Courseiva

Certified SOC Analyst (312-39) (312-39) — Questions 76150

201 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

Page 1

Page 2 of 3

Page 3
76
MCQhard

A SOC analyst is using GCP and sees an alert regarding 'exfiltration of data' from a Cloud Storage bucket. Which tool should be analyzed to identify the specific file names accessed during the event?

A.Cloud Storage Data Access logs
B.Cloud Asset Inventory
C.Cloud Monitoring metrics
D.Cloud Load Balancing logs
AnswerA

Data Access logs provide the audit trail for object-level interactions.

Why this answer

Cloud Storage Data Access logs (found in Cloud Logging) contain granular details about which objects (files) were read or modified.

77
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE items should be included in a standard incident containment report?

Select 3 answers
A.Current status of affected hosts
B.Timestamp of containment actions
C.The analyst's home address
D.Employee payroll details
E.Technical methods used for containment
AnswersA, B, E

Required for situational awareness.

Why this answer

The report must detail what was done, when, and the status of the containment.

78
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are essential for effective incident response within a SIEM?

Select 3 answers
A.Automated playbooks or runbooks.
B.Unlimited coffee supply.
C.Clearly defined triage procedures.
D.Integration with ticketing systems.
E.A large collection of desk chairs.
AnswersA, C, D

Playbooks ensure consistent response.

Why this answer

Documentation, playbooks, and integration are critical for response.

79
MCQeasy

Which of the following is considered a 'Network-based' IoC?

A.Mutex name
B.Registry key path
C.Suspicious domain name
D.File hash (SHA-256)
AnswerC

Domains are network indicators used for C2 or delivery.

Why this answer

Network-based IoCs include IP addresses, domain names, and URLs associated with malicious activity.

80
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should be considered when determining the severity level of an incident?

Select 3 answers
A.The analyst's mood
B.Business impact
C.Data sensitivity
D.The day of the week
E.Urgency
AnswersB, C, E

Critical for severity.

Why this answer

Impact, urgency, and the sensitivity of the data define severity.

81
MCQmedium

During a phishing investigation, you receive a suspicious link. Which safety measure should you use to analyze the link?

A.Open the link in your local browser
B.Download the link contents to your desktop
C.Forward the email to your personal account
D.Use a sandboxed/isolated browser environment
AnswerD

This protects the analyst's machine while allowing investigation.

Why this answer

A secure sandbox or isolated browser provides a safe environment to observe the link's behavior.

82
MCQmedium

You are managing log rotation on a Linux-based log aggregator. Which configuration file is used by the logrotate utility to define the retention and compression settings for log files?

A./var/log/messages
B./etc/rsyslog.conf
C./etc/sysctl.conf
D./etc/logrotate.conf
AnswerD

This file governs the logrotate daemon's behavior.

Why this answer

/etc/logrotate.conf is the primary configuration file for defining rotation schedules and behaviors.

83
MCQmedium

Your organization is evaluating its SOC maturity using the CMMI-based model. If the SOC has documented standard processes but lacks consistent automation, which maturity level has been achieved?

A.Level 3
B.Level 5
C.Level 2
D.Level 1
AnswerA

Level 3 requires standardized processes.

Why this answer

Level 3 (Defined) indicates processes are established and documented, but not yet optimized.

84
MCQeasy

An analyst is tasked with monitoring for 'Living off the Land' (LotL) attacks. Which of the following built-in Windows utilities, if used by a non-administrative user, warrants immediate investigation?

A.mspaint.exe
B.calc.exe
C.certutil.exe
D.notepad.exe
AnswerC

Certutil is often abused for file downloads and decoding malicious binaries.

Why this answer

Certutil.exe is frequently misused to download files or decode malicious payloads, making its use by standard users a red flag.

85
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of an 'Indicator of Compromise' (IoC)?

A.A known malicious IP address.
B.The SIEM administrator's name.
C.The server name.
D.The company's office address.
AnswerA

IoCs are specific artifacts of an attack.

Why this answer

A malicious IP or file hash is a classic IoC.

86
MCQmedium

You are configuring AWS GuardDuty to improve threat detection. You need to ensure it monitors for unusual S3 bucket access. Which data source must be enabled for this?

