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ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst (CCOA) (CCOA) (CCOA) — Questions 175

203 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Splunk Enterprise Security notable event action. Which setting ensures the notable event remains in the 'In Progress' state until a specific analyst manually updates the status?

A.Retention policy override
B.Real-time notable event aggregation
C.Automated workflow action trigger
D.Manual status update via Action menu
AnswerD

Manual status updates are required to transition from the default 'New' status.

Why this answer

In Splunk Enterprise Security, the Notable Event workflow status is controlled by the 'Status' field mapping in the incident review dashboard, which relies on the analyst's manual intervention through the 'Action' menu to change the status value.

2
MCQmedium

When designing a defense-in-depth strategy, which layer should be addressed first as the primary boundary between internal and external networks?

A.Data encryption
B.Host-based security
C.Perimeter network (DMZ)
D.Application layer
AnswerC

The DMZ acts as the initial buffer zone.

Why this answer

The perimeter network (DMZ) is the first line of defense that separates the internal network from untrusted public networks.

3
MCQeasy

When performing containment of a compromised endpoint in CrowdStrike Falcon, which feature should you use to prevent the adversary from using the machine to move laterally while still allowing incident responders to pull memory dumps?

A.Host isolation
B.File Quarantine
C.Credential revocation
D.Sensor uninstallation
AnswerA

Host isolation restricts network traffic except to the management console.

Why this answer

Network Containment in CrowdStrike isolates the host from the network but maintains a secure connection to the Falcon cloud for administrative actions.

4
MCQmedium

You need to identify unauthorized modifications to system binaries on a Red Hat Enterprise Linux server. Which tool is best suited for this integrity verification?

A.firewalld
B.systemctl status
C.yum check-update
D.AIDE
AnswerD

AIDE creates a database of file hashes and compares them to detect changes.

Why this answer

AIDE (Advanced Intrusion Detection Environment) is a file integrity checker that monitors system files against a baseline hash database.

5
MCQeasy

Which tactic is associated with 'T1537 Transfer Data to Cloud Account'?

A.Execution
B.Exfiltration
C.Discovery
D.Persistence
AnswerB

Transferring data to a cloud account is a classic exfiltration step.

Why this answer

This is a form of Exfiltration.

6
MCQmedium

What is the primary goal of the 'Command and Control' (C2) tactic?

A.To manage the compromised host and receive instructions
B.To encrypt data
C.To create user accounts
D.To steal user credentials
AnswerA

C2 provides the means to control the system remotely.

Why this answer

C2 is about maintaining a communication channel between the compromised host and the attacker's infrastructure.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE types of network logs are most effective for identifying a data breach?

Select 3 answers
A.DHCP lease logs
B.Web proxy logs
C.NetFlow logs
D.DNS query logs
E.Printer queue logs
AnswersB, C, D

Detail content and destination of web traffic.

Why this answer

Network logs (NetFlow, DNS, Proxy) provide visibility into communication patterns that reveal unauthorized data transfers.

8
MCQmedium

You are investigating a suspicious login in Okta. Which log field should be analyzed to determine if the session originated from an anonymized VPN or Tor exit node?

A.outcome.reason
B.target.alternateId
C.client.geographicalContext.proxyType
D.debugContext.debugData
AnswerC

Specifically identifies the connection type as VPN, Tor, or proxy.

Why this answer

The 'client.geographicalContext.proxyType' or similar risk-based fields in Okta logs identify if the connecting IP is associated with known proxies or VPNs.

9
MCQmedium

An analyst is setting up a new firewall. The policy dictates that all traffic is blocked unless explicitly permitted. What principle is being followed?

A.Least Privilege
B.Separation of Duties
C.Defense-in-depth
D.Default Deny
AnswerD

Default Deny is the standard for secure firewall configuration.

Why this answer

Default Deny (or Least Privilege) ensures that traffic not specifically allowed is prohibited by default.

10
MCQhard

You are implementing 'Just-in-Time' (JIT) access for Azure Virtual Machines using Microsoft Defender for Cloud. A developer complains they cannot request access to a VM. What is the most likely reason?

