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CCNA Server Administration Questions

16 of 91 questions · Page 2/2 · Server Administration topic · Answers revealed

76
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered best practices for securing a server's remote management access?

Select 2 answers
A.Use SSH key-based authentication
B.Enable default administrative shares
C.Allow all inbound ICMP
D.Disable unused services
E.Use telnet for remote CLI
AnswersA, D

SSH key-based authentication replaces reusable passwords with cryptographic key pairs, so brute-force and credential-stuffing attacks against remote management access fail. This satisfies the stem's best-practise requirement by removing the weakest authentication factor from server administration channels.

Why this answer

Using SSH key-based authentication provides strong encryption and eliminates password theft risks. Disabling unused services reduces the attack surface. Enabling default administrative shares increases exposure.

Allowing all inbound ICMP can facilitate reconnaissance. Telnet sends data in plaintext and is insecure.

77
MCQhard

A server has a RAID 5 array with four drives. One drive fails and is replaced. During the rebuild, a second drive reports a media error and the rebuild fails. What should the administrator do FIRST to minimize the risk of permanent data loss?

A.Run a consistency check on the array
B.Replace the drive that reported the media error immediately
C.Back up all critical data before any further rebuilding
D.Restart the RAID controller to reinitialize the rebuild
AnswerC

A failed rebuild with a second drive showing a media error leaves the array degraded with no redundancy, so any further read stress risks total loss. Backing up critical data first satisfies the stem's requirement to minimise risk of permanent data loss before attempting another rebuild.

Why this answer

A media error on another drive during a RAID 5 rebuild indicates that drive may also be failing. If another drive fails completely, the entire array and its data will be lost. Therefore, the immediate priority is to back up critical data before any further rebuild action.

Replacing the drive or restarting the controller could trigger another rebuild, risking complete array loss. A consistency check does not address the urgency.

78
MCQmedium

A server administrator is troubleshooting a Windows Server 2022 that is experiencing performance issues. The administrator suspects a disk bottleneck. Which of the following Performance Monitor counters should the administrator review to identify the average time that read and write operations take on the physical disk?

A.Avg. Disk Queue Length
B.Current Disk Queue Length
C.Disk Transfers/sec
D.Avg. Disk sec/Transfer
AnswerD

Avg. Disk sec/Transfer measures the average time, in seconds, for a disk transfer to complete. It includes both read and write operations and is a key indicator of disk performance. A high value indicates a disk bottleneck. This counter directly answers the question about average time for read and write operations.

Why this answer

Avg. Disk sec/Transfer is the correct counter because it directly measures the average time taken for disk transfers, encompassing both reads and writes. This counter is essential for identifying disk latency and bottlenecks.

Other counters measure rate or queue length, which are indirect indicators and do not provide the average time per operation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing queue length counters with latency counters; queue length indicates waiting requests, not the time per operation.

79
MCQmedium

A company has a Windows Server 2022 server that runs a critical application. The server has a single power supply. The IT manager wants to ensure that the server can continue to operate during a brief power outage and can shut down gracefully during an extended outage. Which solution should the administrator implement?

A.Install a second power supply and connect it to a different power circuit
B.Install a redundant power supply
C.Connect the server to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) with a network management card
D.Configure the server to use a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) for the operating system drive
AnswerC

A UPS provides battery backup during a power outage, allowing the server to continue operating briefly. A network management card enables the UPS to communicate with the server, so it can trigger a graceful shutdown when the battery is low. This meets both requirements: ride-through for short outages and orderly shutdown for longer ones.

Why this answer

A UPS with a network management card provides both battery backup and the ability to initiate a graceful shutdown when the battery is depleted. This directly addresses the need to ride through short outages and to shut down safely during longer ones. Other options address hardware redundancy but not power outage protection.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing power redundancy with power backup; redundant power supplies protect against PSU failure, not against a loss of utility power.

80
MCQeasy

A server administrator needs to deploy a new server that will host a database requiring high random read/write performance and maximum fault tolerance. The server has eight drive bays. Which RAID level should the administrator choose?

A.RAID 6
B.RAID 10
C.RAID 0
D.RAID 5
AnswerB

RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping, providing excellent random read/write performance and high fault tolerance. It can tolerate multiple drive failures as long as they are not in the same mirrored pair. With eight drives, RAID 10 offers both speed and redundancy, making it ideal for database servers requiring high performance and maximum uptime.

