the initial compromised host to other systems within the network, expanding the tester's foothold and access to additional resources to simulate a real-world breach.

Why this answer

The post-exploitation/lateral movement phase occurs after initial access is gained, where the tester uses compromised systems as pivot points to access other network segments, often leveraging tools like PsExec, WMI, or SMB relay to move across hosts. This phase is distinct from exploitation, which focuses on gaining the initial foothold, and reconnaissance, which occurs before any access is obtained.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'exploitation' (gaining initial access) with 'post-exploitation/lateral movement' (using that access to move to other systems), as candidates often think any active attack step is 'exploitation' without recognizing the sequential phases of a penetration test.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reconnaissance is the initial information-gathering phase (e.g., DNS enumeration, port scanning) that occurs before any access is obtained, not after initial access. Option B is wrong because reporting is the final phase where findings are documented and presented to stakeholders, not during active lateral movement. Option D is wrong because exploitation is the phase where vulnerabilities are used to gain initial access (e.g., exploiting an SMB vulnerability), not the subsequent movement to other systems.

345
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the primary purpose of output encoding in web application security?

A.Preventing buffer overflow attacks
B.Preventing cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
C.Preventing cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks
D.Preventing SQL injection attacks
AnswerC

Output encoding is the fundamental defense against cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which involve injecting malicious client-side scripts into web pages. By transforming potentially dangerous characters like angle brackets (<, >) and quotes (", ') into their safe entity equivalents (e.g., &lt;, &gt;), output encoding ensures that user-supplied input is always interpreted as inert data. This prevents the browser from executing the injected content as active code, thereby neutralizing the XSS payload before it can affect other users.

Why this answer

Output encoding is the practice of converting special characters (e.g., <, >, &, ") into their corresponding HTML entities (e.g., &lt; &gt; &amp; &quot;) before sending data to the browser. This ensures that any user-supplied data is treated as text, not executable code, thereby neutralizing injected scripts. It is the primary defense against stored, reflected, and DOM-based cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks because it breaks the parser's ability to interpret the data as active content.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse output encoding with input validation or sanitization, mistakenly thinking it prevents SQL injection or CSRF, but output encoding only neutralizes XSS by ensuring data is rendered as text in the browser, not as executable code.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because buffer overflow attacks are prevented by bounds checking, input validation, and safe memory functions (e.g., strncpy instead of strcpy), not by output encoding, which operates on output to browsers, not on memory buffers. Option B is wrong because CSRF is prevented by anti-CSRF tokens (e.g., synchronizer tokens or SameSite cookies), not by output encoding, which does not validate the origin or authenticity of requests. Option D is wrong because SQL injection is prevented by parameterized queries (prepared statements) or stored procedures, not by output encoding, which applies to HTML/JavaScript contexts, not to database query construction.

346
Multi-Selectmedium

A SOC manager is designing a tiered incident response team. Which THREE of the following are standard roles in an incident response team according to industry best practices?

Select 3 answers
A.Forensic Investigator
B.Human Resources Representative
C.Incident Response Manager
D.Chief Financial Officer
E.Communications Lead
AnswersA, C, E

A forensic investigator is crucial for preserving the chain of custody, analyzing digital artifacts, and determining the root cause and scope of an incident. Their specialized skills ensure that evidence is admissible in legal proceedings and that a thorough post-incident analysis can be conducted to prevent future occurrences. This role is typically part of a Tier 2 or Tier 3 response, providing deep technical insight.

Why this answer

Standard IR team roles include IR manager, security analyst, forensic investigator, communications lead, and legal counsel.

347
MCQeasy

A system administrator notices that user accounts are often left active after employees leave the company. Which process should be automated to address this?

A.Single sign-on implementation
B.Password reset policy
C.Multi-factor authentication
D.Automated account provisioning and deprovisioning
AnswerD

Automated account provisioning and deprovisioning directly addresses the comprehensive lifecycle management of user identities across an organization's systems. This integrated process automatically creates accounts for new employees, modifies permissions as roles change, and critically, disables or deletes accounts promptly when an employee departs or no longer requires access. By synchronizing with authoritative sources like HR systems, it ensures that user accounts are always aligned with current employment status, significantly mitigating the security risk of orphaned or unauthorized active accounts.

Why this answer

Automated account provisioning and deprovisioning ensures that when an employee leaves the company, their access rights are automatically revoked in a timely manner. This process directly addresses the issue of orphaned accounts by integrating with HR systems to trigger account disablement or deletion upon termination, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse authentication mechanisms (SSO, MFA, password policies) with identity lifecycle management, assuming any security control that involves accounts will solve the problem of orphaned accounts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Single Sign-On (SSO) simplifies authentication across multiple systems but does not manage the lifecycle of user accounts or remove them when an employee leaves. Option B is wrong because a password reset policy governs how often passwords must be changed or how they are recovered, but it does not deactivate accounts after termination. Option C is wrong because Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) adds an extra layer of security to the login process but does not automate the creation or removal of user accounts.