A.The VM is not joined to an Azure Active Directory domain.
B.The developer lacks the required Azure RBAC permissions to modify the Network Security Group associated with the VM.
C.The developer lacks the 'Security Reader' role, which is mandatory for requesting JIT access.
D.The developer has not enabled 'Multi-Factor Authentication' on their local machine.
AnswerB

JIT access works by modifying the NSG; without sufficient RBAC permissions to change these rules, the request will fail.

Why this answer

Defender for Cloud's JIT VM Access requires the user to have specific RBAC permissions (typically 'Microsoft.Compute/virtualMachines/write') on the resource group or subscription.

11
MCQmedium

You suspect an adversary is performing 'T1005 Data from Local System'. Which of these actions is relevant?

A.Modifying a service
B.Creating a new user
C.Scanning the network
D.Searching for files with specific extensions like .docx or .xlsx
AnswerD

Finding and collecting sensitive documents on the local disk is the technique.

Why this answer

Data from Local System involves searching for and copying files from a user's machine.

12
MCQmedium

An analyst is assessing the 'Availability' of a database. Which scenario represents a threat to availability?

A.Packet sniffing on the wire
B.Replay attack
C.Unauthorized data modification
D.Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
AnswerD

DDoS renders systems unavailable to legitimate users.

Why this answer

Availability ensures systems are up. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack explicitly targets uptime.

13
MCQeasy

What is the function of the 'netstat' command in a Windows environment?

A.To update the system time.
B.To flush the DNS cache.
C.To view active network connections.
D.To change the IP address.
AnswerC

Netstat is the standard command for listing current network state.

Why this answer

Netstat displays active TCP connections, listening ports, and routing tables, which is critical for network troubleshooting.

14
MCQhard

You are assessing an attacker's use of 'T1203 Exploitation for Client Execution'. What does this imply?

A.The user clicked a link
B.The attacker used social engineering
C.The attacker targeted a software vulnerability in an application
D.The user was logged in via RDP
AnswerC

Exploiting software vulnerabilities is the core of this technique.

Why this answer

This technique involves exploiting a client-side application (like a browser or PDF reader) to execute code.

15
MCQhard

You are investigating a suspected data exfiltration incident. You need to analyze network traffic captured in a PCAP file. Which tool is the industry standard for performing deep packet inspection and protocol analysis during this investigation?

A.Wireshark
B.Metasploit
C.Nmap
D.Burp Suite
AnswerA

Wireshark allows for detailed protocol inspection and filtering.

Why this answer

Wireshark is the standard tool for granular packet dissection and flow analysis.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of 'Discovery' techniques?

Select 2 answers
A.Data exfiltration
B.System owner/user discovery
C.Network share enumeration
D.Process injection
E.System reboot
AnswersB, C

Identifying users is a discovery activity.

Why this answer

Enumerating network shares and identifying current user context are discovery actions.

17
MCQeasy

You are tasked with securing a database connection. Which technology is best for ensuring data in transit is encrypted?

A.Hashing
B.VPN
C.AES-256
D.TLS
AnswerD

TLS ensures encrypted, authenticated communication between the client and the database server.

Why this answer

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the industry standard for encrypting data in transit between clients and databases.

18
MCQhard

You are investigating a breach where the attacker used 'T1555 Credentials from Password Stores'. Where would they look?

A.Active Directory logs
B.Network packets
C.System logs
D.Browser 'Login Data' SQLite databases
AnswerD

Browsers store saved passwords in these local files.

Why this answer

Password stores include browser data, local vaults, and credential managers.

19
MCQmedium

You are analyzing a PCAP file and see numerous 'ICMP Echo Request' packets with unusually large payloads. What is this likely indicative of?

A.DNS spoofing
B.ICMP tunneling
C.Network congestion
D.A standard network ping
AnswerB

Uses ICMP payloads for non-ping purposes.

Why this answer

ICMP tunneling uses the data payload of ICMP packets to encapsulate other protocol traffic, which is a common exfiltration or command-and-control technique.