A.VPC Flow Logs
B.EBS Snapshot logs
C.S3 Data Events
D.Route 53 Resolver query logs
AnswerC

S3 Data Events provide the necessary logging for GuardDuty to identify suspicious S3 access.

Why this answer

GuardDuty requires S3 Data Events (via CloudTrail) to monitor access patterns at the object level within S3 buckets.

87
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of a 'Lookback Window' in a SIEM correlation rule?

A.Defines the time period for analyzing events.
B.Selects the log source vendor.
C.Determines the color of the alert.
D.Sets the alert expiration date.
AnswerA

The window determines the scope of the correlation logic.

Why this answer

The lookback window defines the timeframe for analyzing historical events to detect a pattern.

88
MCQhard

You are designing a rule in a SIEM to detect brute force attacks. What is the most important factor when choosing the time window for the rule?

A.The number of log sources in the SIEM.
B.The time of day the rule runs.
C.The rate of attempts compared to the attacker's potential speed.
D.The disk space available in the SIEM.
AnswerC

Matching the window to the attack methodology ensures detection.

Why this answer

The time window must be long enough to capture slow-and-low attacks but short enough to avoid excessive false positives.

89
MCQhard

You are auditing your SOC workflow and find that incident escalations are delayed. Which metric should you analyze to identify the bottleneck between alert detection and analyst assignment?

A.MTTR
B.False Positive Rate
C.Dwell Time
D.MTTA
AnswerD

MTTA tracks the latency in alert pickup.

Why this answer

Mean Time to Acknowledge (MTTA) specifically measures the time from alert generation to human intervention.

90
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of evidence are classified as 'volatile' and should be captured first during a forensic investigation?

Select 2 answers
A.Browser history files
B.Registry hive files on disk
C.Active network connections
D.Hard drive partition table
E.System RAM contents
AnswersC, E

Connections are lost as soon as the process terminates or the system powers down.

Why this answer

Volatile data is lost when power is removed, making it the highest priority for collection.

91
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary goals of the 'Command and Control' (C2) phase?

Select 2 answers
A.Obtaining instructions from the threat actor
B.Exploiting a zero-day vulnerability
C.Establishing a persistent communication channel
D.Gathering system information
E.Encrypting files for ransom
AnswersA, C

C2 is the conduit for attacker input.

Why this answer

C2 allows the attacker to maintain access and send instructions to the compromised host.

92
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of logs are most useful for detecting lateral movement?

Select 2 answers
A.System temperature logs
B.Application log
C.Windows Event Log (Logon events)
D.Network flow logs (SMB/RDP)
E.Printer spooler logs
AnswersC, D

Detects account movement.

Why this answer

Authentication logs (logons) and network traffic (NetFlow/SMB) are the primary indicators of lateral movement.

93
MCQmedium

You are investigating an unauthorized login to an AWS IAM role. You need to determine the specific API call that was made and the source IP address. Which AWS service should you query?

A.AWS Systems Manager
B.AWS Config
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.Amazon GuardDuty
AnswerC

CloudTrail records AWS API calls and related events for your account.

Why this answer

AWS CloudTrail provides comprehensive logs for all API calls made within an AWS account, including the identity that made the call and the source IP address.

94
Multi-Selecthard

In the context of proactive detection, which TWO of the following are effective methods for identifying 'Low and Slow' exfiltration attempts?

Select 2 answers
A.Checking all outbound traffic against a whitelist of top 1000 websites
B.Establishing a baseline for outbound traffic volumes and alerting on significant deviations
C.Monitoring for long-lived, low-bandwidth connections to external IPs
D.Scanning all outgoing emails for keywords
E.Blocking all encrypted traffic at the firewall
AnswersB, C

Slow exfiltration often goes unnoticed until the cumulative data volume exceeds the baseline.

Why this answer

Identifying long-duration connections and baseline deviations in data volume are the most effective ways to spot slow exfiltration.

95
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items are essential components of a robust log management policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Default login credentials for all devices
B.Definition of log retention periods
C.Encryption standards for log transmission
D.Log source inventory list
E.The salary of the SOC analyst
AnswersB, C, D

Retention is a core compliance requirement.