348
MCQmedium

During a forensic investigation, the team needs to preserve evidence from a running server. What is the FIRST step the team should take?

A.Capture a memory dump.
B.Create a disk image.
C.Shut down the server normally.
D.Unplug the network cable.
AnswerA

Capturing a memory dump is the most critical initial step in preserving volatile evidence during a forensic investigation. This action secures data residing in RAM, such as active processes, network connections, open files, and potential malware artifacts that exist only in memory. Failure to capture a memory dump before power loss or system shutdown results in the irreversible loss of this highly volatile and often crucial forensic data, adhering to the principle of the order of volatility.

Why this answer

The first step in a forensic investigation of a running server is to capture a memory dump because volatile data (RAM) contains critical evidence such as running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and malware that would be lost if the system is powered off or altered. Preserving this volatile state before any other action ensures that the most transient evidence is secured, following the order of volatility principle. Capturing memory first prevents irreversible loss of data that cannot be recovered from disk or network captures.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the urgency of preserving volatile data with the desire to immediately isolate the system from the network, leading them to choose unplugging the network cable first, but the correct forensic priority is to capture the most volatile evidence (memory) before any network or power actions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because creating a disk image is a non-volatile data acquisition step that should occur after capturing memory, as disk imaging does not preserve volatile evidence like running processes or encryption keys. Option C is wrong because shutting down the server normally would cause the operating system to cleanly terminate processes, potentially destroying evidence such as temporary files, network connections, and memory-resident malware, and may trigger anti-forensic mechanisms. Option D is wrong because unplugging the network cable, while it may prevent remote tampering, is not the first step; it should be performed after memory capture to avoid disrupting network-based evidence (e.g., active connections, network traffic logs) that could be captured from memory first.

349
MCQhard

An organization is recovering from a ransomware attack that encrypted critical servers. The backup strategy must ensure that the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 1 hour is met. Which backup method is MOST appropriate?

A.Continuous data protection (CDP)
B.Daily full backups
C.Weekly full backups with daily differentials
D.Snapshot every 4 hours
AnswerA

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) records every transaction and change as it occurs, effectively creating a continuous stream of recovery points. This granular approach allows an organization to restore data to any specific point in time, including moments immediately preceding a ransomware infection, thereby minimizing data loss to near zero. It directly addresses stringent Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs) by capturing every change, ensuring the most current data is always available for restoration.

Why this answer

Continuous data protection (CDP) captures changes in real time, meeting a 1-hour RPO.

350
MCQmedium

A company uses smart cards for authentication to workstations. A user inserts their smart card but is prompted for a PIN. The user enters the correct PIN but authentication fails. The smart card is not expired. What is the most likely cause?

A.The user's certificate is revoked
B.The PIN is incorrectly stored on the card
C.The smart card driver is outdated
D.The workstation's clock is off by more than 5 minutes
AnswerA

When a user authenticates with a smart card, the workstation verifies the digital certificate stored on the card as part of the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) process. This verification includes checking the certificate's revocation status against a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or via Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) with the Certificate Authority (CA). If the certificate has been revoked, even if the user enters the correct PIN, the authentication process will fail because the system no longer trusts the identity bound to that certificate, rendering the credential invalid for access.

Why this answer

When a smart card is used for authentication, the PIN unlocks the private key stored on the card, but the actual authentication typically relies on a certificate chain and the validity of the user's certificate. If the certificate has been revoked (e.g., due to compromise or termination), the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) check will fail, causing authentication to be denied even though the PIN is correct and the card is not expired.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume PIN entry failure is the only smart card authentication issue, but the PIN only unlocks the private key; the certificate's revocation status is a separate, often overlooked, layer that can cause authentication to fail after correct PIN entry.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the PIN is not stored on the card; the PIN is a user-entered secret used to unlock the card's private key, and if the PIN were incorrectly stored, the card would reject the PIN entry itself, not allow entry and then fail authentication. Option C is wrong because an outdated smart card driver would typically cause the card reader to not be recognized or the card to not be read at all, not allow PIN entry and then fail authentication. Option D is wrong because a workstation clock skew of more than 5 minutes could cause certificate validity period checks to fail, but this would affect the certificate's 'not before' or 'not after' dates, not revocation status; revocation is checked via CRL/OCSP independently of system time.

351
MCQmedium

A multinational corporation maintains site-to-site IPsec VPN tunnels between its headquarters and three regional branch offices. Over the past week, the tunnels have been dropping intermittently, causing disruption to real-time applications. The network team checked logs and found frequent 'Phase 2 rekey failure' messages. The tunnels are configured with IKEv1 and preshared keys. The headquarters uses a Cisco ASA, and the branches use various vendors' firewalls. The team verified that firewall policies allow IPsec traffic, and there is no packet loss on the WAN links. Which action should the team take to resolve the issue most effectively?

