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(ISC)2 Certified in Governance, Risk and Compliance (CGRC) (CGRC) (CGRC) — Questions 301–341

341 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered essential elements of an effective continuous monitoring program?

Select 2 answers
A.A complete physical audit of all hardware every week.
B.Requiring all users to change passwords daily.
C.Outsourcing all security monitoring to a third party.
D.A formal process for tracking and remediating vulnerabilities.
E.Automated security configuration assessment tools.
AnswersD, E

Continuous monitoring demands a closed-loop mechanism: detection alone leaves risk unaddressed. A formal vulnerability tracking and remediation process supplies the response capability, ensuring identified weaknesses are logged, assigned, and resolved within defined timeframes, which satisfies the program's requirement for ongoing risk reduction rather than periodic snapshot assessment.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because an effective continuous monitoring program requires a formal, repeatable process for tracking identified vulnerabilities and ensuring they are remediated in a timely manner, which is central to maintaining an ongoing risk posture. Option E is correct because automated security configuration assessment tools (e.g., SCAP-validated scanners, CIS-CAT, or Nessus-type configuration audits) provide the continuous, repeatable visibility into system hardening and configuration drift that manual reviews cannot sustain. Option A is not essential because a weekly complete physical audit of all hardware is operationally impractical and does not address logical/configuration monitoring.

Option B is not essential because forcing daily password changes is a poor practice that increases help-desk load and weakens password quality, and it is not a monitoring control. Option C is not essential because outsourcing all monitoring to a third party removes organizational visibility and accountability; continuous monitoring can be performed internally or in hybrid models.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the misconception that continuous monitoring is purely technical or can be fully outsourced — candidates must recognize that formal processes and organizational oversight are essential, not just tools or third-party contracts.

302
MCQeasy

A software development company is implementing controls for its CI/CD pipeline. The GRC analyst must ensure that only approved and unaltered code is deployed to production. Which control BEST achieves this objective?

A.Mandatory code reviews by at least two senior developers before merge.
B.Automated static application security testing (SAST) on every commit.
C.Role-based access control (RBAC) restricting who can approve pull requests.
D.Code signing of build artifacts with verification before deployment.
AnswerD

Code signing uses a cryptographic signature to verify the integrity and origin of build artifacts. Before deployment, the pipeline verifies the signature against a trusted certificate, ensuring that only approved and unaltered code reaches production. This directly prevents tampering and unauthorized changes, meeting the requirement for integrity in the CI/CD pipeline.

Why this answer

Code signing provides cryptographic proof that the build artifact was produced by a trusted source and has not been modified. When the deployment pipeline verifies the signature, it ensures that only approved and unaltered code is deployed. Other controls like code reviews, SAST, and RBAC are important but do not provide the same end-to-end integrity assurance for the deployed artifact.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that code review or access control alone can guarantee artifact integrity, when they do not protect against tampering after approval.

303
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of physical security controls?

Select 2 answers
A.Host-based firewall
B.Security cameras
C.Strong password policy
D.Key card access systems
E.Encryption of database tables
AnswersB, D

Cameras are a physical security control because they monitor and record the physical environment, deterring and detecting intrusions at a site. They satisfy the stem's requirement for a physical, rather than logical or administrative, safeguard.

Why this answer

Security cameras (B) are a physical security control because they are hardware devices deployed to monitor and record activity in a physical facility, deterring and detecting intrusions. Key card access systems (D) are also physical controls, as they use tangible badge readers and door hardware to restrict physical entry to authorized personnel. The remaining options are logical/technical controls: a host-based firewall (A) filters network traffic in software, a strong password policy (C) is an administrative control governing authentication, and encryption of database tables (E) is a technical control protecting data at rest.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests control categorization (physical vs. technical vs. administrative), so candidates who see 'firewall' or 'encryption' and think 'security' without classifying the control type pick the wrong answers.

304
MCQeasy

Which document is used to standardize the implementation of security controls across an organization?

A.Security Baseline
B.Incident Response Plan
C.Risk Register
D.Acceptable Use Policy
AnswerA

A security baseline documents the minimum mandatory configuration settings for systems, translating high-level controls into specific, repeatable implementation requirements. It standardises deployment across the organisation, satisfying the need for consistent control implementation, unlike policies or procedures that state intent without configuration detail.

Why this answer

A security baseline is a documented set of minimum security configurations and controls that must be applied consistently across an organization's systems. It standardizes the implementation of security controls by providing a reference configuration (e.g., CIS Benchmarks, DISA STIGs) that ensures all systems meet a consistent security posture. Baselines are used to harden systems and are a key part of configuration management.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests whether candidates can differentiate between documents that define controls (baselines) and those that define processes (incident response), track risks (risk register), or govern user behavior (acceptable use policy).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an Incident Response Plan defines procedures for detecting, responding to, and recovering from security incidents; it does not standardize control implementation across systems. Option C is wrong because a Risk Register is a tool for tracking identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation status; it documents risk but does not standardize controls. Option D is wrong because an Acceptable Use Policy defines how users may use organizational assets, not how security controls are implemented technically or administratively.

305
MCQmedium

A financial services firm operates a system processing customer credit data under an active Authority to Operate (ATO). A quarterly review shows that a recent operating system upgrade altered the configuration of the audit logging service, causing it to stop forwarding events to the central log server. The GRC analyst must determine the correct action to maintain the system's security posture and ATO validity. What should the analyst do FIRST?

A.Initiate a security impact analysis to evaluate the change and determine if the ATO conditions are affected.
B.Update the system security plan to reflect the new configuration and continue operations without further assessment.
C.Immediately revoke the ATO until the logging service is fully restored and verified.
D.Schedule a full security control assessment (SCA) for the next annual review cycle.
AnswerA

A security impact analysis is the prescribed first step when a configuration change potentially affects security controls. Here, the logging service failure could undermine audit and accountability controls, so the analyst must assess the impact before deciding on remediation or reauthorization. This aligns with continuous monitoring and change management requirements under NIST SP 800-37 and maintains the ATO's validity.

Why this answer

A security impact analysis is the correct first step because it systematically evaluates how the configuration change affects the system's security controls and whether the existing ATO remains valid. It ensures that any remediation or reauthorization is based on a documented risk assessment, as required by NIST SP 800-37 and continuous monitoring guidance. This approach balances operational needs with compliance obligations.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any change automatically invalidates the ATO or requires immediate revocation, rather than first performing a security impact analysis to determine the actual risk.

306
MCQmedium

A global retailer's GRC team is preparing for an external audit of its compliance program. The auditor requests evidence that the program's governing body has reviewed and approved the risk appetite and tolerance levels within the last twelve months. Which activity satisfies this request?

