52 of 127 questions · Page 2/2 · Clp Deployment topic · Answers revealed
A cloud engineer is creating an Ansible playbook to provision cloud resources on AWS. Ansible is agentless; it connects to managed nodes via SSH. Which component defines the desired state of cloud resources in Ansible?
Modules are the actual code that enforces state on cloud resources.
Why this answer
Ansible uses modules to interact with cloud APIs. AWS modules, such as ec2, define the desired state of resources like EC2 instances.
A company is migrating a large Oracle database (2 TB) from on-premises to AWS RDS for Oracle. They require minimal downtime and need to keep the source database running during migration. Which AWS service should they use to achieve continuous replication?
AWS DMS with CDC enables continuous replication and minimal downtime.
Why this answer
AWS DMS with Change Data Capture (CDC) is the correct choice because it enables continuous replication of ongoing changes from the source Oracle database to the target RDS for Oracle instance, allowing the source to remain fully operational during migration. CDC captures incremental changes (inserts, updates, deletes) from the source's redo logs, minimizing downtime to a brief cutover window. This meets the requirement of a 2 TB database with minimal downtime while keeping the source running.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse AWS DataSync or S3 Transfer Acceleration as suitable for database replication, but they lack CDC capabilities and are designed for file or object transfers, not transactional database synchronization.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because AWS DataSync is designed for one-time bulk data transfers between on-premises storage and AWS, not for continuous database replication or CDC. Option C is wrong because AWS S3 Transfer Acceleration speeds up uploads to S3 buckets over the internet but does not support database replication or CDC for Oracle to RDS. Option D is wrong because AWS Snowball Edge is a physical device for offline bulk data transfer, which cannot provide continuous replication and would require taking the source database offline to transfer data.
A DevOps team wants to deploy a containerized application to a Kubernetes cluster with zero downtime. The team needs to gradually shift traffic from the old version to the new version, monitoring error rates and automatically rolling back if errors exceed a threshold. Which deployment strategy should the team implement?
Canary gradually shifts traffic percentage, monitors, and can auto-rollback.
Why this answer
A canary deployment releases the new version to a small subset of users, monitors performance, and automatically rolls back if issues are detected, meeting the zero-downtime and auto-rollback requirements.
A company is migrating 100 TB of data from on-premises to Google Cloud Storage. The network bandwidth is 1 Gbps, and the migration window is two weeks. Which TWO services should the company consider to complete the transfer within the window? (Choose two.)
Transfer Appliance is a physical device for offline transfer, suitable for large data when network is slow.
Why this answer
Storage Transfer Service handles online transfers from various sources, and Transfer Appliance provides offline physical shipping for large datasets when network is insufficient.
A cloud architect is designing a serverless application on AWS Lambda. The function needs to process messages from an SQS queue. Which event trigger should be configured for the Lambda function?
Correct. Lambda can be triggered directly from SQS.
Why this answer
AWS Lambda can be triggered by SQS messages. By configuring an SQS trigger, Lambda automatically polls the queue and invokes the function with each message.
A cloud architect is designing a CI/CD pipeline for a containerized application. The pipeline must include stages for building, testing, and deploying to a Kubernetes cluster. Which TWO of the following are common stages in a CI/CD pipeline for containerized applications? (Select TWO.)
Build stage compiles code and creates container image.
Why this answer
Source, build, test, deploy, and verify are common stages. Monitoring and alerting are not pipeline stages; capacity planning is not a stage.
A cloud engineer is planning a database migration from an on-premises Oracle database to Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL. The migration must minimize downtime and preserve ongoing changes. Which TWO services should the engineer consider using together? (Choose two.)
DMS supports full load and CDC for minimal downtime migration.
Why this answer
AWS DMS can migrate data and replicate ongoing changes using CDC, while the Schema Conversion Tool can convert the Oracle schema to PostgreSQL.
A company is migrating 200 TB of archival data from on-premises storage to Amazon S3. The network bandwidth is limited to 100 Mbps. Which AWS service should be used to accelerate the transfer and reduce the migration time?
Correct. Snowball accelerates transfer by shipping storage devices, bypassing network limitations.
Why this answer
AWS Snowball is a physical device for offline data transfer. For large datasets with limited bandwidth, Snowball can transfer data faster by shipping the device, bypassing network constraints.
A DevOps team is designing a CI/CD pipeline for a cloud-native application. They require a deployment strategy that supports traffic shifting in small increments and automatic rollback based on health checks. Which TWO strategies meet these requirements?