Why this answer

A policy must define what to log, how to protect it, and for how long to keep it.

96
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid reasons for an analyst to escalate a SIEM incident?

Select 2 answers
A.The user likes the alert's name.
B.Confirmed evidence of malicious intent or unauthorized access.
C.The alert was generated by a junior analyst.
D.The alert involves a critical production server.
E.The SIEM license is expiring soon.
AnswersB, D

Confirmed threats must be handled immediately.

Why this answer

High-impact assets and confirmed malicious activity are primary escalation criteria.

97
MCQhard

You are auditing user access logs for a potential privilege escalation. What indicates that a user has successfully used 'runas' to switch context?

A.Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 9
B.Event ID 4670
C.Event ID 4625
D.Event ID 1102
AnswerA

Logon Type 9 indicates a 'NewCredentials' logon, typical of runas.

Why this answer

Event ID 4672 (Special privileges assigned to new logon) combined with 4624 (Logon type 9) indicates a runas session.

98
MCQhard

In a Windows environment, which artifact would provide the best evidence of 'Lateral Movement' using Pass-the-Hash?

A.Registry key creation in RunOnce
B.Security Event ID 4624 (Logon Type 9)
C.Prefetch file modification
D.DNS query logs
AnswerB

Type 9 indicates a NewCredentials logon, often associated with PtH.

Why this answer

Pass-the-Hash relies on NTLM authentication, making Security Event ID 4624 (type 9) the most reliable indicator.

99
MCQhard

When conducting a forensic investigation, you need to ensure the integrity of the collected digital evidence. What is the most critical step to perform immediately after copying the original media to a forensic workstation?

A.Calculate a cryptographic hash of both
B.Mount the image read-write
C.Run an antivirus scan
D.Rename the file
AnswerA

Hashing ensures the chain of custody and data integrity.

Why this answer

Calculating a cryptographic hash (MD5/SHA256) of the original and the copy confirms that the data has not been altered during the duplication process.

100
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common steps during the 'Alert Triage' process?

Select 3 answers
A.Determining the business impact of the affected asset.
B.Rebuilding the entire network.
C.Replacing all passwords in the company.
D.Gathering context from threat intelligence.
E.Verifying the alert's veracity.
AnswersA, D, E

Impact dictates the escalation priority.

Why this answer

Triage involves verification, context gathering, and determining impact.

101
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors should be considered when determining the log retention period in a SOC environment?

Select 3 answers
A.Regulatory compliance requirements (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA)
B.The amount of available storage capacity
C.Average time to detect an incident (Dwell Time)
D.The color of the hardware chassis
E.The time of day the backup is scheduled
AnswersA, B, C

Laws often mandate specific retention periods.

Why this answer

Compliance requirements, storage costs, and incident investigation timelines are the primary drivers for retention.

102
MCQeasy

Which of these is a common SIEM data ingestion protocol?

A.ICMP.
B.HTTP.
C.Syslog.
D.DHCP.
AnswerC

Syslog is the universal standard for log shipping.

Why this answer

Syslog is the most common and standard protocol for log transmission.

103
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are valid examples of 'Host-based' Indicators of Compromise?

Select 2 answers
A.SMTP server response codes
B.Malicious URL visited
C.Newly created service name
D.MD5 hash of a malicious file
E.Source IP address of an attack
AnswersC, D

System services are artifacts found on the host.

Why this answer

Host-based IoCs are artifacts found on the endpoint itself, such as files, registry changes, or running processes.

104
MCQmedium

A SOC is implementing a 'Follow-the-Sun' model. What is the most critical requirement for this transition to be successful?

A.Purchasing a new SIEM license
B.Moving all logs to the cloud
C.Increasing the number of Tier 3 analysts
D.Standardized handover and documentation
AnswerD

Handover is essential for continuity.

Why this answer

Standardization of playbooks and handoff procedures ensures continuity across different time zones.

105
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are commonly monitored artifacts for detecting 'Persistence' mechanisms?

Select 3 answers
A.Network interface throughput
B.Windows Scheduled Tasks
C.Browser history logs
D.Registry Run keys
E.System startup folder files
AnswersB, D, E

Tasks are frequently used to trigger malicious code.