A.Increase the MTU on the WAN interfaces to 1500 bytes on all firewalls.
B.Change the encryption algorithm from AES-256 to 3DES on all peers.
C.Migrate all VPN connections from IPsec to SSL VPN using clientless access.
D.Adjust the Dead Peer Detection (DPD) intervals and Phase 2 lifetime settings to be consistent across all sites.
AnswerD

Inconsistent Dead Peer Detection (DPD) intervals can cause one peer to prematurely declare the other dead and tear down the tunnel, disrupting rekey attempts. Similarly, mismatched Phase 2 Security Association (SA) lifetimes will cause peers to attempt rekeying at different times, leading to negotiation failures. Ensuring these critical parameters are synchronized across all sites allows for coordinated rekeying and stable tunnel operation, preventing premature disconnections and rekey failures.

Why this answer

The frequent 'Phase 2 rekey failure' messages indicate a mismatch in IPsec security association (SA) parameters between the Cisco ASA and the branch firewalls. IKEv1 Phase 2 lifetimes and Dead Peer Detection (DPD) intervals must be consistent across all peers; otherwise, one side may attempt to rekey or declare the peer dead while the other expects a different timing, causing intermittent tunnel drops. Adjusting these values to match across all sites resolves the rekey failures without compromising security or requiring a protocol migration.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that rekey failures are caused by encryption algorithm mismatches or MTU issues, but the real cause is almost always inconsistent Phase 2 lifetimes or DPD intervals when using IKEv1 with multiple vendor firewalls.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing MTU to 1500 bytes is the default for Ethernet and does not address Phase 2 rekey failures; MTU issues typically cause fragmentation or packet loss, not rekey mismatches. Option B is wrong because changing from AES-256 to 3DES weakens encryption and does not fix rekey failures; the problem is timing/parameter consistency, not cipher strength. Option C is wrong because migrating to SSL VPN with clientless access is a completely different architecture that would not resolve IPsec Phase 2 rekey failures and would introduce new complexity; the issue is specific to IKEv1 Phase 2 lifetime mismatches, not the VPN protocol type.

352
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring SNMPv3 on network devices. The policy requires both authentication and encryption of SNMP messages. Which combination of protocols should be used to meet this requirement?

A.authPriv with MD5 and DES
B.noAuthNoPriv with no security
C.authNoPriv with SHA and no encryption
D.authPriv with SHA and AES
AnswerD

The authPriv security level is the strongest available in SNMPv3, providing both message authentication and data confidentiality. Using SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) for authentication ensures message integrity and origin authenticity, preventing unauthorized modification or spoofing of management commands or data. Concurrently, AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) encrypts the entire message payload, protecting sensitive network data from eavesdropping and ensuring privacy, making it the recommended configuration for secure network management.

Why this answer

SNMPv3's authPriv security level requires both authentication and encryption. SHA (or SHA-2) provides message authentication via HMAC, and AES provides symmetric encryption for the message payload. This combination satisfies the policy requirement for both confidentiality and integrity.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates see 'authPriv' and assume any combination of authentication and encryption protocols will work, but the CISSP exam expects you to recognize that MD5 and DES are deprecated and insecure, making option A a distractor despite the correct security level.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MD5 is deprecated due to known collision vulnerabilities and DES is a weak, 56-bit cipher that is no longer considered secure; while authPriv technically provides both authentication and encryption, the specific protocols violate modern security standards. Option B is wrong because noAuthNoPriv provides no security at all—no authentication and no encryption—which directly contradicts the policy requirement. Option C is wrong because authNoPriv provides authentication (e.g., SHA) but no encryption, so the message payload is sent in cleartext, failing the encryption requirement.

353
MCQeasy

An organization has a maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of 8 hours for a critical application. The recovery time objective (RTO) is set to 4 hours. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the RTO?

A.The total downtime the organization can tolerate
B.The time within which IT systems must be restored
C.The maximum amount of data loss acceptable
D.The time required to repair a failed component
AnswerB

This precisely defines the Recovery Time Objective (RTO). The RTO is a critical metric in business continuity and disaster recovery planning, specifying the maximum acceptable duration for a business process or IT service to be unavailable following an incident before significant business impact occurs. It dictates the target timeframe within which IT infrastructure, applications, and data must be brought back online and fully operational to meet business needs. Achieving the RTO requires careful planning, resource allocation, and robust recovery strategies.

Why this answer

RTO defines the maximum time allowed to restore IT services after a disaster, ensuring the MTD is not exceeded.

354
MCQmedium

A development team is designing a new application and wants to ensure that if a failure occurs, the system remains secure by default. Which design principle should they apply?