20
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring an Endpoint Security policy to harden Windows 10 devices. Which TWO of the following settings are recommended as best practice to mitigate physical access risks?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption for all fixed drives.
B.Disable the 'Allow Windows Store apps' policy.
C.Enable 'Microsoft Defender SmartScreen'.
D.Set the 'Minimum Password Length' to 12 characters.
E.Disable 'AutoRun' for all removable media.
AnswersA, E

BitLocker protects data from extraction if the physical drive is removed.

Why this answer

BitLocker protects data at rest, and disabling external media prevents unauthorized data exfiltration/injection.

21
MCQhard

You observe that a specific Windows service is running as 'SYSTEM' but is vulnerable to DLL hijacking. What is the most effective way to harden this service without disabling it?

A.Configure the service folder permissions to restrict write access to the 'Administrators' group only.
B.Change the service account to a local 'Guest' account.
C.Enable 'Service Isolation' in the Registry using the 'ServiceSidType' key.
D.Rename the service executable to a random string.
AnswerA

Restricting write access to the service binary folder prevents attackers from planting malicious DLLs that the service might load.

Why this answer

Hardening services that run as SYSTEM requires securing the directory permissions so only authorized users can write to the application folder, preventing the loading of malicious DLLs.

22
MCQmedium

A SIEM alert indicates a 'Golden Ticket' attack. What is the primary indicator of this attack in the logs?

A.Abnormally long TGT lifetime
B.Frequent account lockout events
C.Unusual user agent strings
D.Excessive failed login attempts
AnswerA

The defining characteristic of a forged Golden Ticket.

Why this answer

A Golden Ticket attack involves Kerberos TGT (Ticket Granting Ticket) requests that appear abnormal because the ticket lifetime is extremely long, often years.

23
MCQeasy

You are investigating a network segment using a protocol analyzer. You see traffic with the RST flag set. What does this typically signify?

A.A request for retransmission.
B.An immediate termination of a connection.
C.A request for a new connection.
D.A data acknowledgment.
AnswerB

RST is used to abruptly close a connection, often when a connection is refused or reset.

Why this answer

The RST (Reset) flag in TCP is used to immediately close a connection, often due to an error or an attempt to terminate a rejected session.

24
MCQhard

You are implementing threat hunting for 'T1562 Impair Defenses'. Which activity are you searching for?

A.Disabling Windows Defender or modifying firewall rules
B.Downloading a remote tool
C.Running a password brute force
D.Listing files on a share
AnswerA

These are direct techniques to weaken defenses.

Why this answer

Impair Defenses involves disabling security software, such as antivirus or EDR agents, to remain undetected.

25
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are considered 'Defense Evasion' techniques?

Select 2 answers
A.Masquerading
B.Account manipulation
C.Data staging
D.Indicator removal on host (clear logs)
E.Remote service creation
AnswersA, D

Masking files hides them from security tools.

Why this answer

Clearing logs and masquerading as a legitimate process are used to avoid detection.

26
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are considered 'Technical' controls?

Select 2 answers
A.Firewall configuration
B.Background checks
C.Security policy documentation
D.Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
E.Guard patrol
AnswersA, D

Software/hardware control.

Why this answer

Technical controls (logical controls) are implemented via software, hardware, or firmware.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

You are auditing your cloud environment for 'Shadow IT'. Which TWO of the following methods are effective for identifying unauthorized assets?

Select 2 answers
A.Scanning the corporate network using Nmap for open ports.
B.Interviewing all employees about their work habits.
C.Reviewing firewall logs for connections to known cloud service provider CIDR blocks.
D.Analyzing DNS query logs for domains associated with common SaaS platforms.
E.Checking the physical office layout.
AnswersC, D

Egress traffic patterns to known cloud provider IP ranges are key indicators of shadow IT usage.

Why this answer

Cloud access security brokers (CASB) and firewall/proxy logs are the primary visibility points for detecting traffic to unauthorized cloud services.