Why this answer

Persistence often relies on modifying startup folders, registry keys, or scheduled tasks.

106
MCQeasy

When implementing a centralized logging architecture, which protocol is preferred for log transmission to ensure delivery confirmation between the collector and the aggregator?

A.UDP
B.TCP
C.ICMP
D.ARP
AnswerB

TCP ensures reliability through acknowledgments.

Why this answer

TCP provides a three-way handshake and acknowledgment, making it more reliable than UDP for log delivery.

107
MCQhard

While hunting for persistence mechanisms, you observe a suspicious scheduled task. Which detail in the task definition is the most critical indicator of a malicious actor rather than a legitimate software update?

A.The action executes a binary located in C:\Users\Public\ or C:\Windows\Temp\
B.The task is scheduled to run every 24 hours
C.The task has a generic name like 'Updater'
D.The task is configured to run at system startup
AnswerA

Legitimate updates typically run from Program Files; running from user directories is highly suspicious.

Why this answer

Execution from non-standard directories like AppData or Temp, combined with obfuscated command-line arguments, is a primary indicator of persistence.

108
MCQmedium

You are performing a cloud-native incident response in AWS. You need to isolate a compromised EC2 instance without deleting the volume. What is the standard process?

A.Modify Security Group to deny all traffic
B.Remove the IAM Role
C.Disable the VPC
D.Terminate the instance
AnswerA

Modifying the Security Group effectively isolates the instance from the network.

Why this answer

Modifying the Security Group associated with the instance is the standard practice to isolate it while maintaining the state for forensics.

109
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst is integrating a new STIX/TAXII feed into a SIEM. Which configuration setting is mandatory to ensure the automated ingestion of threat indicators correctly maps to the internal incident response workflow?

A.Disabling SSL verification for the incoming feed
B.Configuration of the TAXII server's internal clock synchronization
C.Setting the API polling interval to 24 hours
D.Mapping of STIX observable types to local incident categories and severity levels
AnswerD

Correct, this ensures ingested intelligence triggers relevant playbooks.

Why this answer

The mapping of threat attributes to incident severity and category is critical for automated workflow triggering.

110
MCQeasy

In the context of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, what is the primary goal of the 'Command and Control' tactic?

A.To escalate privileges
B.To maintain persistent communication
C.To steal data
D.To gain initial access
AnswerB

C2 is defined by the maintainance of communication.

Why this answer

The goal is to maintain communication between the compromised system and the attacker's infrastructure.

111
MCQeasy

Which SOC service model involves an organization outsourcing its security monitoring to a third-party provider while retaining internal control?

A.MSSP
B.Virtual SOC
C.Internal SOC
D.Hybrid Cloud SOC
AnswerA

MSSP is the standard outsourcing model.

Why this answer

Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP) models allow outsourcing while maintaining operational oversight.

112
MCQhard

When dealing with a ransomware incident, why should you prioritize disconnecting the host from the network over immediate rebooting?

A.Rebooting takes too long
B.Rebooting resets the firewall
C.Rebooting may cause data loss in volatile memory
D.Rebooting alerts the attacker
AnswerC

Memory contains keys and malicious process artifacts that are lost on reboot.

Why this answer

Rebooting can cause the ransomware to execute encryption routines or clear volatile memory artifacts needed for forensics.

113
MCQeasy

A SOC manager is defining the tiered structure of the SOC. Which tier is primarily responsible for initial triage and basic incident filtering?

A.Tier 3
B.SOC Manager
C.Tier 1
D.Tier 2
AnswerC

Tier 1 is the front line for alert triage.

Why this answer

Tier 1 analysts perform the initial monitoring, triage, and basic categorization of alerts.

114
MCQmedium

You are tasked with tuning a SIEM rule that is triggering on legitimate internal vulnerability scanners. What is the best course of action?

A.Disable the rule entirely.
B.Upgrade the vulnerability scanner.
C.Increase the rule threshold.
D.Add the vulnerability scanner's IP to an exclusion list (whitelist).
AnswerD

Excluding known assets is the standard way to reduce false positives.