A.Least privilege
B.Defense in depth
C.Separation of duties
D.Fail-secure
AnswerD

Fail-secure, also known as fail-safe, is a critical design principle ensuring that if a system component or process fails, the system defaults to a state that denies access or prevents operations, thus maintaining security. For instance, a locked door remains locked if power fails, or an authentication system denies all access if its backend database becomes unavailable. This approach prioritizes security over availability during a failure event, directly addressing how an application should behave to protect data and resources.

Why this answer

Fail-secure ensures that when a system fails, it defaults to a secure state (e.g., denying access) rather than an insecure one.

355
MCQmedium

A company wants to ensure that only authorized software can run on its laptops. They decide to use a hardware component that validates the boot process by measuring each component before it loads. Which technology is being used?

A.Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B.Trusted Execution Environment (TEE)
C.Security Kernel
D.Hypervisor
AnswerA

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a secure cryptoprocessor designed to secure hardware by integrating cryptographic keys into devices. It performs a "measured boot" process, where each component loaded during startup (firmware, boot loader, operating system kernel) is cryptographically hashed and the measurements are stored in secure PCRs (Platform Configuration Registers). This allows the system to verify the integrity of the boot path and, through remote attestation, prove to a third party that the system booted with an authorized and untampered software configuration.

Why this answer

TPM (Trusted Platform Module) enables measured boot, where the TPM stores measurements of boot components and verifies their integrity.

356
MCQeasy

During a security audit, an organization discovers that several employees are sharing a single generic account to access a critical database. Which principle of security operations is being violated?

A.Accountability
B.Separation of duties
C.Defense in depth
D.Least privilege
AnswerA

Accountability ensures that all actions performed within an information system can be uniquely traced back to the individual or entity responsible for them. When user accounts are shared, the ability to establish a definitive link between a specific action and a particular person is lost, thereby destroying the audit trail and making it impossible to hold individuals responsible for their activities. This directly undermines non-repudiation and the integrity of security logs, which are critical for incident response and compliance.

Why this answer

Accountability requires that each individual user be uniquely identified and their actions traceable. Sharing a generic account breaks this chain because the audit logs cannot attribute specific database operations (e.g., SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE) to a particular employee, making it impossible to hold anyone responsible for misuse or errors.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the lack of individual accountability with the principle of least privilege, assuming that sharing a generic account automatically means excessive permissions, when the real violation is the inability to uniquely identify and trace user actions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because separation of duty involves splitting critical tasks among multiple people to prevent fraud (e.g., requiring two different users to authorize and execute a transaction), which is not directly violated by shared accounts. Option C is wrong because defense in depth is a layered security strategy (e.g., firewalls, IDS, encryption) that remains intact even if a single account is shared; the violation here is about identity and audit, not defense layers. Option D is wrong because least privilege restricts users to the minimum permissions needed for their role; while shared accounts may also have excessive privileges, the core violation in this scenario is the inability to attribute actions to individuals, not the level of access rights.

357
MCQmedium

An organization uses a system where access decisions are based on user attributes (e.g., job title, clearance), resource attributes (e.g., classification), and environmental factors (e.g., time of day). This is an example of:

A.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B.Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
C.Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D.Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
AnswerB

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) is the correct answer because it defines access policies based on a combination of attributes associated with the subject (user), object (resource), action, and environment. This model allows for highly granular and dynamic access decisions, evaluating conditions like time of day, location, or resource sensitivity in real-time against defined policies.

Why this answer

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) considers multiple attributes for access decisions.

358
MCQhard

A hospital is subject to HIPAA. Which of the following is required when sharing protected health information (PHI) with a third-party billing company?

A.Annual audit report
B.Business Associate Agreement
C.Patient consent
D.Data Protection Impact Assessment
AnswerB

A Business Associate Agreement (BAA) is a legally required contract under HIPAA that must be in place before a Covered Entity (like a hospital) shares Protected Health Information (PHI) with a Business Associate (like a billing company). This agreement outlines the permissible uses and disclosures of PHI by the Business Associate and mandates their compliance with HIPAA's Security and Privacy Rules, ensuring appropriate safeguards are maintained. It establishes the responsibilities and liabilities of both parties regarding PHI protection.

Why this answer

Under HIPAA, covered entities must have a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) with business associates that handle PHI.

359
Multi-Selectmedium

A security manager is choosing a risk response for a high-impact, high-likelihood risk. Which TWO responses are most appropriate? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Risk mitigation
B.Risk research
C.Risk avoidance
D.Risk acceptance
E.Risk deferral
AnswersA, C

Risk mitigation involves implementing specific security controls and countermeasures to actively reduce the likelihood of a risk occurring or to lessen its potential impact. For a high-impact risk, this means taking proactive steps, such as strengthening defenses, improving processes, or deploying new technologies, to bring the risk level down to an acceptable threshold. It is a primary and responsible strategy when the activity causing the risk cannot be avoided.