Why this answer

RAID 10 is the best choice for database servers needing high random I/O performance and fault tolerance. It stripes data across mirrored pairs, delivering fast reads and writes while allowing for drive failures. RAID 0 lacks redundancy, RAID 5 has write penalties and only single-drive fault tolerance, and RAID 6 has even greater write overhead.

RAID 10 balances performance and redundancy effectively.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming RAID 6 provides the best fault tolerance without considering its write performance penalty, or choosing RAID 5 for a database workload.

81
MCQeasy

A server administrator needs to remotely manage a Windows Server 2022 Core installation that is located in a secure data center. The administrator's workstation runs Windows 11 and is on the same corporate network. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to manage the server with the GUI-based tools available?

A.Windows Admin Center
B.Remote Desktop Connection (RDP)
C.Server Manager installed locally on the workstation
D.PowerShell remoting using Enter-PSSession
AnswerA

Windows Admin Center is a browser-based management tool that can manage Windows Server 2022 Core installations remotely, providing a GUI for many administrative tasks. It does not require a GUI on the server itself and is designed for headless servers. It meets the requirement of using GUI-based tools to manage the Core server from a Windows 11 workstation.

Why this answer

Windows Admin Center is a web-based GUI tool that can manage Windows Server Core installations remotely without requiring a GUI on the server. It is accessible from a Windows 11 workstation and provides a graphical interface for many administrative tasks. RDP to Core only offers a command line, Server Manager is not available on Windows 11, and PowerShell remoting is command-line only.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that Remote Desktop or PowerShell remoting provides a GUI, when Core installations lack the graphical shell and those tools only offer command-line access.

82
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A web server is running on port 80, but users are unable to connect. The administrator has confirmed the web server service is running. The output of iptables -L is shown. What is the most likely reason for the connectivity issue?

A.The server's default gateway is incorrect
B.The firewall is blocking incoming traffic on port 80
C.SELinux is enforcing and blocking port 80
D.The web server is not bound to the correct IP address
AnswerB

The INPUT chain's default policy is DROP, and no rule permits inbound TCP port 80, so iptables silently discards every HTTP request before it reaches the listening service. Because the web server process itself is healthy, the blockage sits at the packet-filtering layer, matching the stem's confirmed-running service with failed user connections.

Why this answer

The exhibit (iptables -L output) shows a firewall rule that drops or rejects incoming traffic on port 80, which explains why users cannot connect even though the web service is running. The most likely cause is that iptables is blocking inbound TCP/80. Other options are less likely because the service is confirmed running and the question points to the firewall output.

Exam trap

SK0-005 often tests whether candidates can read iptables output and distinguish firewall blocking from service binding or SELinux issues — a common mistake is blaming SELinux or the gateway when the exhibit clearly shows a port 80 drop rule.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an incorrect default gateway would affect outbound connectivity and responses to clients on other subnets, but the question specifically highlights the iptables output as the diagnostic clue. Option C is wrong because SELinux enforcing would typically produce an AVC denial in audit logs and would not be visible in iptables -L; the exhibit points to firewall rules. Option D is wrong because if the web server were bound to the wrong IP, the service would not be listening on the expected interface, but the question states the service is running and the exhibit shows firewall rules as the issue.

83
MCQhard

A company has a Windows Server 2022 server that runs a custom application which writes heavily to a local SSD. The administrator notices that the SSD's wear-leveling indicator shows significant wear after only six months. The server logs show frequent small write operations. Which action should the administrator take to reduce SSD wear while maintaining performance?

A.Move the application's log files to a different volume on the same SSD.
B.Enable write caching on the SSD controller.
C.Disable the page file on the SSD.
D.Configure the application to batch small writes into larger sequential writes.
AnswerD

Batching small writes into larger sequential writes reduces write amplification and the number of program/erase cycles on the SSD, directly lowering wear. This approach maintains performance because sequential writes are generally more efficient for SSDs. It addresses the root cause, which is frequent small writes, and is a recommended optimization for write-intensive applications on flash storage.

Why this answer

The most effective way to reduce SSD wear from frequent small writes is to batch them into larger sequential writes, which lowers write amplification. This maintains performance while extending the drive's lifespan. Moving logs within the same SSD or enabling write caching does not reduce the total bytes written, and disabling the page file introduces instability without addressing the application's write pattern.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any write-related optimization, such as caching or moving files, will reduce SSD wear, when only reducing total writes or write amplification does.