A.The enterprise risk register showing current risk scores against appetite thresholds
B.The internal audit report on risk management process effectiveness
C.The risk committee's meeting minutes record approval of the risk appetite statement
D.The chief information security officer's annual attestation of the security program
AnswerC

Meeting minutes are the formal record that a governing body reviewed and approved the risk appetite and tolerance levels. They provide dated, auditable evidence of governance oversight. The scenario specifically asks for evidence that the governing body approved the appetite within the last twelve months, which the minutes directly demonstrate. This is the standard artifact auditors expect for governance approval.

Why this answer

The auditor needs evidence that the governing body reviewed and approved risk appetite and tolerance levels within twelve months. Meeting minutes recording that approval are the direct, dated governance artifact. Other documents show management activity or assurance but do not demonstrate governing body approval, which is the specific evidence requirement in the scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is accepting operational documents like the risk register or management attestations as proof of governing body approval, when only governance records such as approved minutes satisfy the request.

307
MCQhard

A system owner determines that a specific NIST 800-53 control cannot be implemented due to legacy hardware constraints. They choose to implement a different control to mitigate the same risk. This is an example of what?

A.Risk Acceptance.
B.Baseline Tailoring.
C.Control Supplementation.
D.Compensating Control.
AnswerD

Legacy hardware prevents the baseline NIST 800-53 control from being met, so an alternative control is applied to reduce the same risk to an acceptable level. That substitution, driven by the implementation constraint, is precisely what defines a compensating control.

Why this answer

This is an example of a compensating control. A compensating control is an alternative control implemented when the original control cannot be applied due to constraints, but it still mitigates the same risk. The system owner is substituting a different control to achieve the same security objective, which is the definition of a compensating control.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between compensating controls and risk acceptance; candidates may think that if a control cannot be implemented, the only option is to accept the risk, but compensating controls are the correct answer when an alternative is implemented.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because risk acceptance means acknowledging the risk and taking no action to mitigate it; here, a control is implemented. Option B is wrong because baseline tailoring involves selecting or customizing controls from a baseline, but not necessarily substituting one for another due to constraints. Option C is wrong because control supplementation refers to adding controls beyond the baseline, not replacing one that cannot be implemented.

308
MCQeasy

You are securing a database server. What is the most effective administrative control to minimize the impact of a compromised DBA account?

A.Disable all auditing
B.Store passwords in plain text
C.Implement Separation of Duties
D.Use a single shared account
AnswerC

Separation of duties splits privileged DBA tasks across multiple accounts, so no single compromised credential can both alter data and conceal the change. This administrative control directly limits the blast radius of one hijacked DBA account.

Why this answer

Separation of Duties (SoD) is an administrative control that divides critical functions among different individuals so that no single person has enough privileges to compromise the system. For a DBA account, SoD ensures that the ability to modify data, change schemas, and manage backups or audit logs is split across multiple roles, so a compromised DBA account cannot unilaterally cause widespread damage or cover tracks. This minimizes impact by limiting the blast radius of a single compromised account.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests whether candidates confuse administrative controls like Separation of Duties with technical controls, or whether they select obviously wrong options like disabling auditing or sharing accounts, which are the opposite of security best practices.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling auditing removes the ability to detect and investigate malicious activity, which increases the impact of a compromise rather than minimizing it. Option B is wrong because storing passwords in plain text is a severe security vulnerability that makes compromise easier and more damaging. Option D is wrong because using a single shared account eliminates accountability and makes it impossible to attribute actions to a specific individual, increasing the impact of a compromise and violating least privilege and non-repudiation principles.

309
MCQhard

During the compliance determination phase, you discover that a legacy application lacks multi-factor authentication (MFA) but is isolated within a physically secured enclave. Which action should you take to document this in the Security Assessment Report (SAR)?

A.Force an upgrade to the application
B.Document the compensating control and assess its effectiveness
C.Immediately revoke the Authorization to Operate (ATO)
D.Mark the control as 'Not Applicable'
AnswerB

Documenting the physically secured enclave as a compensating control directly addresses the MFA deficiency, since the SAR must record how residual risk is mitigated when a required control is absent. Assessing its effectiveness confirms the enclave genuinely constrains access, satisfying the compliance determination requirement to justify accepting the legacy application's deviation.

Why this answer

When a required control (MFA) is absent but an alternative control (physically secured enclave) provides equivalent or compensating protection, the correct action is to document the compensating control and assess whether it effectively mitigates the risk. The SAR should record the gap, the compensating control, the assessment of its effectiveness, and any residual risk so the Authorizing Official can make an informed risk decision.

Exam trap

The trap is treating a missing control as an automatic failure or N/A; CGRC tests whether you recognize that compensating controls must be documented and assessed for effectiveness rather than ignored or used to force immediate remediation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because forcing an upgrade is an operational remediation action, not a documentation action for the SAR; the scenario asks how to document the finding, and unilaterally forcing an upgrade may be infeasible for a legacy system. Option C is wrong because immediately revoking the ATO is a drastic action that ignores the compensating control; ATO decisions belong to the Authorizing Official after reviewing the documented risk, not to the assessor in the field. Option D is wrong because marking the control 'Not Applicable' is inaccurate — MFA is applicable, but it is not implemented; the correct treatment is a compensating control, not an N/A determination.

310
MCQhard

During continuous monitoring, you discover that a security control that was previously assessed as effective is now failing because the responsible team stopped performing the control due to staff turnover. The control is critical for protecting sensitive data. What is the most appropriate immediate action for the GRC analyst to take?

A.Update the system security plan to remove the control and document that it is no longer required.
B.Document the failure in the POA&M and wait for the next scheduled assessment to verify if the control is still failing.
C.Revoke the system's Authority to Operate (ATO) until the control is restored and reassessed.
D.Immediately notify the system owner and ISSO, and initiate a security impact analysis to determine the risk and required remediation.
AnswerD

When a critical control fails, the GRC analyst must ensure the system owner and ISSO are informed so they can assess the risk and take action. A security impact analysis determines the severity and potential impact on the system's authorization. This aligns with continuous monitoring and incident response processes. Immediate notification enables rapid remediation and informed decision-making by the Authorizing Official if the risk is significant.

Why this answer

A failing critical control requires immediate escalation to the system owner and ISSO, followed by a security impact analysis to assess the risk and determine remediation. This ensures timely action and informed decision-making. Waiting, revoking the ATO unilaterally, or removing the control from the SSP are inappropriate because they either delay risk mitigation or bypass proper governance processes.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that documenting the failure in a POA&M is sufficient, when immediate notification and risk analysis are required for critical control failures.

311
MCQmedium

You are leading a security assessment for a federal agency using NIST SP 800-53A. During the 'Develop Assessment Procedures' step, your team must tailor the assessment procedures to the system's specific environment. Which action should you take FIRST to ensure the procedures are appropriately scoped?