Canary shifts traffic incrementally and supports automated rollback based on monitoring.
Why this answer
Canary deploys traffic incrementally and can auto-rollback; blue/green switches all at once but can also roll back by switching back to the old environment.
A company is adopting a CI/CD pipeline using Jenkins to deploy a web application. The pipeline must include steps to compile code, run unit tests, package the application, deploy to a test environment, and then deploy to production. Which pipeline stage should be configured immediately after the build stage?
Testing follows building to ensure code quality before deployment.
Why this answer
In a typical CI/CD pipeline, after build (compile) comes test (e.g., unit tests) to validate the code before proceeding to deploy.
A company is deploying a web application using Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS). The deployment manifest includes a probe to check if the application is ready to serve traffic. Which TWO types of probes can be used to determine pod health in Kubernetes? (Select TWO.)
Indicates whether the container is running; restarts if fails.
Why this answer
Readiness and liveness probes are used for health checking. Startup probes are also available but less common. ConfigMap and Secret are not probes.
A cloud engineer is using Terraform to manage infrastructure. They need to store the state file remotely for team collaboration and to enable state locking. Which TWO of the following backends support state locking? (Select TWO.)
Azure Blob Storage uses lease mechanism for locking.
Why this answer
Terraform backends like S3 (with DynamoDB), Azure Blob Storage, and GCS support state locking for safe concurrent operations.
A cloud engineer is deploying a web application to a Kubernetes cluster. The application requires zero downtime during updates, and the team wants to test new versions with a small percentage of users before full rollout. Which deployment strategy should the engineer use?
Canary deploys the new version to a subset of users, enabling gradual traffic shift and monitoring.
Why this answer
A canary deployment routes a small percentage of traffic to the new version, allowing monitoring and automatic rollback if issues arise, meeting the requirements.
A cloud engineer is deploying a serverless function using AWS Lambda. The function needs to process messages from an SQS queue. Which event source should be configured to trigger the Lambda function?
Lambda can poll SQS queue and process messages.
A cloud engineer is deploying a Lambda function that processes events from an SQS queue. The function must be able to handle a burst of up to 1000 concurrent invocations. Which configuration should the engineer set to ensure the function can scale to meet this demand?
Reserved concurrency guarantees capacity.
Why this answer
Lambda scales by increasing concurrency. The reserved concurrency sets a limit; burst concurrency is a regional limit. To handle 1000 concurrent, set reserved concurrency to at least 1000.
Unreserved account concurrency is shared.
A team is developing a serverless application on AWS Lambda. The application uses several third-party libraries that are large in size. To reduce deployment package size and enable reuse across functions, the team wants to include these libraries as a separate layer. However, the total unzipped size of all layers exceeds the Lambda limits. What should the team do to resolve this?
Container images allow larger packages (up to 10 GB).
Why this answer
Lambda allows up to 5 layers with a total unzipped size of 250 MB. If exceeded, the team can split the libraries into multiple functions or use a custom runtime with a container image. Reducing concurrency does not affect package size.
A company is migrating an on-premises Oracle database to Amazon RDS for MySQL. The migration must have minimal downtime and must handle ongoing changes during migration. The schema needs to be converted to MySQL-compatible format. Which combination of AWS services should the team use?
SCT converts schema, DMS with CDC achieves minimal downtime.
Why this answer
AWS DMS can perform ongoing replication using CDC, and SCT converts schemas between different database engines.
A company wants to deploy a containerized application to Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) using a rolling update strategy. They have defined a Kubernetes Deployment manifest. Which field controls the number of pods that can be unavailable during the update?
maxUnavailable defines how many pods can be unavailable during the rolling update.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because the `spec.strategy.rollingUpdate.maxUnavailable` field in a Kubernetes Deployment manifest explicitly controls the maximum number of Pods that can be unavailable during a rolling update. This field can be set as an absolute number or a percentage of the desired Pod count, ensuring that the update proceeds without dropping below a specified availability threshold.
Exam trap
Cisco often tests the confusion between `maxSurge` and `maxUnavailable`, where candidates mistakenly think `maxSurge` controls unavailability, but in reality `maxSurge` governs the number of extra Pods created above the target, not the number of Pods that can be taken down.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because `spec.strategy.rollingUpdate.maxSurge` controls the maximum number of Pods that can be created above the desired replica count during an update, not the number of unavailable Pods. Option B is wrong because `spec.template.spec.containers[].readinessProbe` defines a health check that determines when a container is ready to serve traffic, but it does not control the number of Pods that can be unavailable during a rolling update. Option D is wrong because `spec.replicas` sets the desired number of Pod replicas for the Deployment, but it has no direct role in managing the availability constraints during a rolling update.