Why this answer

Excluding known-good assets prevents alert fatigue and ensures SOC focus on real threats.

115
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions should be taken after an indicator of compromise (IOC) is identified to ensure it is effectively used in a proactive detection program?

Select 3 answers
A.Configure the EDR to perform a 'Sweep' for historical occurrences of the IOC
B.Share the IOC publicly on social media before internal investigation
C.Validate the IOC against internal sandbox results to confirm its malicious nature
D.Add the IOC to a SIEM watchlist for real-time alerting on matches
E.Ignore the IOC if it is older than 30 days
AnswersA, C, D

Historical sweeps identify if the threat has already penetrated the network.

Why this answer

IOCs must be vetted, added to watchlists, and monitored for matches to be useful.

116
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors contribute to 'dwell time' in a security incident?

Select 3 answers
A.Inadequate logging visibility
B.The number of coffee machines in the SOC
C.The speed of the network
D.Insufficient automated alerting
E.Lack of threat intelligence
AnswersA, D, E

Poor visibility leads to delayed detection.

Why this answer

Dwell time is the duration between the start of an intrusion and its detection.

117
MCQmedium

During a threat hunting exercise, an analyst discovers a suspicious PowerShell execution pattern using encoded commands. Which technique should the analyst employ next to determine if the activity is malicious or legitimate system administration?

A.Enable verbose logging on all domain controllers
B.Run a full antivirus scan on the affected workstation
C.Reimage the host immediately to prevent lateral movement
D.Perform frequency analysis (stack counting) on the command-line arguments across the environment
AnswerD

Stacking allows analysts to identify rare commands that are statistically unlikely in normal baselines.

Why this answer

Stack counting (frequency analysis) is a standard hunting method to isolate outliers in command-line execution patterns.

118
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are standard log types ingested into a SIEM?

Select 2 answers
A.Microwave oven event logs.
B.Firewall logs.
C.Digital clock sync logs.
D.Coffee machine telemetry.
E.Authentication/Login logs.
AnswersB, E

Essential for network traffic analysis.

Why this answer

Firewall and Authentication logs are fundamental security data.

119
MCQmedium

When building a new SIEM use case, what is the first phase of the development lifecycle?

A.Requirement gathering and scoping.
B.Writing the correlation query.
C.Testing the alert in production.
D.Documenting the playbook.
AnswerA

You must understand the business need before building the rule.

Why this answer

Defining requirements is always the starting point for SIEM use case design.

120
MCQmedium

During alert triage, why is it important to check the 'source' of an alert?

A.To identify the physical location of the server.
B.To see how much storage the source uses.
C.To determine the confidence level of the detection.
D.To check the manufacturer's warranty.
AnswerC

Security tools have different confidence levels than custom application logs.

Why this answer

Identifying if the source is a security tool or an application helps determine the reliability of the detection.

121
Multi-Selecteasy

A SOC analyst is preparing to collect digital evidence from a compromised server. Which TWO actions must be documented to maintain a proper Chain of Custody?

Select 2 answers
A.The color of the hard drive casing
B.The name of the individual collecting the evidence
C.The CPU manufacturer
D.The system temperature at the time
E.The date and time of collection
AnswersB, E

Essential for accountability.

Why this answer

Recording the exact time of collection and the identity of the person collecting it are fundamental requirements for chain of custody.

122
MCQhard

When analyzing network traffic associated with a malware C2 channel, you observe encrypted traffic. Which approach allows you to inspect the content of this traffic without the malware's private key?

A.Use an SSL/TLS intercepting proxy
B.Use Nmap to scan for open ports
C.Use Wireshark to brute force the key
D.Analyze the payload in a debugger
AnswerA

Interception proxies act as a man-in-the-middle to decrypt traffic.

Why this answer

Using a transparent SSL/TLS proxy (like an intercepting proxy) allows the analyst to decrypt traffic if the certificate is trusted by the client.

123
MCQeasy

You are defining log retention policies. According to general compliance standards like PCI-DSS, what is the primary requirement for log retention?