A.Immediately begin testing technical controls to gather objective evidence.
B.Select a sample of controls from the NIST SP 800-53 catalog to reduce assessment effort.
C.Review the system security plan (SSP) to identify the implemented controls and their specific parameters.
D.Conduct interviews with system administrators to understand the operational environment.
AnswerC

The SSP documents the implemented controls, their scope, and any tailoring statements, such as scoping guidance or parameter values. Reviewing it first ensures that assessment procedures are aligned with what is actually implemented and avoids assessing controls that are not applicable or are inherited from a common provider. This step is critical for scoping the assessment accurately.

Why this answer

The correct answer is to review the system security plan first. The SSP provides the blueprint of implemented controls, including any tailoring or inherited controls. This ensures that assessment procedures are scoped correctly and that resources are focused on relevant controls.

Without this step, the assessment may be misaligned with the actual system, leading to inaccurate results and wasted effort.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that tailoring assessment procedures begins with fieldwork such as interviews or testing, rather than with a thorough review of the documented system security plan.

312
MCQmedium

You need to ensure that the 'Compliance Dashboard' is updated only when the 'Assessment Completion' status is 'Verified'. How can you achieve this?

A.Create a separate dashboard for every assessment status.
B.Restrict user access to the 'Verified' status.
C.Apply a 'Status Filter' to the dashboard widget on 'Verified'.
D.Set the report to auto-refresh every minute.
AnswerC

Applying a status filter scoped to 'Verified' restricts the widget's dataset so it renders only assessments whose completion status equals Verified. The dashboard therefore refreshes solely when that condition is met, satisfying the requirement without altering the underlying assessment records or their workflow.

Why this answer

Applying a status filter to the dashboard widget so it only displays records where Assessment Completion equals 'Verified' ensures the Compliance Dashboard reflects only verified assessments. This is the standard GRC platform pattern: the widget queries the underlying assessment object and filters on the status field, so unverified or in-progress assessments are excluded from the dashboard view.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the difference between filtering data at the widget/report level versus restricting access or duplicating dashboards — candidates must recognize that the requirement is about what data is displayed, which is solved by a status filter, not by access control or refresh settings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because creating a separate dashboard per status is operationally wasteful and does not enforce that the main Compliance Dashboard only shows verified items — it just fragments reporting. Option B is wrong because restricting user access to the 'Verified' status is an access control change, not a dashboard filtering change, and it would prevent users from seeing other statuses they may legitimately need. Option D is wrong because auto-refreshing every minute only changes how often the dashboard reloads; it does not filter out non-verified assessments, so unverified data would still appear.

313
MCQmedium

A financial services firm is implementing controls for a new mobile banking application that processes customers' personally identifiable information. The GRC analyst must select a control that provides strong confidentiality for data at rest on the mobile device and allows remote verification that the device has not been rooted or jailbroken. Which control BEST meets these requirements?

A.Transport Layer Security (TLS) pinning for all network communications and code obfuscation of the application binary.
B.Containerization of the application with runtime application self-protection (RASP) and periodic vulnerability scans.
C.Mandatory access control (MAC) enforced by the mobile OS and remote wipe capability.
D.Full-disk encryption with a key stored in the device's secure enclave and remote attestation of device integrity.
AnswerD

Full-disk encryption protects data at rest by encrypting the entire storage volume, and storing the key in a hardware-backed secure enclave prevents extraction. Remote attestation allows the server to verify the device's integrity state, detecting rooting or jailbreaking. This combination directly satisfies both confidentiality and integrity verification requirements for the mobile banking scenario.

Why this answer

The scenario requires both strong confidentiality for data at rest and remote verification of device integrity. Full-disk encryption with hardware-backed key storage ensures that stored PII remains confidential even if the device is compromised. Remote attestation provides the server with cryptographic proof of the device's integrity state, detecting rooting or jailbreaking.

Together, these controls directly address the stated requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that transport security or runtime application protection automatically covers data-at-rest encryption and device integrity attestation.

314
MCQeasy

What is the primary goal of the 'Assessment Reporting' phase?

A.To terminate the contract
B.To communicate findings to stakeholders
C.To select new security controls
D.To patch all identified vulnerabilities
AnswerB

Communicating findings to stakeholders fulfils the Assessment Reporting phase's core purpose: translating raw assessment results into decision-ready information. This satisfies the stem's requirement for the phase's primary goal, since reporting exists to inform risk decisions, authorisation judgements and remediation priorities — not to perform testing, which belongs to earlier assessment phases.

Why this answer

The Assessment Reporting phase in the RMF (Risk Management Framework) and similar assessment lifecycles exists specifically to document and communicate assessment results—findings, risks, and recommendations—to key stakeholders such as authorizing officials, system owners, and oversight bodies. Its core purpose is not remediation or control selection, but ensuring decision-makers have the information needed to make risk-based decisions (e.g., authorization to operate). Thus, 'communicate findings to stakeholders' accurately captures the primary goal.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between assessment phases and remediation/selection activities, causing candidates to confuse 'reporting' with 'fixing' or 'choosing controls'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because terminating a contract is a procurement or contractual action, not the goal of assessment reporting; reporting may inform such decisions but is not the phase's purpose. Option C is wrong because selecting new security controls occurs during the 'Select' phase of the RMF (or equivalent), not during reporting. Option D is wrong because patching vulnerabilities is a remediation activity that happens after reporting, often in the 'Implement' or 'Monitor' phases; reporting itself does not patch anything.

315
MCQmedium

When conducting an assessment using the SCAP protocol, what is the primary purpose of the OVAL component?

A.To provide a language for checking system configuration state
B.To standardize the transfer of vulnerability data
C.To define the severity of a vulnerability
D.To manage the lifecycle of a POA&M
AnswerA

OVAL defines an XML-based language for expressing system configuration checks, enabling SCAP tools to assess and report on a target's state. It satisfies the stem's configuration-state assessment purpose, distinct from CVE identifiers or CVSS scoring.

Why this answer

OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is the SCAP component that provides a standardized language for expressing system state checks — it defines how to test for specific configurations, patches, and vulnerabilities on a host. OVAL definitions contain tests, objects, states, and variables that an OVAL interpreter evaluates to produce a true/false result. This makes OVAL the 'checking' language of SCAP, distinct from other components like XCCDF (benchmarks) and CVE (vulnerability naming).

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the confusion between SCAP components — candidates may pick CVSS (severity) or XCCDF (benchmarks) when the question specifically asks about OVAL's role in checking system configuration state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because standardizing the transfer of vulnerability data is the role of protocols like CVSS/OVAL results transport or SCAP data streams, not OVAL's core purpose — OVAL defines checks, not transport. Option C is wrong because defining vulnerability severity is the job of CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System), not OVAL. Option D is wrong because managing the lifecycle of a POA&M (Plan of Action and Milestones) is a governance/RMF activity, not an OVAL function.

316
MCQmedium

You are using Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) to enforce compliance. You need to verify if specific registry keys are set correctly across all workstations. Which feature should you use?