Why this answer

For high-impact, high-likelihood risks, avoidance (eliminating the activity) or mitigation (reducing impact/likelihood) are common. Transfer (insurance) may also be used but is less comprehensive. Acceptance is for low risks.

360
MCQeasy

Under the ISC2 Code of Ethics, which canon has the highest priority?

A.Advance the profession
B.Provide diligent service
C.Act honorably
D.Protect society
AnswerD

The canon to "Protect society, the common good, necessary public trust and confidence, and the infrastructure" is unequivocally the first and highest priority within the (ISC)² Code of Ethics. This principle mandates that all cybersecurity professionals prioritize the safety, welfare, and security of the public above all other considerations. It encompasses safeguarding critical infrastructure, protecting sensitive data, and ensuring the reliability of information systems, establishing a clear ethical imperative that supersedes individual, organizational, or professional interests.

Why this answer

The ISC2 Code of Ethics lists canons in order: Protect society, Act honourably, Provide diligent service, Advance the profession.

361
MCQmedium

In a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution, which feature provides temporary elevation of privileges for specific tasks, reducing the risk of standing privileges?

A.Password vaulting
B.Just-in-time (JIT) access
C.Break-glass account
D.Session recording
AnswerB

Just-in-time (JIT) access is a critical security feature within a PAM solution that grants elevated privileges only when needed and for a strictly limited duration. This approach minimizes the attack surface by eliminating standing privileges, ensuring that users possess administrative rights solely for the specific task and time required. Once the task is completed or the predefined time expires, the privileges are automatically revoked, significantly reducing the window of opportunity for credential misuse or compromise.

Why this answer

Just-in-time (JIT) access grants privileges only when needed, reducing the attack surface from permanent privileged accounts.

362
MCQeasy

An attacker sends a flood of SYN packets to a server, consuming its resources and preventing legitimate connections. Which OSI layer is this attack targeting?

A.Layer 4
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 7
D.Layer 3
AnswerA

A SYN flood specifically targets the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) at the Transport layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model. This attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending numerous SYN (synchronize) requests without completing the final ACK, leaving the server with many half-open connections. This consumes server resources like memory for connection states and CPU cycles, leading to a denial of service for legitimate users attempting to establish new connections.

Why this answer

A SYN flood attack targets the TCP three-way handshake at the transport layer (Layer 4). By sending a high volume of SYN packets without completing the handshake, the attacker exhausts the server's connection queue, preventing legitimate TCP connections from being established. This directly exploits the stateful nature of TCP, which is a Layer 4 protocol.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the network layer (Layer 3) with the transport layer (Layer 4), because IP addresses are involved in routing the packets, but the attack specifically targets TCP's connection management at Layer 4.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Layer 2 (Data Link) handles MAC addresses and frame switching, not TCP connection state or port exhaustion. Option C is wrong because Layer 7 (Application) involves protocols like HTTP or DNS, whereas SYN floods operate below the application layer at the transport layer. Option D is wrong because Layer 3 (Network) deals with IP routing and packet forwarding, not the TCP handshake mechanics that SYN floods exploit.

363
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Self-service password reset
B.Session recording
C.Single sign-on for all users
D.Password vaulting
E.OpenID Connect authentication
AnswersB, D

Session recording is a critical characteristic of Privileged Access Management (PAM) systems, capturing video-like records of all activities performed by privileged users during their elevated sessions. This capability provides an immutable audit trail, enabling forensic analysis, compliance reporting, and real-time monitoring of sensitive operations. By documenting every command and action, organizations can ensure accountability and detect unauthorized or suspicious behavior associated with high-risk accounts.

Why this answer

PAM includes password vaulting and session recording; just-in-time access is also a characteristic, but note: the question asks for TWO, so select the correct two.

364
MCQeasy

An organization wants to identify vulnerabilities in their network without attempting to exploit them. Which type of security assessment should they perform?

A.Vulnerability assessment
B.Penetration test
C.Security audit
D.Security review
AnswerA

A vulnerability assessment systematically scans systems, networks, and applications to identify security weaknesses and misconfigurations. It uses automated tools and manual checks to detect known vulnerabilities, providing a prioritized list of potential risks without actively attempting to compromise the system. The goal is to inform remediation efforts by cataloging exposures and potential attack vectors, aligning precisely with the organization's desire to identify vulnerabilities without exploitation.

Why this answer

A vulnerability assessment is the correct choice because it is a systematic review of security weaknesses in a network or system that identifies vulnerabilities without actively exploiting them. This assessment typically uses automated scanning tools (e.g., Nessus, OpenVAS) to compare system configurations against known vulnerability databases (e.g., CVE, NVD) and reports potential issues, but does not attempt to gain unauthorized access or cause disruption.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a vulnerability assessment with a penetration test, assuming both involve exploitation, but the key differentiator is that a vulnerability assessment only identifies vulnerabilities, while a penetration test actively exploits them.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a penetration test (pentest) is an authorized simulated attack that actively attempts to exploit identified vulnerabilities to gain access or escalate privileges, which contradicts the requirement to not exploit them. Option C is wrong because a security audit is a formal, compliance-driven evaluation of an organization's adherence to policies, standards, or regulations (e.g., ISO 27001, PCI DSS) and does not focus specifically on identifying technical vulnerabilities in the network. Option D is wrong because a security review is a broad, often high-level examination of security controls, processes, or architecture, and it lacks the targeted, technical scanning and identification of specific vulnerabilities that a vulnerability assessment provides.