84
MCQeasy

A company wants to protect its Microsoft SQL Server database with a backup strategy that provides point-in-time recovery up to every 15 minutes. The database is critical and runs on a dedicated server. Which backup schedule should be implemented?

A.Use storage-level snapshots every 15 minutes on a SAN.
B.Full backup daily, differential backup hourly.
C.Full backup weekly, differential daily, transaction log backups every 15 minutes.
D.Set up database mirroring with automatic failover and full weekly backups.
AnswerC

Combining full, differential, and frequent transaction log backups allows restoration to any point in time down to the last log backup.

Why this answer

Option B (Full backup weekly, differential daily, transaction log backups every 15 minutes) is correct because full and differential backups provide a base, while frequent transaction log backups enable granular point-in-time restore. Option A lacks transaction log backups, so recovery granularity is limited to daily. Option C uses mirroring, which is high availability (not a backup) and does not protect against logical corruption.

Option D uses snapshot technology but snapshots alone are not a backup and may impact performance if taken every 15 minutes.

85
Multi-Selectmedium

A server administrator is configuring a new Windows Server 2022 file server. The server will host a share that must be accessible to both Windows and macOS clients. The administrator needs to ensure that file permissions are enforced consistently across both platforms. Which two of the following should the administrator implement? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure the share to use SMB 3.1.1 with encryption.
B.Ensure that the macOS clients connect using SMB.
C.Install Services for Macintosh (SFM) on the server.
D.Use NTFS permissions on the folder.
E.Enable Access-Based Enumeration (ABE) on the share.
AnswersB, D

macOS supports SMB natively and can connect to Windows shares. When macOS uses SMB, it respects NTFS permissions because the server enforces them based on the authenticated user's token. This ensures consistent permission enforcement. Using SMB is the recommended method for macOS to access Windows file shares in modern environments.

Why this answer

To enforce permissions consistently for both Windows and macOS clients, the administrator should use NTFS permissions, which are enforced by the server regardless of client OS, and ensure macOS clients connect via SMB. macOS supports SMB and will honor NTFS ACLs. ABE only affects visibility, SMB encryption only secures data in transit, and Services for Macintosh is obsolete.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that legacy Services for Macintosh or share-level permissions are needed, or that encryption or ABE affect permission enforcement.

86
MCQeasy

A system administrator is setting up a new server rack. The server has redundant power supplies. The administrator wants to ensure that the server remains operational if one power supply fails or if one power source fails. Which of the following should the administrator do?

A.Connect one power supply to a PDU and leave the other unplugged as a spare.
B.Connect both power supplies to the same PDU.
C.Connect each power supply to a different PDU on separate circuits.
D.Connect both power supplies to the same circuit but different outlets.
AnswerC

Connecting each power supply to a different PDU on separate circuits ensures redundancy at both the power supply and power source levels. If one PDU or circuit fails, the other continues to provide power. This is a best practice for mission-critical servers and meets the requirement of maintaining operation during a power supply or power source failure.

Why this answer

For redundant power supplies to be effective, they must be connected to separate power sources, such as different PDUs on different circuits. This ensures that a failure in one power path does not affect the other. Connecting both to the same PDU or circuit leaves a single point of failure.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that plugging into different outlets on the same circuit provides redundancy, when a circuit failure would still take down both power supplies.

87
MCQeasy

To comply with company security policies, a server administrator must disable all unnecessary services on a newly deployed Windows Server 2019. The server will only act as a file server with no web hosting role. Which service should be disabled?

A.World Wide Web Publishing Service
B.DHCP Server service
C.Server service
D.DNS Server service
AnswerA

This is an IIS component; if web hosting is not needed, it should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the World Wide Web Publishing Service (W3SVC) is part of IIS and is not required for a file server role. Leaving it running increases the attack surface. Option A (DNS Server) might be used if the server provides name resolution, but it is not mentioned.

Option B (DHCP Server) is also not specified as needed. Option D (Server service) is essential for file sharing and should not be disabled.