A.Configuration Items (CIs).
B.Application Catalog.
C.Client Health Reports.
D.Software Metering.
AnswerA

Configuration Items define the registry key settings to detect and remediate, then deploy them through a baseline to every workstation. This directly satisfies the requirement to verify specific registry keys across all workstations, since CIs are the compliance-rule building block MECM evaluates.

Why this answer

In Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager, Configuration Items (CIs) define the settings and rules you want to evaluate — such as specific registry key values — and are paired with Configuration Baselines to assess compliance across collections of workstations. This is the native compliance settings feature designed exactly for verifying registry, file, and script-based configuration state.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests whether candidates can distinguish MECM features by purpose — the trap is confusing client health monitoring or software metering with configuration compliance, when only Configuration Items/Baselines actually evaluate desired-state settings like registry keys.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the Application Catalog is a user-facing portal for requesting and installing software, not a compliance assessment mechanism. Option C is wrong because Client Health Reports show whether the MECM client is functioning (checking in, evaluating policies) — they report on client agent health, not on whether registry keys meet a desired configuration. Option D is wrong because Software Metering tracks application usage to inform licensing, not configuration compliance against a desired state.

317
Multi-Selecteasy

When applying FIPS 199 to an information system, which TWO security objectives must be evaluated for potential impact? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Availability.
B.Authentication.
C.Accountability.
D.Non-repudiation.
E.Confidentiality.
AnswersA, E

Availability is one of the two security objectives FIPS 199 requires you to assess, alongside integrity and confidentiality. The standard directs agencies to evaluate the potential impact on availability — ensuring timely and reliable access to information — when categorising an information system's security level.

Why this answer

FIPS 199 defines three security objectives for information types and information systems: confidentiality, integrity, and availability, so the two correct answers here are A (Availability) and E (Confidentiality). Availability (A) is correct because FIPS 199 requires assessing the potential impact of a loss of timely and reliable access to the system and its data, with the resulting categorization of low, moderate, or high. Confidentiality (E) is correct because FIPS 199 requires evaluating the impact of unauthorized disclosure of information, again producing a low, moderate, or high rating.

The unmarked options do not belong because authentication, accountability, and non-repudiation are not among the three FIPS 199 impact objectives; they are related security services or controls addressed in other standards such as FIPS 200 and NIST SP 800-53, not the FIPS 199 impact triad.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the confusion between the FIPS 199 security objectives (confidentiality, integrity, availability) and other security services like authentication, accountability, and non-repudiation, which are not part of the categorization triad.

318
MCQeasy

When decommissioning an IT asset that stores sensitive information, which of the following is the most important step before releasing the hardware for disposal?

A.Sanitize the storage media according to an approved standard.
B.Update the asset inventory list.
C.Remove the BIOS password.
D.Format the primary operating system partition.
E.Deactivate the user accounts associated with the system.
AnswerA

Sanitisation removes or destroys residual data on the storage media using an approved method such as cryptographic erase or degaussing, ensuring sensitive information cannot be recovered after the hardware leaves the organisation's control. This satisfies the stem's constraint of protecting stored sensitive data before disposal, which no other decommissioning step addresses.

Why this answer

Before any IT asset holding sensitive information leaves organizational control, the storage media must be sanitized using an approved standard (e.g., NIST SP 800-88 Rev. 1 purge or clear, or physical destruction) to prevent data remanence and unauthorized disclosure. This is the control that directly addresses the confidentiality risk of disposal; all other steps are administrative or operational and do not protect the data itself.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the misconception that formatting or deleting files removes data — candidates pick the familiar OS-level action instead of the standards-based sanitization control that actually addresses remanence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because updating the asset inventory is an administrative record-keeping step that does not prevent data exposure if the media still contains recoverable information. Option C is wrong because removing a BIOS password does not erase data on the disk and is irrelevant to confidentiality of stored information. Option D is wrong because formatting the OS partition is a 'clear' operation at best and leaves recoverable data in slack space, unallocated clusters, and other partitions; it does not meet NIST SP 800-88 sanitization requirements for sensitive data.

Option E is wrong because deactivating user accounts addresses logical access, not the physical media, and does nothing to protect data on a disk being disposed of.

319
MCQmedium

Your GRC platform allows for 'Risk Heat Map' visualization. An executive wants to see only risks associated with 'Cybersecurity'. Which feature should you configure to support this view?

A.Change the risk rating scale from 1-5 to 1-10.
B.Delete all non-cybersecurity risks from the system.
C.Apply a 'Category Filter' or 'Saved View' to the dashboard widget.
D.Create a new database user for the executive.
AnswerC

A Category Filter narrows the heat map dataset to risks tagged 'Cybersecurity', satisfying the executive's requirement to exclude all other risk categories. Saving that filtered state as a Saved View lets the dashboard widget persist the scoped display for repeat access, avoiding manual re-filtering each session.

Why this answer

To display only risks associated with 'Cybersecurity' on a Risk Heat Map, you should apply a 'Category Filter' or 'Saved View' to the dashboard widget. This allows the executive to see a filtered subset of risks without altering the underlying data or system configuration. Filters and saved views are standard features in GRC platforms for customizing dashboards based on user needs.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking that you need to modify the data (delete risks) or change the rating scale to achieve a filtered view, when in fact dashboard filters and saved views are the correct, non-destructive approach.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing the risk rating scale from 1-5 to 1-10 does not filter by category; it only changes the scoring range, which is unrelated to isolating cybersecurity risks. Option B is wrong because deleting non-cybersecurity risks is destructive and would remove valuable data, not a viable solution for a filtered view. Option D is wrong because creating a new database user for the executive does not filter the heat map; user accounts control access, not data display filters.

320
MCQhard

While reviewing a system's compliance, you notice the Security Control Assessor (SCA) used an interview method for a technical control that requires automated testing. How should you address this in your review?

A.Accept the findings as-is
B.Escalate to the Chief Information Officer (CIO)
C.Request a re-assessment using the 'Test' method
D.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) to match the interview
AnswerC

Automated technical controls must be verified through testing, not interviews, which only capture assertions. Requesting reassessment using the Test method obtains objective evidence that the control operates as specified, satisfying the assessment procedure's required method.

Why this answer

Requesting a re-assessment using the 'Test' method is correct because technical controls require objective, hands-on examination (e.g., scanning, configuration review, penetration testing) rather than subjective interviews. An interview alone cannot verify that a technical control is implemented and operating effectively. The assessor must use the appropriate assessment method defined in the assessment plan.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between assessment methods (Examine, Interview, Test) and tempts candidates to accept interview results for technical controls, when the exam expects recognition that technical controls require testing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because accepting findings from an inappropriate method undermines the validity of the assessment and may leave real vulnerabilities undetected. Option B is wrong because escalating to the CIO does not correct the methodological deficiency; the proper action is to require the assessor to use the correct method. Option D is wrong because updating the SSP to match an interview-based finding would document unverified information and could misrepresent the control's actual implementation status.