28
MCQeasy

Which protocol is most appropriate for secure remote management of network infrastructure devices?

A.SNMPv1
B.Telnet
C.SSH
D.HTTP
AnswerC

SSH provides strong encryption for remote administrative sessions.

Why this answer

SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted remote access, whereas Telnet, HTTP, and SNMPv1 are insecure.

29
MCQhard

You are reviewing a Purple Team exercise involving 'T1003 OS Credential Dumping'. What is the most reliable way to detect credential dumping via LSASS process access?

A.Monitor for handle access to lsass.exe
B.Monitor for lsass.exe process termination
C.Monitor for failed login attempts
D.Monitor registry read operations
AnswerA

Dumping tools typically request a process handle with specific access masks.

Why this answer

LSASS.exe is the process that handles local security; monitoring it for non-system process access is a high-fidelity detection method.

30
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Incident Response lifecycle, which phase involves the root cause analysis and the documentation of lessons learned?

A.Detection and Analysis
B.Preparation
C.Post-incident activity
D.Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
AnswerC

This phase focuses on retrospective analysis.

Why this answer

The Post-Incident Activity phase (or Lessons Learned) is dedicated to documenting what happened and how to improve future responses.

31
MCQmedium

You see a process performing DNS queries for unusually long subdomains. Which tactic is the adversary likely exercising?

A.Discovery
B.Command and Control
C.Exfiltration
D.Lateral Movement
AnswerB

This is a form of C2 communication.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling is a technique used to bypass network firewalls and communicate with C2 servers, falling under Command and Control.

32
MCQhard

Which technique is most effective for an adversary to perform 'T1078 Valid Accounts'?

A.Exploiting a software vulnerability
B.Using stolen credentials obtained via phishing
C.Brute forcing a firewall
D.Installing a rootkit
AnswerB

Legitimate credentials obtained via phishing allow access as a valid user.

Why this answer

Adversaries often use stolen credentials or social engineering to obtain legitimate user credentials to access systems as authorized users.

33
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are essential components of a secure network design for a segmented corporate network?

Select 2 answers
A.Shared administrative credentials
B.Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs)
C.Hubs to connect all devices
D.Firewalls between segments
E.Disabling all internal logging
AnswersB, D

VLANs divide the network into logical segments.

Why this answer

VLANs provide logical isolation, and Firewalls provide traffic control between those segments.

34
MCQmedium

While analyzing an EDR alert, you observe a process modifying 'HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run'. What is the primary adversary objective at this stage?

A.Discovery
B.Persistence
C.Execution
D.Privilege Escalation
AnswerB

Registry modifications for startup ensure the malware survives a reboot.

Why this answer

Modifying registry run keys is a standard technique to ensure a program executes automatically upon system startup, which defines Persistence.

35
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are core components of the CIA Triad?

Select 2 answers
A.Confidentiality
B.Non-repudiation
C.Identification
D.Availability
E.Authorization
AnswersA, D

One of the three pillars.

Why this answer

The CIA Triad stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

36
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO sources are used to populate threat intelligence feeds for incident detection?

Select 2 answers
A.Building maintenance schedules
B.Internal employee social media posts
C.Honeypot monitoring data
D.Security research reports
E.Public weather reports
AnswersC, D

Captures real-world attacks.

Why this answer

Threat intelligence feeds are compiled from observed malicious activity (honeypots, sensor networks) and security research.

37
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following Windows log types are most useful for detecting lateral movement?

Select 2 answers
A.Power management logs
B.System logs
C.Security logs
D.Windows Update logs
E.DNS client logs
AnswersB, C

Can record remote service installation/execution.

Why this answer

Lateral movement is often detected by monitoring authentication logs (logons/logoffs) and process creation events (for remote execution tools like PsExec).

38
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of 'T1027 Obfuscated Files or Information'?

A.To escalate privileges
B.To increase execution speed
C.To facilitate lateral movement
D.To evade detection by signature-based tools
AnswerD

Hiding the true intent or code structure helps bypass static signatures.