A company uses CloudFormation to manage infrastructure across multiple AWS accounts. They want to deploy a common set of resources (e.g., VPC, IAM roles) to all accounts in their organization. Which CloudFormation feature should they use?
StackSets enable deploying stacks to multiple accounts/regions.
Why this answer
CloudFormation StackSets allow deploying stacks across multiple accounts and regions.
A cloud architect is designing a multi-account AWS environment and wants to deploy CloudFormation stacks consistently across many accounts. The architect needs a solution that can manage stack instances across multiple accounts and Regions from a single administrator account. Which AWS feature should be used?
StackSets enable deploying stacks across multiple accounts and regions with centralized management.
Why this answer
AWS CloudFormation StackSets allow you to create, update, or delete stacks across multiple accounts and Regions from a single admin account.
A cloud engineer is designing a CI/CD pipeline using Azure DevOps. They need to ensure that code changes are automatically built, tested, and deployed to a staging environment, and then after manual approval, deployed to production. Which pipeline configuration should they use?
Correct. Multi-stage pipelines with approval gates meet the requirement.
Why this answer
Azure DevOps multi-stage pipelines allow defining stages such as build, test, and deploy, with gates and approvals. An approval gate on the production stage ensures manual review before deployment.
A company is deploying a critical application on Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) and needs to ensure high availability and automatic scaling. Which THREE features should be configured?
Multiple nodes across zones improve availability.
Why this answer
Horizontal Pod Autoscaler (HPA) scales pods based on metrics. Node pools with multiple nodes provide redundancy. Cluster auto-scaling adds nodes as needed.
StatefulSets are for stateful apps, not high availability by themselves. Regional clusters provide multi-zone HA.
A company is migrating an on-premises MySQL database to Azure SQL Database using Azure Database Migration Service. They want minimal downtime. Which migration mode should they choose?
Correct. Online mode uses CDC to minimize downtime.
Why this answer
Azure DMS offers online migration mode that uses CDC to replicate ongoing changes, allowing near-zero downtime. Offline mode requires stopping writes during migration.
An organization wants to deploy a new application with zero downtime by switching traffic between two identical production environments. Which deployment strategy should be used?
Correct description of blue/green.
Why this answer
Blue/green deployment involves maintaining two identical environments; traffic is switched from the old (blue) to the new (green) environment via DNS or load balancer, enabling zero downtime.
An organization uses Azure DevOps for CI/CD. They need to deploy a Bicep template that creates resources in multiple Azure regions. The deployment must be idempotent and handle dependencies between resources. Which Azure DevOps task should they use?
This task is specifically designed for deploying ARM and Bicep templates, handling dependencies and idempotency.
Why this answer
The Azure Resource Group Deployment task in Azure DevOps can deploy ARM/Bicep templates and handle resource dependencies and idempotency through Azure Resource Manager.
A company is implementing a canary deployment for a web application running on AWS. Which TWO components are essential for this strategy? (Choose two.)
Needed to control traffic percentages.
Why this answer
A load balancer to route traffic and monitoring to detect issues are essential for canary deployments.
A company uses AWS CloudFormation to manage its infrastructure. After updating a stack, a developer notices that the actual infrastructure differs from the expected template. Which CloudFormation feature should be used to identify these differences?
Drift detection identifies discrepancies between the stack's deployed resources and the template.
Why this answer
Drift detection allows you to detect whether a stack's actual configuration differs from its expected template configuration.
A company manages a multi-account AWS environment and wants to deploy consistent infrastructure across several accounts using CloudFormation. The solution must support updates to the infrastructure and detect configuration drift. Which TWO CloudFormation features should be used?
StackSets enable deployments across multiple accounts.
Why this answer
StackSets allow deploying stacks across multiple accounts and regions. Drift detection identifies changes made outside CloudFormation. Change sets preview changes but are not specific to multi-account.
An engineer is deploying a Kubernetes application on EKS and needs to ensure that pods are only considered healthy after a startup delay, and that traffic stops to unhealthy pods. Which two probe types should be configured in the deployment manifest?
Readiness controls traffic; liveness handles restarts.