321
MCQhard

A developer needs to access a production server. To maintain the highest level of security, how should you implement this access?

A.Shared administrative password
B.Access via a Jump Server with MFA
C.VPN connection to the internal network
D.Direct SSH access to the server
AnswerB

Routing production access through a jump server with MFA enforces a controlled intermediary, so the developer never connects directly to the server. MFA satisfies the stem's highest-security constraint by adding a second authentication factor, while the jump host centralises session logging and restricts the production server's network exposure.

Why this answer

A jump server (bastion host) with multi-factor authentication (MFA) enforces a controlled, auditable entry point to the production network, requiring a second authentication factor before any access is granted. This architecture centralizes access logging, session recording, and credential management, and it prevents direct exposure of production servers to the internet. By combining a hardened intermediary with MFA, the organization achieves defense in depth and satisfies least-privilege and non-repudiation requirements.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that any encrypted or network-level access (VPN, direct SSH) is equally secure; candidates overlook that MFA and a controlled jump point are required for true accountability and least privilege.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a shared administrative password eliminates individual accountability, makes auditing impossible, and violates the principle of least privilege and non-repudiation; if the password leaks, the entire server is compromised. Option C is wrong because a VPN connection alone, without MFA or a controlled jump point, still grants direct network-level access to the internal environment and does not provide the same session isolation, logging, or granular control as a jump server with MFA. Option D is wrong because direct SSH access to the server bypasses any intermediary controls, exposes the server's SSH port to the network, and lacks the centralized authentication and session auditing that a jump server provides.

322
MCQhard

During a FedRAMP audit, you discover that a customer's cloud environment does not meet a required control. What is the mandatory next step to track this non-compliance?

A.Document the weakness in a Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)
B.Immediately terminate the cloud service
C.Perform a penetration test
D.Request a waiver from the JAB
E.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) to reflect compliance
AnswerA

Documenting the weakness in a Plan of Action and Milestones satisfies FedRAMP's continuous monitoring requirement: POA&Ms formally record each identified control deficiency, assign remediation milestones, and track progress to closure. This is the mandatory mechanism auditors expect when a required control is unmet, ensuring the finding is tracked rather than left unresolved.

Why this answer

In FedRAMP, when a cloud environment does not meet a required control, the mandatory next step is to document the weakness in a Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M). The POA&M tracks the non-compliance, including remediation tasks, timelines, and responsible parties. This is required by FedRAMP and NIST SP 800-37.

The other options are either not mandatory or inappropriate.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting an action that seems proactive (like terminating the service or requesting a waiver) instead of the required documentation step in a POA&M, which is the standard mechanism for tracking non-compliance in FedRAMP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because immediately terminating the cloud service is a drastic action not mandated by FedRAMP; the goal is to remediate while maintaining service. Option C is wrong because performing a penetration test is not the mandatory next step for tracking non-compliance; it may be part of remediation but is not the tracking mechanism. Option D is wrong because requesting a waiver from the JAB is not the standard process for tracking non-compliance; waivers are rare and require justification, but the immediate step is POA&M documentation.

Option E is wrong because updating the SSP to reflect compliance would be falsifying documentation; the SSP should reflect the actual state, and the weakness must be tracked in a POA&M.

323
MCQmedium

You are the Information System Security Officer (ISSO) for a federal system that has an approved Authority to Operate (ATO). During a continuous monitoring review, the system owner asks you to explain why a new vulnerability scan finding must be documented in the Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M) rather than simply fixed and closed. What is the most appropriate reason?

A.The POA&M must include every vulnerability from a scan, regardless of severity, to comply with FISMA reporting requirements.
B.The POA&M must capture all known weaknesses, including those that are remediated, to demonstrate a complete audit trail of the risk management process.
C.The POA&M is the only document that can be used to request additional funding for security remediation from the Authorizing Official.
D.The POA&M serves as the formal mechanism to document, track, and manage the remediation of known weaknesses that cannot be immediately resolved, ensuring they are visible to the Authorizing Official (AO).
AnswerD

The POA&M is the central document for tracking known security weaknesses that require remediation over time. It records the weakness, planned corrective actions, milestones, and responsible parties. This provides the AO with ongoing visibility into the risk posture and ensures that unresolved findings are managed rather than forgotten. Immediate fixes do not need POA&M entries once verified.

Why this answer

The POA&M is designed to document and track known weaknesses that cannot be immediately remediated. It provides the Authorizing Official with continuous visibility into the system's risk posture and ensures accountability for corrective actions. Immediate fixes, once verified, do not require POA&M entries.

The other options misstate the POA&M's scope, purpose, or exclusivity.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the POA&M must contain every vulnerability or remediated item, rather than only those weaknesses that require planned remediation.

324
MCQhard

Your organization is applying NIST SP 800-53 controls to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. What is the main purpose of utilizing the 'Control Catalog'?

A.To automate the scanning process.
B.To serve as a comprehensive list of all possible security controls.
C.To mandate the order of implementation.
D.To identify which vendors are compliant.
AnswerB

The Control Catalog enumerates the full set of NIST SP 800-53 controls and their enhancements, giving organisations a baseline reference from which to select and tailor controls for hybrid cloud systems, rather than prescribing implementation or assessment procedures.

Why this answer

The NIST SP 800-53 Control Catalog is a comprehensive list of security and privacy controls that organizations use as a source for selecting controls during the RMF process. Its main purpose is to provide the full set of possible controls from which tailored baselines (Low, Moderate, High) are derived for a given system.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the misconception that the Control Catalog is a prescriptive implementation guide or a compliance scanner — candidates must recognize it as a comprehensive reference list from which baselines are selected.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Control Catalog does not automate scanning — scanning is performed by tools like Nessus, Qualys, or AWS Config, which map findings to controls. Option C is wrong because the catalog does not mandate an implementation order; it is a reference list, and organizations prioritize based on risk and baselines. Option D is wrong because the catalog does not identify vendor compliance — vendor compliance is assessed via FedRAMP, SOC 2, or similar programs, not by the control catalog itself.

325
MCQmedium

Which standard provides the framework for conducting information security audits?

A.ISO/IEC 27007
B.NIST SP 800-37
C.PCI DSS
D.ISO/IEC 27001
AnswerA

ISO/IEC 27007 provides guidance specifically for auditing information security management systems against ISO/IEC 27001, covering audit programme management, competence, and evidence gathering. It satisfies the stem's requirement for the framework governing how information security audits are conducted.