Why this answer

Obfuscation is used to hide code or scripts from static analysis and security tools, aiding Defense Evasion.

39
MCQmedium

You are investigating an EDR alert showing suspicious PowerShell execution. You need to identify the parent process that spawned the malicious script. Which tool or view would best allow you to visualize this process tree?

A.Host status dashboard
B.Network connections tab
C.Process Tree view
D.Event search logs
AnswerC

The Process Tree visualizes the parent-child relationship of executing processes.

Why this answer

Process tree visualization is a core feature of EDR platforms like Falcon or Defender for Endpoint, allowing analysts to trace execution lineage.

40
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are considered 'Credential Access' techniques?

Select 2 answers
A.Brute force
B.OS credential dumping
C.File deletion
D.Network mapping
E.Service creation
AnswersA, B

Brute force seeks to gain credentials.

Why this answer

Brute forcing passwords and dumping memory (LSASS) are standard credential access methods.

41
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are common indicators of a compromised system found during host-based log analysis?

Select 2 answers
A.Stable CPU usage patterns
B.Unexpected outbound connections to high-numbered ports
C.Standard system update logs
D.Creation of new accounts with administrative rights
E.Successful logins from standard user accounts
AnswersB, D

This often signals C2 activity.

Why this answer

Unexpected outbound connections and the creation of new administrative accounts are classic signs of a breach.

42
MCQeasy

Which of these is a typical 'Lateral Movement' technique?

A.Using RDP
B.Running a keylogger
C.Encrypting local files
D.Setting a registry key
AnswerA

RDP is a primary tool for moving between systems in a network.

Why this answer

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a standard tool used by adversaries to move laterally between machines.

43
MCQeasy

During a triage process, you need to identify the process tree of a suspicious PowerShell execution on a Windows host using Sysmon. Which Event ID should you filter for?

A.Event ID 3
B.Event ID 11
C.Event ID 22
D.Event ID 1
AnswerD

Event ID 1 records process creation events.

Why this answer

Sysmon Event ID 1 tracks process creation, including command-line arguments and parent process information, which is essential for building a process tree.

44
MCQhard

In the context of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, what distinguishes 'T1059 Command and Scripting Interpreter' from 'T1204 User Execution'?

A.There is no distinction
B.T1059 is for Windows, T1204 is for Linux
C.T1059 is the technique, T1204 is the outcome
D.T1059 describes the execution mechanism, T1204 describes the delivery
AnswerD

T1059 is about the interpreter, T1204 requires user interaction to launch.

Why this answer

T1059 focuses on the interpretation of code (PowerShell, Bash), while T1204 focuses on the user-driven triggering of the malicious file.

45
MCQhard

You are implementing ISO 27001 Annex A controls. Which control category would contain requirements for physical access to the server room?

A.Human Resource Security
B.Operations Security
C.Access Control
D.Physical and Environmental Security
AnswerD

This covers building and hardware security.

Why this answer

Physical and Environmental Security is the domain within ISO 27001 that covers physical site security.

46
MCQeasy

During an investigation, you discover a malicious cron job on a Linux server. Which directory is the primary location for user-specific cron tasks?

A./etc/init.d
B./etc/cron.d
C./usr/bin/crontab
D./var/spool/cron/crontabs/
AnswerD

The standard directory for individual user cron jobs.

Why this answer

In Linux, user-specific crontab files are stored in '/var/spool/cron/crontabs/' or '/var/spool/cron/tabs/'.

47
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common 'Impact' techniques?

Select 3 answers
A.Data encrypted for impact
B.Data destruction
C.Service stop
D.Credential access
E.Persistence setup
AnswersA, B, C

A form of impact.

Why this answer

Data destruction, ransomware encryption, and service disruption are all forms of impact.

48
MCQeasy

An adversary uses 'vssadmin.exe delete shadows /all /quiet' during an attack. Which tactic is this technique categorized under?

A.Impact
B.Credential Access
C.Defense Evasion
D.Initial Access
AnswerA

This action destroys data, fulfilling the goal of service disruption.