Why this answer
Readiness probes determine if a pod is ready to serve traffic; liveness probes determine if a pod is healthy and should be restarted. Both are needed for robust health checking.
A cloud engineer is writing a Terraform configuration to deploy an AWS EC2 instance. Which file extension is typically used for Terraform configuration files written in HCL?
.tf is the correct extension for Terraform HCL files.
Why this answer
Terraform uses the .tf extension for HCL configuration files.
An organization uses a CI/CD pipeline with Jenkins. The pipeline includes stages: source, build, test, deploy, and verify. During the deploy stage, the team wants to automatically roll back if the verify stage fails. Which Jenkins feature supports this?
Post-build actions can execute scripts on failure, enabling rollback.
Why this answer
In Jenkins, post-build actions allow you to define tasks that run after the build completes, such as triggering a rollback script. This feature directly supports automatic rollback if a later stage (like verify) fails, as the rollback can be configured as a post-build action. Option D refers to the declarative pipeline's 'post' section, which is a newer syntax but not specifically called 'post-build actions' in Jenkins terminology.
The correct answer is C because 'Post-build actions with rollback script' is the feature that enables automatic rollback after a failure.
A company uses Terraform to manage infrastructure as code. After running terraform apply, the state file is stored locally. The team wants to enable collaboration by storing state remotely with locking to prevent concurrent modifications. Which backend should be configured?
S3 backend with DynamoDB table for locking is a standard approach for team collaboration.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because S3 provides a scalable, durable remote backend for Terraform state, and DynamoDB locking prevents concurrent modifications by acquiring a lock via a DynamoDB table before state operations. This combination is the standard AWS-native solution for team collaboration, as it supports state versioning, encryption, and consistent locking via DynamoDB's conditional writes.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may choose Consul or HTTP thinking they support locking, but Cisco tests the specific requirement for a fully managed, AWS-native solution with built-in locking, which only S3 with DynamoDB provides among the options.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because Consul is a valid remote backend but is not the recommended choice for AWS environments; it requires running a Consul cluster and does not natively integrate with AWS services like S3 for state storage. Option B is wrong because the HTTP backend is a generic REST-based backend that does not support state locking natively; it requires a custom server implementation to handle locking, making it unsuitable for simple collaboration. Option D is wrong because the local backend stores state on the local filesystem, which prevents any form of remote collaboration and lacks locking mechanisms entirely.
A company is migrating 100 TB of data from an on-premises NAS to Amazon S3. The network bandwidth is limited to 100 Mbps, and the transfer must complete within 30 days. Which service should the company use to meet the deadline?
Snowball physically ships data, bypassing network limits.
Why this answer
At 100 Mbps, transferring 100 TB would take about 100 days over the network. AWS Snowball is a physical device for offline transfer, much faster. DataSync and S3 Transfer Acceleration still rely on network bandwidth.
A cloud engineer is using Ansible to automate cloud resource provisioning. Which statement about Ansible is true?
Ansible playbooks are written in YAML format.
Why this answer
Ansible is agentless, meaning it does not require any software to be installed on managed nodes; it uses SSH or WinRM to connect and execute tasks.
A cloud administrator is writing an Ansible playbook to provision cloud resources. The administrator wants to ensure that the playbook can run without requiring any agent software on the target machines. Which Ansible feature enables this agentless operation?
SSH is agentless.
Why this answer
Ansible connects via SSH (or WinRM) by default, no agent needed. Pull mode requires an agent, modules are code units, and inventory lists hosts.
A DevOps team uses Jenkins for CI/CD. They want to automatically deploy containerized applications to a Kubernetes cluster. Which Jenkins feature or plugin can integrate with Kubernetes to manage deployments?
The Kubernetes plugin enables Jenkins to dynamically create agents in Kubernetes and deploy workloads.
Why this answer
The Kubernetes plugin for Jenkins allows Jenkins agents to be dynamically provisioned as pods within a Kubernetes cluster, enabling automated deployment of containerized applications. It integrates directly with the Kubernetes API to manage deployments, services, and other resources, making it the correct choice for this scenario.
Exam trap
Cisco often tests the distinction between Jenkins features that define pipeline logic (like Declarative Pipeline) and plugins that provide external integrations (like the Kubernetes plugin), leading candidates to confuse syntax with integration capabilities.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because Jenkins Declarative Pipeline is a syntax for defining CI/CD pipelines, not a plugin that integrates with Kubernetes for deployment management. Option B is wrong because Jenkins Blue Ocean is a user interface redesign for Jenkins, providing a modern UI but no native Kubernetes integration or deployment capabilities. Option C is wrong because Jenkins Multibranch Pipeline is a feature that automatically creates pipelines for multiple branches in a repository, but it does not provide Kubernetes-specific deployment integration.