Why this answer

ISO/IEC 27007 provides guidelines for auditing information security management systems (ISMS), specifically supporting ISO/IEC 27001 audits by detailing audit program management, auditor competence, and audit conduct. It is the standard that frameworks the conduct of information security audits, making it the correct answer.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between the standard being audited (ISO/IEC 27001) and the standard providing audit guidance (ISO/IEC 27007), so the trap is selecting 27001 because it is the more familiar ISMS standard.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because NIST SP 800-37 is the Risk Management Framework (RMF) for federal information systems—it guides authorization and continuous monitoring, not the audit methodology for an ISMS. Option C is wrong because PCI DSS is a payment card industry data security standard (a prescriptive control set), not an audit framework. Option D is wrong because ISO/IEC 27001 specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and improving an ISMS—it is the standard being audited against, not the audit guidance itself.

326
MCQmedium

A security architect is selecting controls for a new payroll processing system that handles PII and is deployed on-premises. The system owner wants to maximize efficiency by reducing duplicate documentation. The organization already has an enterprise-wide access control policy and a centralized identity management system. When developing the system security plan, what is the most appropriate approach for addressing the access control family controls?

A.Mark all access control controls as not applicable because the enterprise identity management system handles authentication and authorization outside the system boundary.
B.Implement all access control controls independently within the payroll system, even if they duplicate enterprise capabilities, to ensure full control.
C.Document the access control controls as common controls provided by the enterprise identity management system and reference the enterprise policy.
D.Select only the access control controls that are explicitly required by the payroll application vendor's security guide, ignoring the enterprise baseline.
AnswerC

This is correct because the centralized identity management system and enterprise policy provide access control functions that can be inherited by the payroll system. Documenting them as common controls avoids duplication and accurately reflects the shared responsibility. The system security plan should reference the common control provider and describe how the controls meet the system's needs, which is efficient and compliant with NIST SP 800-53 practices.

Why this answer

The correct approach is to leverage existing enterprise common controls for access control, as this reduces duplication and ensures consistency with organizational policy. Documenting them as common controls in the system security plan accurately reflects the inheritance and fulfills the requirement to address all applicable controls. This aligns with NIST SP 800-53 guidance on common controls and tailoring.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that because an enterprise system handles access control, the payroll system can mark those controls as not applicable, rather than documenting them as inherited common controls.

327
MCQmedium

When selecting controls, you notice that a specific NIST 800-53 control includes 'assignment' statements. What is the purpose of these statements?

A.To define specific parameters for control implementation.
B.To categorize the control by its priority level.
C.To link the control to a regulatory requirement.
D.To assign the control to a specific system administrator.
AnswerA

Assignment statements in NIST 800-53 controls mark organisation-defined values, letting each organisation insert its own specifics such as frequency, roles or thresholds. They parameterise the control so it can be tailored to the organisation's risk context.

Why this answer

In NIST SP 800-53, assignment statements are placeholders within a control that the organization must fill in with specific values or parameters tailored to its environment. For example, a control might say 'the organization reviews audit records [Assignment: organization-defined frequency]' — the organization defines that frequency. This makes controls adaptable rather than one-size-fits-all.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing assignment statements (parameter placeholders) with control ownership or baseline categorization — candidates often assume 'assignment' means assigning a person or priority level.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because control priority/baseline categorization is handled by the control's baseline designation (Low/Moderate/High) and priority codes (P1/P2/P3) in SP 800-53B, not by assignment statements. Option C is wrong because linkage to regulatory requirements is achieved through control mappings and overlays (e.g., FedRAMP, PCI), not assignment statements. Option D is wrong because assignment statements are not about assigning a control to a person — they define parameters, not ownership; personnel assignment is a separate RMF role activity.

328
MCQhard

A financial services firm is implementing a new payment processing system. The security architect must ensure that all changes to the production environment are authorized, tested, and documented before deployment. Which of the following controls best addresses this requirement?

A.Continuous security monitoring using a SIEM
B.Role-based access control (RBAC) for production systems
C.Change management process with approval workflows and segregation of duties
D.Vulnerability scanning of the production environment
AnswerC

A formal change management process with approval workflows and segregation of duties ensures that changes are authorized, tested, and documented. It prevents unauthorized modifications and provides an audit trail. This control directly meets the requirement by enforcing a structured, accountable change lifecycle.

Why this answer

The requirement is for a control that ensures changes are authorized, tested, and documented. A change management process with approval workflows and segregation of duties provides this governance by requiring formal requests, reviews, and approvals before deployment. Monitoring, scanning, and RBAC are complementary but do not enforce the change lifecycle, making the change management process the correct choice.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any control related to production systems, such as RBAC or monitoring, also governs the change process, when in fact change management is a distinct administrative control.

329
MCQhard

You are assessing a system for compliance with FIPS 140-3. Which evidence provides the strongest validation?

A.CMVP validation certificate
B.Manufacturer's technical specification document
C.Internal configuration audit report
D.Email from the vendor
AnswerA

The CMVP validation certificate is issued under the Cryptographic Module Validation Program, the accredited body that tests cryptographic modules against FIPS 140-3 requirements. It directly evidences independent third-party validation, satisfying the stem's demand for the strongest compliance proof rather than vendor self-assertion.

Why this answer

The CMVP (Cryptographic Module Validation Program) validation certificate is the authoritative, independently verified proof that a cryptographic module meets FIPS 140-3 requirements. It is issued only after NIST-accredited CST laboratory testing and CMVP review, and it lists the exact module, version, and validated security levels. This makes it the strongest and only formally recognized evidence of FIPS 140-3 compliance.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between self-attested vendor documentation and independent third-party validation, so candidates who pick a manufacturer's spec sheet over the CMVP certificate misunderstand the evidentiary hierarchy of FIPS 140-3.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a manufacturer's technical specification document is self-reported marketing/engineering material that has not been independently tested or validated by CMVP, so it cannot prove compliance. Option C is wrong because an internal configuration audit report reflects the organization's own review of how a module is deployed, not validation of the module itself against FIPS 140-3. Option D is wrong because an email from the vendor is unverified, non-authoritative correspondence with no evidentiary weight compared to a CMVP certificate.

330
Multi-Selecthard

A GRC practitioner is establishing a process for maintaining the compliance program's documented information. The goal is to ensure that policies, standards, and procedures remain current, authorized, and available to the right audiences. Which TWO of the following activities are essential to this process? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Requiring every employee to rewrite each policy annually in their own words
B.Publishing all documents to the public corporate website for transparency
C.Defining a review cycle and assigning document owners who revalidate content
D.Controlling document versions and approvals through a formal change process
E.Storing documents only in the personal drives of the GRC team members who wrote them
AnswersC, D

A defined review cycle with assigned owners ensures documents are periodically revalidated for accuracy, relevance, and alignment with current regulations and business practices. Without ownership and a cadence, documents become stale and lose authority. This activity directly supports the goal of keeping documented information current and appropriately authorized, making it essential to the process described.

Why this answer

Maintaining documented information requires clear ownership with periodic review and a controlled process for versioning and approval. These two activities ensure documents stay current, authorized, and traceable. Public disclosure, personal storage, and distributed rewriting all undermine control, availability, or consistency, and therefore do not support the stated goal of a reliable documentation process.