A.Archive all logs in a local text file format only
B.Retain logs for exactly 30 days
C.Keep logs for one year, with 3 months immediately available
D.Delete logs after they are indexed in the SIEM
AnswerC

This meets the core PCI-DSS requirement for auditability.

Why this answer

PCI-DSS requires at least one year of retention, with at least three months of logs immediately available for analysis.

124
MCQmedium

You need to export a PCAP for a suspicious network flow. Using Wireshark, which filter would you use to isolate traffic from a specific suspicious source IP 192.168.1.50?

A.ip.addr == 192.168.1.50
B.src.ip == 192.168.1.50
C.ip.src == 192.168.1.50
D.filter: 192.168.1.50
AnswerC

This correctly filters for source traffic only.

Why this answer

The 'ip.src' filter isolates traffic originating from the specified source IP.

125
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key components of a successful SIEM use case development process?

Select 2 answers
A.Automating the deletion of all logs after 24 hours.
B.Testing the rule against historical data before moving to production.
C.Mapping the use case to a specific MITRE ATT&CK technique.
D.Disabling all firewall logging to save disk space.
E.Assigning the development task to the marketing team.
AnswersB, C

Backtesting validates the rule logic.

Why this answer

Aligning to threat frameworks (like MITRE ATT&CK) and testing against historical data are the pillars of effective use case engineering.

126
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions should an analyst take when reviewing an alert that has been flagged as a 'False Positive' in the SIEM?

Select 2 answers
A.Ignore the alert without closure
B.Document the rationale for closure
C.Delete the original event log
D.Update the correlation rule logic
E.Request a new SIEM license
AnswersB, D

Ensures auditability.

Why this answer

Proper handling of false positives involves documenting the finding and updating the rule to prevent re-occurrence.

127
MCQmedium

You receive an alert for 'Account Lockout'. You check the logs and see 10 failures in 1 second. What does this suggest?

A.The server is overheating.
B.A user is having a bad day.
C.An automated process or script is likely involved.
D.The SIEM is broken.
AnswerC

Human typing cannot produce 10 failures per second.

Why this answer

Rapid-fire failures usually indicate a script or bot, rather than a human user.

128
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary components of a SIEM architecture?

Select 2 answers
A.Desktop Firewall.
B.Email Gateway.
C.Network Router.
D.Log Collector.
E.SIEM Management/Analytics Engine.
AnswersD, E

Collectors ingest data.

Why this answer

Collectors and the central analytics engine are core components.

129
MCQmedium

You are reviewing a SIEM alert and see a 'Successful login' from an unusual location. What is the next logical action?

A.Contact the user to verify if they are traveling.
B.Disable the user's account immediately.
C.Reformat the user's laptop.
D.Shut down the entire domain.
AnswerA

Direct verification is the most efficient triage step.

Why this answer

Verifying with the user is a quick way to confirm if the login was legitimate.

130
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an IOC (Indicator of Compromise) in an incident?

A.To validate and scope the threat
B.To communicate with law enforcement
C.To prevent future incidents
D.To manage system backups
AnswerA

IOCs provide empirical evidence to confirm and trace a threat.

Why this answer

IOCs act as signatures or artifacts that help confirm the presence of a threat.

131
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst is tasked with reducing 'alert fatigue' by categorizing alerts based on their MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping. Which phase of the incident response lifecycle is the analyst performing?

A.Alert Triage and Prioritization
B.Vulnerability Assessment
C.Correlation Rule Development
D.Incident Eradication
E.Log Retention Analysis
AnswerA

Categorizing alerts by technique is a standard triage activity.

Why this answer

Triage and prioritization involve categorizing and assessing the urgency of alerts to focus on the most critical threats.

132
MCQmedium

You suspect an attacker is using a specific user account to log in from multiple geographic locations simultaneously. Which SIEM capability allows you to detect this?

A.Correlation rule using user and location attributes.
B.Vulnerability scanning.
C.Log compression.
D.Full packet capture.
AnswerA

Comparing geographic data for a single user is a classic use case.

Why this answer

User Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) and correlation rules are designed to detect impossible travel or multiple concurrent logins.

133
MCQeasy

An analyst notices a spike in outbound traffic to a known sinkhole IP address. What does this indicate?