A cloud engineer is designing a deployment strategy for a web application that requires zero downtime. The engineer has set up two identical production environments, one active and one idle. After deploying the new version to the idle environment, the engineer switches the DNS record to point to the idle environment. This deployment method is known as:
Blue/green uses two environments and a switch.
Why this answer
Blue/green deployment involves two environments (blue = current, green = new) and switching traffic via DNS or load balancer. Canary and rolling deploy gradually, while A/B testing is for feature comparison.
A cloud engineer is writing an Ansible playbook to provision virtual machines in Azure. The playbook includes a task that uses the 'azure_rm_virtualmachine' module. Which of the following best describes Ansible's architecture in this scenario?
Correct. Ansible connects to targets without installing agents.
Why this answer
Ansible is agentless and connects via SSH or WinRM. It is not agent-based; it does not require Python on the control node only; it is not a managed service.
A cloud architect is designing a Kubernetes deployment for a stateless web application. The application must be highly available and automatically recover from failures. Which THREE components are required to achieve this? (Select 3)
Correct. Deployment manages replica sets and ensures desired state.
Why this answer
A Deployment manages replicas and supports rolling updates. A Service provides stable networking to the pods. Readiness probes ensure only healthy pods receive traffic.
ConfigMaps and StatefulSets are not required for stateless HA.
A DevOps team is implementing a canary deployment for a microservice running on Amazon ECS. They want to gradually shift 10% of traffic to the new version and automatically roll back if error rates exceed 1% in 5 minutes. Which combination of services should they use?
CodeDeploy supports canary deployments and integrates with CloudWatch alarms for automatic rollback.
Why this answer
AWS CodeDeploy natively supports canary deployments for Amazon ECS, allowing you to specify a traffic shift percentage (e.g., 10%) and integrate with CloudWatch alarms to automatically trigger a rollback when error rates exceed a defined threshold (e.g., 1% over 5 minutes). This combination directly fulfills the gradual traffic shifting and automated rollback requirements without custom scripting.
Exam trap
Cisco often tests the misconception that any orchestration service (like Step Functions) is equivalent to a native deployment service, but the key is that CodeDeploy provides built-in traffic shifting and alarm-based rollback without custom code, which is the exact requirement in the question.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because AWS CloudFormation and SSM are infrastructure provisioning and management tools; they do not provide built-in traffic shifting or automated rollback based on error rate thresholds for ECS deployments. Option B is wrong because AWS Lambda and Step Functions can orchestrate custom deployment logic but require significant custom code to implement traffic shifting and alarm-based rollback, whereas CodeDeploy offers this natively. Option D is wrong because AWS Elastic Beanstalk is a PaaS service that does not support canary deployments for ECS microservices, and Route 53 is a DNS service that cannot shift traffic at the application load balancer level for ECS tasks.
A cloud engineer is managing infrastructure as code using Terraform. Which command should be run to preview changes before applying them to the cloud environment?
Correct. It shows the execution plan without making any changes.
Why this answer
The terraform plan command creates an execution plan, showing what actions Terraform will take to change the infrastructure. It is used as a dry run before applying changes.
A DevOps team is deploying a containerized application to Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE). The team wants to automate the deployment of the application along with its dependencies, such as ConfigMaps and Services, using a single package. Which tool should the team use?
Helm packages Kubernetes resources as charts.
Why this answer
Helm charts package Kubernetes resources into a single deployable unit. Docker Compose is for local development, not production. kubectl apply can apply manifests but not as a package manager. Kustomize overlays but not package management.
A cloud engineer is writing Terraform code to provision AWS resources. They need to define the cloud provider and authentication details. Which block should they use in their HCL configuration?
The provider block configures the cloud provider and authentication.
Why this answer
In Terraform, the provider block is used to configure the cloud provider (e.g., AWS, Azure, GCP) and specify authentication settings such as region and credentials.
A company is migrating on-premises storage to Google Cloud Storage (GCS) using Storage Transfer Service. The source is an on-premises NAS with 100 TB of data. Which THREE considerations are relevant for this migration? (Select THREE.)