Exam trap

The trap here is equating document availability with unrestricted publication or distributed editing, when controlled access and centralized approval are what actually keep documentation current and authorized.

331
MCQmedium

What is the primary role of the Security Control Assessor (SCA)?

A.To determine the effectiveness of the security controls
B.To implement the security controls
C.To remediate vulnerabilities
D.To accept the risk on behalf of the agency
AnswerA

The Security Control Assessor evaluates implemented controls against defined criteria, testing whether they operate as intended and documenting residual risk. This assessment produces the evidence authorising officials use to decide whether a system may be granted an authority to operate.

Why this answer

The Security Control Assessor (SCA) is responsible for evaluating the security controls implemented in an information system to determine their effectiveness in meeting the security requirements. This role is defined in NIST SP 800-37, the Risk Management Framework (RMF), where the SCA conducts assessments to produce evidence for the Authorizing Official's risk-based decision. The SCA does not implement controls, remediate vulnerabilities, or accept risk; those are the responsibilities of the system owner, information system security officer, and authorizing official, respectively.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between the Security Control Assessor (SCA) and the Authorizing Official (AO), as candidates may confuse assessment with risk acceptance or implementation responsibilities.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because implementing security controls is the responsibility of the system owner and information system security officer (ISSO), not the SCA; the SCA assesses, not implements. Option C is wrong because remediating vulnerabilities is typically the job of the system administrator or security operations team, not the SCA; the SCA identifies weaknesses but does not fix them. Option D is wrong because accepting risk is the sole authority of the Authorizing Official (AO), who uses the SCA's assessment report to make an informed risk decision; the SCA does not have the authority to accept risk on behalf of the agency.

332
MCQhard

During an assessment of a federal information system, you are evaluating the implementation of the access control policy. You discover that the system administrator has granted temporary elevated privileges to a user for a critical maintenance task, but the privileges were not revoked after the task was completed. According to NIST SP 800-53A, which assessment method would best verify the effectiveness of the account management control?

A.Test the system by attempting to access resources using the user's account to see if elevated privileges are still active.
B.Interview the system administrator to understand the process for granting and revoking temporary privileges.
C.Examine the system's audit logs and account management records to verify that temporary privileges were revoked within the required timeframe.
D.Review the organization's access control policy to ensure it requires timely revocation of temporary privileges.
AnswerC

Examining audit logs and account management records provides objective evidence of whether temporary privileges were revoked as required. This method directly verifies the control's operation by checking actual system activity against policy. It is the most reliable way to determine if the account management control is effective, as it reveals discrepancies between intended and actual behavior without relying on subjective statements.

Why this answer

Examining audit logs and account management records is the best method because it provides objective, verifiable evidence of whether temporary privileges were revoked as required. Interviews and policy reviews are subjective or indirect, and testing may not reveal the full extent of the issue. The assessment should focus on actual system data to determine control effectiveness.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that interviewing staff or reviewing policy is sufficient to verify control effectiveness, when objective evidence from system records is needed.

333
MCQeasy

Which of the following activities is a core component of the 'Ongoing Authorization' process?

A.Periodically reviewing security assessment results.
B.Performing a full system re-installation annually.
C.Changing the system administrator's password every month.
D.Increasing the budget for information security.
AnswerA

Ongoing authorization requires continuous monitoring, so periodically reviewing security assessment results confirms controls remain effective after the initial authority to operate. This recurring review satisfies the continuous-monitoring constraint rather than relying on a one-off assessment.

Why this answer

Ongoing Authorization (formerly Continuous Monitoring under RMF) requires the Authorizing Official to maintain situational awareness of the system's security posture after the initial ATO. Periodically reviewing security assessment results — including updated SCA scans, POA&M status, and control assessment findings — is a core activity that feeds the ongoing authorization decision. This review ensures the AO can determine whether the system's risk level remains acceptable or whether reauthorization or remediation is needed.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the distinction between routine operational security tasks (password changes, patching) and the formal RMF process steps (Ongoing Authorization), causing candidates to pick a control activity instead of the process-level review.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because full system re-installation is an operational recovery or refresh activity, not part of the ongoing authorization process; reauthorization does not require reinstalling the system. Option C is wrong because changing an administrator password is a routine account management control (IA-5) that supports security but is not itself a core ongoing authorization activity — it is one small operational task, not a process-level review. Option D is wrong because increasing the security budget is a resource/budgeting decision, not a component of the ongoing authorization process defined in NIST SP 800-37.

334
MCQeasy

A GRC practitioner is auditing access. Which report provides the best overview of who has 'Write' access to sensitive compliance evidence?

A.The System Performance Report.
B.The Risk Trend Analysis Report.
C.The Audit Finding Closure Report.
D.The 'User Permission' or 'Access Control' report.
AnswerD

A user permission or access control report aggregates each principal's assigned rights across compliance evidence, showing precisely who holds Write access. This satisfies the audit requirement for an overview by permission level rather than activity or change history.

Why this answer

A 'User Permission' or 'Access Control' report enumerates which users and groups hold which permissions (read, write, delete) on specific objects or modules, including sensitive compliance evidence. This directly answers the question of who has Write access. It is the only report type designed to surface authorization assignments.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the confusion between reports that describe system health or risk posture and reports that describe authorization, causing candidates to pick a report that sounds governance-related but contains no permission data.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a System Performance Report covers uptime, latency, and resource utilization — it has no authorization data. Option B is wrong because a Risk Trend Analysis Report tracks risk scores and changes over time, not user permissions. Option C is wrong because an Audit Finding Closure Report tracks remediation status of findings, not who can modify evidence.

None of these reports expose the permission matrix needed to answer an access-control audit question.

335
MCQmedium

A federal agency is implementing controls to comply with the Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA). The agency uses the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF). During the control implementation phase, the security team must select controls based on the system's security categorization. Which NIST Special Publication provides the catalog of security and privacy controls?

A.NIST SP 800-53
B.NIST SP 800-37
C.NIST SP 800-171
D.NIST SP 800-30
AnswerA

NIST SP 800-53, Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations, provides the comprehensive catalog of controls used in the RMF process. It is the authoritative source for selecting controls based on security categorization. Under FISMA, agencies must use this catalog to implement controls, making it the correct reference for the control implementation phase.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-53 is the foundational catalog of security and privacy controls for federal information systems. Under FISMA and the RMF, agencies select controls from SP 800-53 based on their system's security categorization. SP 800-37 describes the RMF process, SP 800-30 covers risk assessments, and SP 800-171 is for nonfederal CUI systems, so they are not the control catalog.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the RMF process document (SP 800-37) with the control catalog (SP 800-53).

336
MCQeasy

You are developing a security plan for a system that uses a NIST SP 800-53 control baseline. During control selection, you determine that a particular control is not applicable because the system does not have the relevant technology. How should you document this decision?