365
MCQeasy

Which of the following metrics is used to determine the maximum amount of data loss an organization can tolerate in a disaster?

A.MTTR
B.RPO
C.RTO
D.MTD
AnswerB

RPO, or Recovery Point Objective, precisely defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured in time, that an organization can tolerate following a disruptive event. It dictates the age of files or data that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume. Establishing the RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and data replication strategies to ensure business continuity.

Why this answer

RPO defines the acceptable data loss in terms of time.

366
MCQmedium

A security administrator is configuring SNMPv3 for network device monitoring. The requirement is to provide both authentication and encryption of SNMP traffic. Which combination of options should be used?

A.AuthNoPriv
B.AuthPriv with MD5 and DES
C.AuthPriv with SHA and AES
D.NoAuthNoPriv
AnswerC

The AuthPriv security level, combined with SHA for authentication and AES for privacy, represents the strongest and most recommended configuration for SNMPv3. SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm, typically SHA-256 or higher) provides robust message integrity and origin authentication, effectively preventing tampering and spoofing. Concurrently, AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) offers strong symmetric encryption, ensuring the confidentiality of sensitive network management data. This combination aligns with best practices for securing network communications, mitigating risks from eavesdropping, data modification, and unauthorized access.

Why this answer

SNMPv3 defines three security levels: NoAuthNoPriv, AuthNoPriv, and AuthPriv. The requirement for both authentication and encryption corresponds to the AuthPriv level. The recommended modern cryptographic algorithms for AuthPriv are SHA (for authentication) and AES (for encryption), as specified in RFC 3826 and RFC 3414.

Option C correctly pairs SHA and AES to meet the requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose AuthPriv with MD5 and DES (Option B) because it technically provides both authentication and encryption, but they overlook that MD5 and DES are deprecated and insecure, making them unacceptable in a modern security context.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (AuthNoPriv) is wrong because it provides authentication but no encryption, failing the encryption requirement. Option B (AuthPriv with MD5 and DES) is wrong because MD5 and DES are deprecated and considered cryptographically weak; DES uses a 56-bit key and is easily broken, while MD5 is vulnerable to collision attacks. Option D (NoAuthNoPriv) is wrong because it provides neither authentication nor encryption, failing both requirements.

367
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution. Which THREE of the following are common features of PAM? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Single sign-on
B.Password vaulting
C.Session recording
D.Just-in-time access
E.Role-based access control
AnswersB, C, D

Password vaulting is a fundamental PAM capability that centralizes the secure storage of privileged account credentials, such as administrator passwords and SSH keys, in an encrypted and isolated repository. It enforces strong password policies, automates credential rotation at defined intervals, and manages the secure retrieval and injection of these credentials into target systems, eliminating direct user knowledge of the actual passwords. This significantly reduces the risk of credential theft and misuse.

Why this answer

PAM typically includes password vaulting, session recording, and just-in-time access. Break-glass accounts are also a feature, but the question asks for three of the most common.

368
MCQhard

An organization implements a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data in motion. Which type of data is typically most challenging to detect?

A.Data in images
B.Structured data in CSV files
C.Encrypted traffic
D.Unstructured data in email attachments
AnswerC

Encrypted network traffic poses the most significant challenge for Data Loss Prevention solutions because the content payload is intentionally obscured, preventing direct inspection. To analyze sensitive information within encrypted streams, DLP typically requires a man-in-the-middle (MITM) proxy to decrypt, inspect, and then re-encrypt the traffic, which introduces complexity, performance overhead, and potential privacy concerns, making it difficult to achieve full content visibility without explicit interception.

Why this answer

Encrypted traffic is the most challenging data in motion for DLP to inspect because the payload is obfuscated by encryption protocols such as TLS 1.3 or IPsec. Without decryption (e.g., via a proxy with TLS interception), the DLP sensor cannot read the content to match patterns or keywords, rendering traditional deep packet inspection ineffective.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume 'data in images' is hardest because it is non-textual, but DLP can use OCR and image analysis, whereas encrypted traffic is fundamentally opaque without decryption keys.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because data in images can be detected via optical character recognition (OCR) or steganography analysis, though it is harder than plaintext, it is still inspectable. Option B is wrong because structured data in CSV files has predictable delimiters and patterns (e.g., credit card numbers, SSNs) that DLP regex rules can reliably match. Option D is wrong because unstructured data in email attachments, while varied, is still in plaintext or common binary formats (e.g., PDF, DOCX) that DLP can parse and scan for sensitive content.