A.An attempted DDoS attack
B.A network misconfiguration
C.A successful data exfiltration
D.A compromised host attempting to reach a C2
AnswerD

The host is infected and is 'calling home' to a now-captured domain.

Why this answer

Sinkholes are used by security researchers to intercept traffic from infected hosts that are trying to contact a C2 domain.

134
MCQhard

You are configuring an EDR tool to detect potential credential dumping. Which specific behavioral indicator is most effective at identifying an attacker attempting to access the LSASS process memory?

A.Failed login attempts to the local administrator account
B.Process access requests to lsass.exe from an unauthorized or unsigned process
C.Increased CPU usage on the Domain Controller
D.Modification of registry keys in HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM
AnswerB

Unauthorized access to lsass.exe memory is a high-fidelity indicator of credential theft.

Why this answer

Accessing the memory space of lsass.exe is the standard indicator of credential dumping tools like Mimikatz.

135
MCQeasy

What is the primary goal of the 'Eradication' phase in the Incident Response lifecycle?

A.Identifying the source
B.Eliminating the threat
C.Blocking traffic
D.Restoring backups
AnswerB

Eradication removes the threat completely.

Why this answer

Eradication is intended to remove the root cause and all remnants of the threat from the environment.

136
MCQhard

In IBM QRadar, you notice that a specific log source is not contributing to offense creation. Upon checking the 'Log Activity' tab, you see events are being parsed but are not mapped to any QID. What is the next logical step?

A.Create a custom DSM and map the event IDs to existing QIDs.
B.Increase the storage allocation for the log source.
C.Upgrade the firmware on the log source.
D.Restart the Event Processor service.
AnswerA

Correct mapping is required for the correlation engine to interpret the logs.

Why this answer

QID mapping ensures that normalized events are correctly classified for correlation.

137
MCQmedium

An organization has a SIEM and is struggling with 'alert fatigue.' What proactive measure should the SOC manager implement to improve the Signal-to-Noise ratio?

A.Increase the retention period for all raw log data
B.Lower the threshold for all IDS alerts to catch more threats
C.Implement multi-stage correlation rules that require high-confidence indicators to fire
D.Outsource all monitoring to a managed security provider
AnswerC

Reducing reliance on single-event triggers lowers noise while maintaining effective detection.

Why this answer

Refining correlation rules to require multiple conditions (e.g., authentication failure followed by success) significantly improves alert fidelity.

138
MCQhard

You are designing a correlation rule in an ArcSight ESM environment. You need to aggregate events based on a 'SessionID' field, but the 'SessionID' is not explicitly parsed in the incoming CEF logs. What must you do first?

A.Create a new 'Active List' to store the unparsed data.
B.Use the 'regex' operator within the rule condition itself.
C.Enable 'Event Forwarding' on the ESM manager.
D.Modify the device-side agent parser or the FlexConnector map file to extract the 'SessionID' field.
AnswerD

Parsing must occur at the ingest/agent level before the field is available for rule logic.

Why this answer

Before a field can be used in a correlation rule, it must be mapped to a Common Event Format (CEF) field or a custom FlexConnector mapping must be defined to parse it from the raw log.

139
MCQmedium

You are configuring a SIEM alert threshold to reduce noise. Which metric should you adjust to ensure that only events occurring 5 times within a 60-second window trigger a high-severity alert?

A.Event Parser Configuration
B.Correlation Rule Threshold
C.Aggregation Key
D.Suppression Window
AnswerB

This allows setting frequency and time constraints.

Why this answer

A threshold configuration with a count and a time window is the standard approach for rate-limiting alerts.

140
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO settings should you prioritize when configuring AWS CloudTrail for a robust security audit trail?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable global service events
B.Enable Log File Integrity
C.Disable SNS notifications
D.Limit logs to one region
E.Encrypt logs with a public key
AnswersA, B

Ensures events from all regions are captured.

Why this answer

Enabling global service events and log file integrity ensure that all actions are captured and that logs remain tamper-proof.

141
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of normalizing logs in a SIEM?

A.To compress log size for storage efficiency.
B.To hide sensitive information.
C.To increase the ingestion speed.
D.To provide a common format for cross-vendor correlation.
AnswerD

Normalization is essential for querying multiple data sources uniformly.

