CRISC IT Risk Assessment Practice Question
During an IT risk assessment, the risk owner decides to accept a risk that falls within the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the risk owner to take?
⚠ Common exam trap
Candidates often confuse risk acceptance with risk treatment, assuming that any risk must be mitigated or transferred, but the CRISC exam emphasizes that risks within appetite can be formally accepted without further action.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Document the risk and obtain formal sign-off from the risk owner.
When a risk falls within the organization's risk appetite, the most appropriate action is to formally accept it. The risk owner must document the risk and obtain formal sign-off to ensure accountability and auditability, as required by the risk management framework. This aligns with the principle that risks within appetite do not require additional treatment beyond formal acceptance.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✓
Document the risk and obtain formal sign-off from the risk owner.
Why this is correct
Correct. Acceptance requires documentation and sign-off.
- ✗
Eliminate the business process that creates the risk.
Why it's wrong here
That is risk avoidance, not acceptance.
- ✗
Transfer the risk to a third party via insurance.
Why it's wrong here
That would be risk transfer, not acceptance.
- ✗
Implement additional controls to reduce the risk to zero.
Why it's wrong here
Acceptance means no additional controls are needed.
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Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
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