369
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid countermeasures against buffer overflow attacks?

Select 3 answers
A.Stack canaries
B.Full disk encryption
C.Address space layout randomization (ASLR)
D.Non-executable stack and heap (NX bit)
E.Input validation using allowlists
AnswersA, C, D

Stack canaries are a security mechanism that places a small, random value, known as a canary, on the stack between the buffer and critical control data, such as the return address. Before a function returns, the program checks if this canary value has been modified. If the canary has been overwritten, it indicates a buffer overflow has occurred, and the program can then terminate safely to prevent malicious code execution.

Why this answer

Stack canaries are correct because they place a known value (canary) between the buffer and control data on the stack. Before a function returns, the canary is checked; if it has been overwritten (indicating a buffer overflow), the program terminates, preventing code execution. This directly detects stack-based buffer overflows before they can hijack the return address.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse general security controls (like input validation or encryption) with specific memory protection mechanisms, leading them to select options that are good practices but not direct countermeasures against buffer overflow attacks.

370
MCQhard

During a security audit of a financial application, the auditor discovers that the application uses a custom encryption algorithm for storing sensitive data. The developer claims it is more efficient than AES. What should the auditor recommend?

A.Conduct additional penetration testing on the encryption implementation
B.Accept the risk if the algorithm is more efficient
C.Perform a cryptoanalysis of the algorithm to validate its strength
D.Migrate to a widely-accepted encryption standard such as AES
AnswerD

Migrating to a widely-accepted encryption standard like AES is the most secure and responsible approach because these algorithms have undergone decades of extensive, global peer review by expert cryptographers. This rigorous scrutiny ensures that known vulnerabilities are identified and addressed, providing a high level of confidence in their mathematical strength and resilience against various attack vectors. Such standards are battle-tested and trusted, offering a robust foundation for protecting sensitive financial data, which is critical for financial applications.

Why this answer

Custom encryption algorithms are highly risky because they have not undergone the extensive peer review and cryptanalysis that standards like AES have. Even if the developer claims better efficiency, the lack of proven security guarantees makes the application vulnerable to attacks. The correct recommendation is to migrate to a widely-accepted standard such as AES, which is FIPS 197 validated and trusted for protecting sensitive financial data.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think performing cryptanalysis (Option C) is a valid audit recommendation, but in practice, the auditor's role is to enforce the use of proven standards, not to validate unproven custom cryptography.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because additional penetration testing on a custom encryption implementation cannot uncover fundamental cryptographic weaknesses; penetration testing is not a substitute for formal cryptanalysis or algorithm validation. Option B is wrong because accepting the risk based solely on efficiency claims violates the principle of using proven, standardized cryptography for sensitive data; efficiency does not equate to security. Option C is wrong because performing a cryptanalysis of the custom algorithm is not a practical recommendation for an auditor; it requires expert cryptographers and extensive time, and even then, the algorithm may still have undiscovered flaws, whereas migrating to a proven standard is the immediate and correct security control.

371
MCQeasy

In the context of physical security, which of the following is an example of a preventive control?

A.Security guards monitoring
B.CCTV cameras
C.Intrusion detection system
D.Mantrap door
AnswerD

Correct. A mantrap prevents tailgating and unauthorized access.

Why this answer

A mantrap door is a preventive physical security control because it actively prevents unauthorized entry by requiring authentication and verification before allowing passage through a series of interlocking doors. Unlike monitoring or detection systems, a mantrap physically blocks access until the user is validated, thereby stopping a breach before it occurs.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing preventive controls (which stop an incident) with detective controls (which identify an incident after it occurs), leading candidates to incorrectly select CCTV or IDS as preventive measures.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because security guards monitoring is a detective and deterrent control, not preventive; they observe and report incidents but do not physically block access. Option B is wrong because CCTV cameras are a detective control that records events for after-the-fact review, they do not prevent an intrusion from happening. Option C is wrong because an intrusion detection system (IDS) is a detective control that alerts on suspicious activity but does not actively block or prevent the intrusion.

372
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a social engineering attack?

A.A brute-force attack on a password
B.SQL injection on a web application
C.A DDoS attack on a server
D.A phishing email requesting credentials
AnswerD

A phishing email requesting credentials is a classic example of social engineering, where an attacker attempts to trick an individual into divulging sensitive information, such as usernames and passwords. These emails often impersonate trusted entities, creating a sense of urgency or fear to manipulate the recipient into clicking a malicious link or entering credentials on a fake website. The success of phishing relies entirely on human psychological manipulation and deception, rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities directly.

Why this answer

Social engineering exploits human psychology to gain information or access.