Why this answer

Normalization creates a common schema, allowing for cross-vendor correlation.

142
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions should be taken immediately upon identifying an active malware infection on a workstation?

Select 2 answers
A.Reboot the machine
B.Disable the user account associated
C.Delete the malware file
D.Isolate the host from the network
E.Update antivirus definitions
AnswersB, D

Prevents the attacker from continuing to use the compromised creds.

Why this answer

Isolating the host prevents spreading; disconnecting the network allows for forensics without alerting the malware to changes.

143
MCQmedium

You are performing static analysis on an suspicious executable. You want to view the imported functions, strings, and headers without executing the code. Which tool is most appropriate for this task?

A.Procmon
B.Cuckoo Sandbox
C.PEview
D.x64dbg
AnswerC

PEview displays the structure of PE files, making it ideal for static analysis.

Why this answer

PEview is specifically designed to view the structure of Portable Executable (PE) files including headers and imports.

144
MCQhard

During a forensic analysis, you find a 'shimcache' entry indicating an executable ran from a volume that no longer exists. What does this suggest?

A.Use of removable media or virtual volumes
B.Memory corruption
C.Log manipulation
D.System update failure
AnswerA

The non-existent path strongly points to transient storage.

Why this answer

Shimcache (AppCompatCache) tracks file execution; if the volume is gone, it suggests a removable drive or virtual volume was used by the attacker.

145
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common indicators of a cloud account compromise that should be monitored in your SOC?

Select 3 answers
A.Modification of CloudTrail or logging configurations
B.Increased usage of free-tier services
C.Standard scheduled system reboots
D.Successful logins from multiple geographical locations
E.Creation of an IAM user without an MFA device
AnswersA, D, E

Attackers often disable logs to hide their tracks.

Why this answer

Unauthorized changes to IAM policies, disabling of logging services, and unexpected creation of resources in unfamiliar regions are top indicators of compromise.

146
MCQhard

In ArcSight, a correlation rule is failing to trigger despite matching event patterns. You verify the filter logic is correct. What is the most likely cause?

A.The parser is disabled.
B.The user interface is loading slowly.
C.The aggregation window is configured incorrectly.
D.The license has expired.
AnswerC

If the aggregation window is too small, events may not be counted correctly.

Why this answer

Event aggregation settings can prevent rules from firing if the conditions are too restrictive.

147
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO pieces of information are critical to include in an initial incident ticket?

Select 2 answers
A.Affected systems/users
B.The salary of the analyst
C.The color of the server rack
D.Source of the alert
E.Name of the CEO
AnswersA, D

Scopes the impact.

Why this answer

Knowing who is affected and the source of the alert is critical for triage.

148
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are effective methods for reducing alert volume in a SIEM?

Select 2 answers
A.Renaming the alert labels.
B.Changing the password of the SIEM admin.
C.Increasing alert thresholds.
D.Deleting all historical logs.
E.Suppression of known-safe, noisy activity.
AnswersC, E

Thresholding removes low-confidence events.

Why this answer

Suppression and threshold tuning are primary reduction methods.

149
MCQhard

You have captured a malicious binary and are performing dynamic analysis. You observe the malware attempting to resolve a domain that you want to intercept. Which tool allows you to simulate a DNS server response to redirect the malware traffic to a local analysis machine?

A.Wireshark
B.Netcat
C.Nmap
D.INetSim
AnswerD

INetSim acts as a service simulator for network-aware malware analysis.

Why this answer

INetSim is designed to simulate common internet services, including DNS, to study malware network behavior in an isolated environment.

150
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst is reviewing logs in a SIEM and notices multiple failed login attempts followed by a successful one from an unknown IP. Which specific IoC category does this activity represent?

A.Data exfiltration indicator
B.Unauthorized access attempt
C.Network anomaly signature
D.System resource exhaustion
AnswerB

Failed logins followed by success is a common IoC for unauthorized access.

Why this answer

This behavior is a classic indicator of a brute-force attack or credential stuffing attempt.

Page 1

Page 2 of 3

Page 3

All pages