Why this answer

Deleting shadow copies is a specific technique used to hinder forensic analysis and recovery, categorized under Impact.

49
Multi-Selectmedium

A CISO asks for a list of indicators that should be monitored in the SIEM to detect potential account takeover attempts. Which THREE indicators are most relevant?

Select 3 answers
A.High volume of failed login attempts followed by a successful login
B.Concurrent logins from different operating systems
C.Impossible travel (login from geographically distant locations in a short time)
D.Login events occurring outside of established user work hours
E.Accessing the account from a known VPN IP range
AnswersA, C, D

This often indicates a successful password spraying or brute force attack.

Why this answer

Impossible travel, unusual login times, and failed login spikes are key indicators of credential compromise.

50
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a 'C2 Beacon'?

A.To encrypt the local drive
B.To log user keystrokes
C.To transfer large files
D.To periodically check for new tasks
AnswerD

Checking for instructions is the definition of a beacon.

Why this answer

Beacons are small packets sent periodically from the infected host to the attacker's server to check for instructions.

51
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following behaviors are typical of 'Lateral Movement'?

Select 2 answers
A.SMB/Admin shares
B.DNS query analysis
C.Registry key editing
D.Keystroke logging
E.Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
AnswersA, E

SMB is a primary protocol for lateral movement.

Why this answer

Remote services like RDP and SMB/Admin shares are primary mechanisms for moving laterally.

52
MCQeasy

Which document outlines the formal commitment of top management to support information security objectives?

A.System Security Plan (SSP)
B.Information Security Policy (ISP)
C.Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
D.Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
AnswerB

The ISP is the top-level governance document.

Why this answer

The Information Security Policy (ISP) is the foundational document signed by management showing their commitment and authority.

53
MCQmedium

An incident response team is performing containment on a compromised Linux server that is part of a containerized environment. Given that the container is running in a Kubernetes cluster, which action is the most appropriate initial containment step to preserve the volatile memory for forensics while preventing further data exfiltration?

A.Pause the container process using container runtime tools
B.Remove the container image from the registry
C.Update the Kubernetes NetworkPolicy to deny all ingress and egress
D.Delete the pod immediately to stop the communication
AnswerA

Pausing the container halts execution while keeping the container in a state where memory can be dumped for forensic analysis.

Why this answer

Pausing the container allows for the preservation of current memory states, whereas deletion or isolation via network policies might trigger cleanup scripts or lose memory artifacts.

54
MCQmedium

You are hardening a virtual machine's security. Which action is the most effective way to prevent VM escape attacks?

A.Run the VM as a local administrator.
B.Keep hypervisor and guest tools updated.
C.Disable the disk.
D.Remove the network adapter.
AnswerB

Most escape attacks exploit known vulnerabilities in these components.

Why this answer

Keeping the hypervisor and guest tools updated is the primary defense against vulnerabilities that allow a VM to compromise the host.

55
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE types of data are typically found in a full forensic disk image?

Select 3 answers
A.File system metadata
B.Deleted files
C.Live memory contents
D.Hidden partitions
E.Remote cloud storage files
AnswersA, B, D

Includes timestamps and permissions.

Why this answer

Forensic images capture all data on the physical drive, including hidden partition data, slack space, and deleted files that have not yet been overwritten.

56
Multi-Selecthard

Your vulnerability management program requires prioritizing fixes based on exploitability. Which THREE of the following factors should be included in your risk score?

Select 3 answers
A.The number of employees in the department that owns the server.
B.Exploit Code Maturity (e.g., is there a public exploit available?).
C.Asset criticality (e.g., does it house PII?).
D.The color of the server rack hardware.
E.Network accessibility (e.g., is it reachable from the internet?).
AnswersB, C, E

The existence of public exploit code significantly increases the risk of exploitation.

Why this answer

CVSS scoring includes base metrics like exploit code maturity, environmental impact, and temporal factors to prioritize remediation.

57
MCQhard

In a Linux system, which tool is used to identify open network connections and the specific process ID (PID) associated with them?