373
MCQhard

Which of the following is the most important factor when prioritizing vulnerability remediation in a vulnerability management program?

A.CVSS base score
B.Exploitability and business impact
C.Number of systems affected
D.Time since discovery
AnswerB

Exploitability and business impact are paramount because they directly align with the fundamental principles of risk management, where risk equals likelihood multiplied by impact. Exploitability assesses the probability of a threat actor successfully leveraging a vulnerability, while business impact quantifies the potential damage or disruption to critical assets and operations. Prioritizing based on these factors ensures that remediation efforts focus on vulnerabilities that pose the greatest actual risk to the organization's mission and assets.

Why this answer

Risk-based prioritization considers exploitability and potential impact, not just CVSS score.

374
MCQmedium

A security analyst receives an alert that a host in the internal network is sending abnormal amounts of traffic to an external IP. The traffic uses destination port 53. What is the most likely attack?

A.DNS cache poisoning
B.DNS amplification
C.DNS tunneling
D.DNS zone transfer
AnswerC

DNS tunneling is a sophisticated exfiltration technique that encapsulates non-DNS traffic, such as command-and-control communications or stolen data, within legitimate-looking DNS queries and responses. A compromised host encodes data into subdomain names or TXT records of DNS requests, sending them to an attacker-controlled authoritative DNS server. This continuous stream of data-laden DNS queries results in abnormally high volumes of outgoing DNS traffic from the host, precisely matching the alert description.

Why this answer

The alert describes a host sending abnormal traffic to an external IP on destination port 53, which is the default port for DNS. DNS tunneling exploits the DNS protocol to encapsulate non-DNS data (e.g., commands or exfiltrated files) within DNS queries and responses, allowing covert communication through firewalls that typically allow DNS traffic. The abnormal volume of traffic to a single external IP is a classic indicator of a DNS tunnel, as the compromised host continuously sends encoded data to an external command-and-control server.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the use of port 53 with DNS amplification attacks, but amplification requires a victim IP and open resolvers, not a single internal host sending traffic to an external IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS cache poisoning (also known as DNS spoofing) involves injecting forged DNS records into a resolver's cache to redirect traffic, not generating abnormal outbound traffic from a single host. Option B is wrong because DNS amplification is a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that uses open resolvers to flood a victim with large responses, but the alert describes a single internal host sending traffic outbound, not a reflector sending amplified traffic to a victim. Option D is wrong because a DNS zone transfer is a legitimate mechanism for replicating DNS zone data between authoritative servers, typically using TCP port 53, and is not an attack that causes a single host to send abnormal traffic to an external IP.

375
MCQhard

A financial services firm recently deployed a multi-factor authentication (MFA) solution for remote access to its trading platform. The MFA requires a one-time password (OTP) via a mobile app, in addition to a username and password. Since deployment, remote traders have complained that the authentication process takes too long, especially during market open hours. The help desk reports that many traders are accidentally locking their accounts due to multiple failed OTP attempts. The security team wants to maintain strong security but improve user experience. Which action should the security team take?

A.Reduce MFA to two factors by removing the OTP requirement
B.Remove MFA requirements during peak hours to improve performance
C.Implement risk-based adaptive MFA that prompts only when anomalous activity is detected
D.Extend the OTP validity window to 10 minutes to reduce time pressure
AnswerC

Implementing risk-based adaptive MFA intelligently balances robust security with user convenience by dynamically assessing contextual factors such as location, device, IP address, and behavioral patterns. This system only triggers additional authentication challenges, like an OTP, when an anomaly or elevated risk is detected, such as a login from an unfamiliar location. This approach maintains strong security controls against sophisticated threats while minimizing user friction during routine, low-risk access attempts.

Why this answer

Risk-based adaptive MFA evaluates the context of each authentication request (e.g., location, device, time, behavior) and only triggers an OTP challenge when the risk score exceeds a threshold. This reduces friction for legitimate traders during peak hours while maintaining strong security against anomalous access attempts, directly addressing the complaint of slow authentication without weakening the overall security posture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume extending the OTP validity window (Option D) is a harmless usability fix, but CISSP tests the understanding that longer OTP windows increase the risk of replay attacks and violate the principle of short-lived credentials, whereas adaptive authentication is the correct balance of security and usability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing MFA to two factors by removing the OTP requirement would weaken authentication to only username/password, violating the principle of defense-in-depth and exposing the trading platform to credential theft. Option B is wrong because removing MFA during peak hours creates a predictable window of vulnerability that attackers could exploit, directly contradicting the security team's goal to maintain strong security. Option D is wrong because extending the OTP validity window to 10 minutes increases the window of opportunity for replay attacks (e.g., if an OTP is intercepted or leaked) and does not address the root cause of user frustration—the frequency of unnecessary OTP prompts—while also violating NIST SP 800-63B recommendations for short-lived OTPs.

Page 4

Page 5 of 10

Page 6

All pages