Storage Transfer Service supports recurring transfers for continuous synchronization.
Why this answer
Storage Transfer Service supports online transfers from sources like Amazon S3, HTTP/HTTPS, and on-premises via a staging area. Bandwidth, data integrity, and transfer time are key considerations.
A cloud architect is designing a CI/CD pipeline for a microservices application deployed on AWS. The pipeline should include stages for source code checkout, building, testing, and deploying to production. Which TWO of the following tools are suitable for implementing this pipeline?
GitHub Actions can create workflows for CI/CD.
Why this answer
GitHub Actions and AWS CodePipeline are both CI/CD services that can manage the entire pipeline lifecycle. Terraform and CloudFormation are IaC tools, and Docker is a containerization tool.
A cloud architect is designing a serverless application using Azure Functions. The function must process messages from an Azure Storage Queue. How should the architect configure the trigger?
Queue trigger is designed for Azure Storage Queue messages.
Why this answer
The correct answer is C because Azure Functions natively supports a Queue trigger that automatically polls an Azure Storage Queue for new messages and executes the function code when a message is detected. This is the simplest and most efficient way to process messages from a Storage Queue without custom polling logic.
Exam trap
Cisco often tests the distinction between native triggers (Queue trigger) and event-driven triggers (Event Grid, Blob), so candidates may mistakenly choose Event Grid because it is event-driven, but it does not directly integrate with Storage Queues without custom event subscriptions.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because a Blob trigger is designed to respond to blob storage events (e.g., new or updated blobs), not queue messages. Option B is wrong because an Event Grid trigger handles events from Azure Event Grid, which is a separate event routing service, not a direct queue message source. Option D is wrong because an HTTP trigger with queue polling would require custom code to poll the queue, which defeats the purpose of using a built-in trigger and adds unnecessary complexity.
A company is migrating a 50 TB on-premises database to AWS RDS with minimal downtime. They plan to use AWS DMS with ongoing change data capture (CDC). Which additional AWS service should be used to handle the initial full load efficiently before enabling CDC replication?
Snowball Edge can physically transfer large data sets, then DMS continues with CDC.
Why this answer
AWS DMS can use Snowball Edge for large initial loads to avoid lengthy network transfers. S3 Transfer Acceleration speeds up uploads but is not optimal for 50 TB initial load. Database Migration Service is the tool itself.
DataSync is for file storage, not databases.
An organization is implementing a canary deployment strategy for a microservice running on Kubernetes. The deployment should automatically roll back if the error rate exceeds 2% within the first 5 minutes. Which THREE components are essential for implementing this strategy? (Choose three.)
Service mesh can route a percentage of traffic to the canary version.
Why this answer
To implement canary with automatic rollback, you need a traffic split mechanism (service mesh), monitoring (Prometheus), and progressive delivery tool (Flagger).
An organization uses Azure DevOps for CI/CD. They want to implement a deployment strategy where a new version of an application is deployed to a small subset of users (e.g., 5%) and if no errors are detected, the percentage is gradually increased to 100%. Which deployment strategy should they use?
Canary releases traffic to a small percentage and increases gradually.
Why this answer
Canary deployment releases to a small subset and gradually increases traffic while monitoring.
A DevOps team uses CloudFormation to manage multi-account infrastructure. They need to deploy a common set of resources across multiple AWS accounts in an organization. Which CloudFormation feature should they use?
StackSets enable cross-account, cross-region deployments.
Why this answer
CloudFormation StackSets allow you to deploy stacks across multiple accounts and regions from a single template, ideal for multi-account scenarios.
A company needs to transfer 200 TB of data from an on-premises NAS to Amazon S3 over the internet within 5 days. The available bandwidth is 1 Gbps. Which AWS service should be used to accelerate the transfer?
DataSync accelerates online transfers with parallel operations.
Why this answer
AWS DataSync can accelerate transfers over the internet using parallel multi-threading and compression. Snowball would be faster for 200 TB, but the question specifies over the internet. DataSync is optimized for network transfers.
A team uses Terraform to manage infrastructure. After running terraform apply, the state file is stored in an S3 backend with DynamoDB locking. During a subsequent terraform plan, the team notices that the state file shows resources that no longer exist in the cloud. Which command should the team run to reconcile the state with the actual cloud resources?
Refresh updates the state file to reflect the current state of real-world resources.
Why this answer
Terraform import is used to bring existing resources under Terraform management, but if resources are missing, terraform refresh updates the state to match reality.
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