A.top
B.ps aux
C.ifconfig
D.ss -p
AnswerD

Displays socket statistics along with the associated process.

Why this answer

The 'ss' (socket statistics) command or the older 'netstat' command with the '-p' flag is used to show sockets and their associated PIDs.

58
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are essential components of an effective Incident Response Plan (IRP)?

Select 2 answers
A.Clear roles and responsibilities
B.The company's marketing strategy
C.Defined communication plan
D.Inventory of printer models
E.List of all employee home addresses
AnswersA, C

Essential to ensure a coordinated response.

Why this answer

An IRP must clearly define roles (who does what) and include communication plans (who to notify) to be effective during a crisis.

59
MCQeasy

You have identified a rogue DHCP server on your network. Which switch feature should be implemented to prevent this in the future?

A.VLAN Tagging
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.DHCP Snooping
D.Port Security
AnswerC

DHCP Snooping allows administrators to specify trusted ports that are authorized to provide DHCP responses.

Why this answer

DHCP Snooping is the standard feature used to validate DHCP messages and prevent rogue server injection.

60
MCQhard

In a Palo Alto Networks environment, you need to identify if a specific internal host is beaconing to a command-and-control server. Which log type provides the necessary data?

A.Data filtering logs
B.Threat logs
C.URL filtering logs
D.Traffic logs
AnswerD

Records all connection sessions, allowing for long-term behavioral analysis.

Why this answer

Traffic logs in Palo Alto Networks provide the session-level details required to perform frequency analysis and detect beaconing patterns.

61
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary security controls for securing virtual machines in a production environment?

Select 2 answers
A.Hypervisor patching
B.Providing full physical access to the VM
C.Using only physical cabling
D.Guest OS patch management
E.Disabling VM encryption
AnswersA, D

The hypervisor is the foundation; it must be secure against escape vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

Hypervisor hardening and regular patching are essential to prevent VM escape and local exploits.

62
MCQeasy

When analyzing a virtual machine's security, you note it is using a 'Bridged' network adapter. What is the primary security implication of this configuration?

A.The VM is isolated from the physical network.
B.The VM can only communicate with the host.
C.The VM uses the host's IP address.
D.The VM acts as a direct node on the physical network.
AnswerD

Bridged mode bypasses host-level NAT, making the VM visible to other hosts on the LAN.

Why this answer

Bridged networking gives the VM its own IP on the physical network, exposing it directly to network-based attacks like the host machine.

63
MCQeasy

When setting up a new security monitoring tool, you need to define 'Critical Assets'. Which criteria should NOT be used to determine asset criticality?

A.The date when the asset was last patched.
B.The regulatory requirements associated with the asset (e.g., PCI-DSS/HIPAA).
C.The sensitivity of data residing on the asset.
D.The impact to business operations if the asset is offline.
AnswerA

Patch status is a measure of vulnerability, not a measure of the asset's intrinsic business criticality.

Why this answer

Asset criticality is based on business value, regulatory impact, and data sensitivity; 'last patch date' is a hygiene metric, not a classification criterion.

64
MCQmedium

You are investigating a potential credential harvesting site. Which tool is best suited to safely inspect the site without triggering a potential infection?

A.A local web browser
B.An isolated sandbox or VM
C.A command-line curl request
D.The organization's proxy server
AnswerB

Provides the necessary safety for analyzing malicious content.

Why this answer

A sandbox or an isolated virtual machine (e.g., Cuckoo Sandbox) provides a safe, controlled environment to execute and inspect suspicious URLs.

65
MCQhard

You are reviewing a cloud architecture against the NIST 800-53 control catalog. Which control family would you reference for incidents involving unauthorized data exfiltration?

A.Access Control (AC)
B.Incident Response (IR)
C.Configuration Management (CM)
D.Risk Assessment (RA)
AnswerB

IR controls specifically address handling security incidents.

Why this answer

Incident Response (IR) is the specific NIST 800-53 family governing the response to security incidents.

66
MCQeasy

You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Which feature is most effective against 'T1566 Phishing'?