88
MCQhard

A server administrator is configuring a Windows Server 2022 as an iSCSI target. The server will provide storage to multiple iSCSI initiators. The administrator wants to ensure that only authorized initiators can access the storage and that data is encrypted in transit. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

A.Configure mutual CHAP and enable SMB signing.
B.Use Kerberos authentication and enable BitLocker on the target volumes.
C.Enable IPsec and configure access control lists (ACLs) on the target.
D.Enable CHAP authentication and IPsec encryption.
AnswerD

CHAP authentication verifies the identity of initiators, ensuring only authorized ones can connect. IPsec encryption secures data in transit, protecting it from eavesdropping. Together, they meet the requirements for access control and encryption. This is the correct configuration for securing iSCSI traffic.

Why this answer

To secure iSCSI storage, authentication and encryption are essential. CHAP authenticates initiators, preventing unauthorized access. IPsec encrypts data in transit, ensuring confidentiality.

Other options either use inappropriate protocols (SMB, Kerberos) or only provide partial security (ACLs without authentication).

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing protocols—using SMB signing or BitLocker, which do not apply to iSCSI in-transit encryption or initiator authentication.

89
MCQmedium

A server administrator is configuring a new Windows Server 2022 server that will host a database. The database requires high write performance and low latency. The server has four 800 GB SSDs and a hardware RAID controller with a 2 GB battery-backed write cache. Which RAID level should the administrator choose to meet the performance requirements while providing redundancy?

A.RAID 0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 6
D.RAID 10
AnswerD

RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping, offering excellent write performance because data is written to multiple mirrored pairs without parity calculations. It also provides redundancy, allowing one drive per mirrored pair to fail. This meets the database's need for high write performance and low latency while ensuring fault tolerance.

Why this answer

RAID 10 provides both high write performance, due to its mirrored and striped design without parity overhead, and redundancy. RAID 5 and RAID 6 incur parity calculation overhead that reduces write performance, and RAID 0 lacks redundancy entirely, making it unsuitable for a database requiring fault tolerance.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that RAID 5 with a battery-backed cache can match RAID 10 write performance, but parity overhead still adds latency.

90
Multi-Selectmedium

A server administrator is setting up a new Windows Server 2022 file server that will host sensitive financial documents. The administrator needs to implement file screening to prevent users from saving unauthorized file types. The administrator wants to block files with extensions .exe, .mp3, and .avi. Which two actions should the administrator perform? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure a file screen in FSRM to block the specified file extensions.
B.Create a Windows Firewall rule to block the file extensions.
C.Use Group Policy to assign a software restriction policy.
D.Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption on the volume.
E.Install the File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) role service.
AnswersA, E

After installing FSRM, the administrator must create a file screen that defines which file types to block. A file screen can be configured to actively prevent users from saving files with specific extensions, such as .exe, .mp3, and .avi. This action directly implements the required restriction on unauthorized file types.

Why this answer

To implement file screening on Windows Server 2022, the File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) role service must be installed. Once installed, the administrator can create file screens that define which file extensions are allowed or blocked. This combination directly enforces the restriction on .exe, .mp3, and .avi files.

Other options either do not address file-level blocking or are unrelated to the requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing file screening with software restriction policies or firewall rules, which control execution or network traffic rather than the ability to save specific file types to a share.

91
Multi-Selecthard

A server administrator is troubleshooting a Linux server that is experiencing random reboots. The administrator checks the system logs and finds multiple entries indicating a machine check exception (MCE). The administrator suspects a hardware issue. Which of the following should the administrator do to further diagnose the problem? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Reinstall the operating system.
B.Check the CPU temperature and cooling system.
C.Run a disk check with fsck.
D.Run memtest86+ to test the RAM.
E.Update the BIOS/UEFI firmware.
AnswersB, D

Overheating can cause machine check exceptions and random reboots. Checking CPU temperature and ensuring cooling fans are operational and heatsinks are clean can identify thermal issues. If temperatures are high, improving cooling may prevent further reboots. This is a logical hardware diagnostic step.

Why this answer

Machine check exceptions indicate hardware faults. The most likely components are RAM and CPU overheating. Running memtest86+ tests memory integrity, and checking CPU temperature and cooling ensures thermal issues are not causing the MCEs.

These two steps directly address common hardware causes. Other options are either too drastic or not directly related to MCE diagnosis.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming software-related actions like OS reinstall or firmware update will fix hardware-level MCE errors.

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