A.Replace the control with a different control from the same family that is easier to implement.
B.Mark the control as 'Inherited' from the service provider, even though the system does not use that technology.
C.Remove the control from the security plan entirely to avoid confusion during assessment.
D.Mark the control as 'Not Applicable' and provide a rationale explaining why the control does not apply to the system.
AnswerD

When a control is not applicable, it should be marked as such with a clear rationale. This documentation is essential for transparency and for assessors to understand the decision. NIST guidance requires that tailoring decisions, including Not Applicable determinations, be documented in the security plan.

Why this answer

The correct documentation is to mark the control as Not Applicable and provide a rationale. This maintains the integrity of the security plan and ensures that assessors understand the tailoring decision. It aligns with NIST SP 800-53 requirements for documenting control applicability and tailoring actions.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that a control can be removed or replaced without documentation, rather than explicitly marking it Not Applicable with justification.

337
MCQhard

You are deploying an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) solution. Which configuration minimizes false positives while maintaining visibility?

A.Only monitor server logs
B.Set to 'Block All' mode
C.Disable real-time scanning
D.Exclude known safe processes and signers
AnswerD

Excluding known safe processes and signers stops the EDR engine from flagging trusted, benign activity, directly reducing false positives. Visibility is preserved because all other process and file behaviour remains monitored, satisfying the stem's balance of low noise and continued detection.

Why this answer

Excluding known safe processes and signers reduces false positives by allowing legitimate applications to run without triggering alerts, while still monitoring for anomalous behavior. This maintains visibility because the EDR continues to log and analyze all other activities, only suppressing noise from trusted sources.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that maximum blocking or minimal monitoring reduces false positives, when in fact it either breaks functionality or destroys visibility.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because monitoring only server logs ignores endpoint activity, severely limiting visibility and missing threats on workstations. Option B is wrong because 'Block All' mode is overly aggressive, causing many false positives and disrupting business operations. Option C is wrong because disabling real-time scanning eliminates a critical detection capability, leaving the endpoint vulnerable.

338
MCQmedium

You are an auditor evaluating the results of a security assessment. The assessment team identified a high-risk finding related to inadequate logging and monitoring. The system owner disagrees with the finding and argues that compensating controls mitigate the risk. As the auditor, what should you do NEXT to resolve this disagreement?

A.Request additional evidence from the system owner to validate the compensating controls
B.Document the disagreement in the report and let the system owner provide a written rebuttal
C.Immediately escalate the disagreement to the authorizing official for a final decision
D.Accept the system owner's assertion and remove the finding from the report
AnswerA

The auditor should request evidence that demonstrates the compensating controls are implemented and effective. This could include configuration settings, logs, or test results. By evaluating the evidence, the auditor can determine whether the risk is adequately mitigated or if the finding should stand. This collaborative approach respects the system owner's input while maintaining objectivity and evidence-based conclusions.

Why this answer

When a system owner disputes a finding, the auditor should gather additional evidence to evaluate the claim. Requesting evidence of compensating controls allows the auditor to make an informed, objective decision. This step supports a collaborative resolution and ensures the assessment remains evidence-based.

Escalation or removal of the finding without validation is premature.

Exam trap

The trap here is either escalating immediately or accepting the assertion without evidence, rather than seeking objective evidence to resolve the disagreement.

339
MCQeasy

A GRC team is defining the scope of its governance program. The organization wants to ensure that all relevant stakeholders are aware of their roles and responsibilities regarding risk and compliance. Which artifact is most appropriate to document and communicate this information?

A.A risk register that lists all identified risks and their owners.
B.A compliance calendar that schedules regulatory reporting deadlines.
C.A RACI matrix that maps GRC activities to roles across the organization.
D.A business impact analysis (BIA) that identifies critical business processes.
AnswerC

A RACI matrix clarifies who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each GRC activity. It ensures that stakeholders understand their roles and helps prevent gaps or overlaps in responsibilities. This is a foundational governance artifact that communicates expectations and supports accountability across the organization.

Why this answer

A RACI matrix is specifically designed to clarify roles and responsibilities for activities and decisions. By mapping GRC activities to roles, it ensures stakeholders know what is expected of them, reducing confusion and enhancing accountability. Other artifacts serve different purposes, such as risk documentation, scheduling, or continuity planning, and do not address role clarity.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing risk documentation or scheduling tools with governance communication artifacts, which leads to selecting a risk register or compliance calendar instead of a RACI matrix.

340
MCQhard

A government agency is implementing a new case management system that will store sensitive law enforcement data. The GRC team must ensure that the system meets the requirements of the Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Security Policy. The agency's CIO asks for a control that ensures only authorized personnel can access the system and that their activities are tracked. Which combination of controls should be implemented?

A.Single sign-on and security awareness training
B.Mandatory access control and data encryption
C.Discretionary access control and intrusion detection
D.Role-based access control and audit logging
AnswerD

Role-based access control (RBAC) restricts system access to authorized personnel based on their role, satisfying the requirement for access control. Audit logging records user activities, providing accountability and tracking. Together, they meet the CJIS requirements for access control and audit, ensuring only authorized access and activity tracking.

Why this answer

The CJIS Security Policy requires access control and audit logging to protect sensitive data. Role-based access control ensures that only authorized personnel can access the system based on their roles, while audit logging tracks their activities. Other options either do not provide activity tracking or use less appropriate access control models for this context.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any access control model (MAC, DAC) satisfies the requirement, and overlooking that the scenario explicitly requires activity tracking, which mandates audit logging.

341
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of mapping regulatory requirements to internal controls in a GRC platform?

A.It reduces the burden of redundant testing for multiple frameworks.
B.It reduces the number of employees required to manage the platform.
C.It makes the GRC platform look more professional.
D.It hides the compliance gaps from external auditors.
AnswerA

Mapping regulatory requirements to internal controls lets one control satisfy multiple frameworks, so evidence gathered once can be reused across audits. This directly reduces redundant testing effort, which is the primary benefit GRC platforms deliver through control-to-requirement mapping.

Why this answer

Mapping regulatory requirements to internal controls creates a many-to-many relationship where a single control can satisfy multiple regulations (e.g., one access-control policy satisfies SOX, PCI DSS, and ISO 27001). This eliminates duplicate testing and evidence collection, reducing the total compliance workload. It is the core value proposition of a GRC platform.

Exam trap

CGRC often tests the misconception that mapping requirements to controls eliminates compliance obligations or hides gaps, when it actually reduces redundant testing while exposing unmapped requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because mapping requirements to controls does not reduce headcount — it reduces redundant effort, but the same number of staff is still needed to operate the platform. Option C is wrong because making the platform 'look more professional' is not a security or compliance benefit; it is a cosmetic outcome with no risk-reduction value. Option D is wrong because mapping requirements to controls actually exposes gaps by showing which requirements lack a mapped control — it does not hide them, and hiding gaps from auditors would be unethical and counterproductive.

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