A.Network Isolation
B.Email filtering policies
C.Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rules
D.Device Control
AnswerB

These block the delivery of phishing emails before they reach the user.

Why this answer

Defender for Office 365 / MDE integration provides specialized filtering for malicious attachments and URLs linked to phishing.

67
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO tools are commonly used for memory forensic analysis?

Select 2 answers
A.Rekall
B.Nmap
C.Hashcat
D.Volatility
E.Wireshark
AnswersA, D

A advanced memory forensic and analysis framework.

Why this answer

Volatility and Rekall are the industry-standard frameworks used for analyzing memory dumps to detect malicious code and system artifacts.

68
MCQmedium

You are auditing an environment for 'T1083 File and Directory Discovery'. Which log source provides the most visibility into this activity?

A.Sysmon Event ID 11
B.NetFlow
C.DHCP logs
D.Firewall logs
AnswerA

Event ID 11 tracks FileCreate events, often associated with enumeration.

Why this answer

File and Directory Discovery often involves listing files, which generates audit events when monitoring directory access via Sysmon Event ID 11 or Windows Security logs.

69
MCQmedium

You are managing an incident where an adversary is utilizing a 'Living off the Land' (LotL) technique. Which log source is most critical to detect this activity?

A.Firewall denied logs
B.Physical access logs
C.SMTP gateway logs
D.Process creation logs (e.g., Sysmon Event ID 1)
AnswerD

Event ID 1 records the full command line, revealing the execution of native tools.

Why this answer

LotL attacks use legitimate system tools like PowerShell or WMI; therefore, process execution logs with command-line arguments are essential.

70
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a Windows Server service that refuses to start due to a permission issue. Which tool allows you to audit the effective permissions of the service account against the executable file?

A.Task Manager - Details tab
B.Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)
C.Advanced Security Settings - Effective Access
D.Event Viewer - System Log
AnswerC

This tool computes the final permissions for an account based on group memberships and explicit ACLs.

Why this answer

The 'Effective Access' tab in Windows Advanced Security Settings is the standard method for auditing actual permissions for a specific security principal.

71
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are standard best practices for securing cloud infrastructure?

Select 3 answers
A.Enable comprehensive audit logging
B.Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
C.Share account passwords between team members
D.Implement Principle of Least Privilege
E.Use only public IP addresses
AnswersA, B, D

Logging provides the necessary visibility for forensic analysis.

Why this answer

Least privilege, MFA, and audit logging are fundamental cloud security pillars.

72
MCQhard

While investigating an incident in Google Workspace, you notice suspicious file sharing. Which log type should be queried to see which files were shared externally by a specific user?

A.Admin audit logs
B.Login logs
C.Drive audit logs
D.OAuth token logs
AnswerC

Specifically tracks file-related actions in Google Drive.

Why this answer

The 'Drive' audit logs in Google Workspace capture events like file creation, viewing, and changing sharing permissions (e.g., 'change_user_access').

73
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Incident Response lifecycle, which phase involves the identification of the root cause?

A.Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
B.Detection and Analysis
C.Post-Incident Activity
D.Preparation
AnswerB

The phase where incidents are confirmed and root causes are investigated.

Why this answer

The Analysis phase involves determining the nature, scope, and magnitude of the incident, which leads to understanding the root cause.

74
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE techniques do attackers use to maintain persistence on a Windows host?

Select 3 answers
A.Changing the desktop background
B.Installing a malicious system service
C.Adding entries to the 'Run' registry key
D.Updating the browser's homepage
E.Creating a malicious scheduled task
AnswersB, C, E

Ensures code runs as a background process.

Why this answer

Persistence is maintained by registering code with startup processes (Registry), system services, or scheduled tasks.

75
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of 'Detection' capabilities in the NIST CSF?

Select 2 answers
A.System hardening
B.Backups
C.Firewall blocking
D.SIEM log analysis
E.IDS alerts
AnswersD, E

Monitors and detects events.

Why this answer

Detection focus on identifying anomalies and security events continuously.

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