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CCNA Configuration Questions

33 of 108 questions · Page 2/2 · Configuration · Answers revealed

76
MCQmedium

An Identity Policy is configured on the FMC to authenticate users connecting through the FTD. The administrator wants to use Active Directory as the identity source. Which mechanism must be configured to map user IP addresses to usernames without requiring explicit web authentication?

A.Captive Portal
B.Passive Authentication via AD Agent or ISE
C.Local User Database
D.RADIUS Server Authentication
AnswerB

Passive authentication monitors directory server logs or agents to map user IP addresses to usernames without user intervention.

Why this answer

Passive authentication utilizes the Cisco User Agent or Firepower Identity Services Engine (ISE) / AD agent to map IP addresses to usernames transparently.

77
MCQmedium

An FTD device is deployed behind a service provider router that performs NAT, meaning the external IP address assigned to the FTD's outside interface changes dynamically via DHCP. How should a Manual NAT rule be configured to handle outbound traffic referencing this dynamic outside IP?

A.Configure Auto NAT with a translated network object set to dynamic.
B.Use a static IP address object matching the expected DHCP lease.
C.Use Identity NAT with dynamic DHCP options.
D.Configure Dynamic PAT using the Outside Interface as the translated address.
AnswerD

Dynamic PAT translates outbound traffic to the outside interface's current address, so the rule automatically tracks the DHCP-assigned IP without hard-coding it. Static NAT or manual address entries would break when the dynamic address changes, failing outbound connectivity.

Why this answer

When the outside interface IP is dynamic, Manual NAT can use the interface itself as the translated address (Interface PAT).

78
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Prefilter Policy configured on an FMC. Which THREE actions are available when creating a rule in a Prefilter Policy? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Decrypt - Resign (intercept and re-sign SSL certificate)
B.Inspect with Snort 3 Intrusion Prevention
C.Slow Path (send traffic through normal inspection pipeline)
D.Block (drop traffic immediately)
E.Fast Path (bypass inspection and fast-forward traffic)
AnswersC, D, E

Slow Path forwards matching traffic into the normal inspection pipeline, where access control, intrusion, and file policies evaluate it. This satisfies the requirement to explicitly designate traffic for full analysis rather than bypassing or dropping it at the prefilter stage.

Why this answer

In an FMC Prefilter Policy, each rule can take one of three actions: Block, which drops matching traffic immediately without further inspection (option D); Fast Path, which bypasses the inspection pipeline and fast-forwards traffic (option E); and Slow Path, which sends traffic through the normal inspection pipeline for further analysis (option C). These three actions are the only ones available at the prefilter stage, which exists to reduce the load on the Snort inspection engine by handling traffic before it reaches the access control policy. Option A (Decrypt - Resign) is an SSL policy action, not a prefilter rule action, and option B (Inspect with Snort 3 Intrusion Prevention) is an access control rule action, so neither belongs in a Prefilter Policy rule.

Exam trap

The trap is mixing up Prefilter actions with SSL Decryption or Access Control actions — candidates often pick 'Decrypt - Resign' or 'Inspect with Snort' because they sound like inspection actions, but they belong to different policies.

79
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring a new Access Control Policy on the Firepower Management Center and needs to add a rule that blocks peer-to-peer file sharing applications regardless of port. Which rule type should the administrator select?

A.NAT rule
B.Identity rule
C.Access control rule
D.Prefilter rule
AnswerC

Access control rules match traffic by application identity, so peer-to-peer file-sharing applications are blocked regardless of the port they use. Port-based rules would fail here, since these applications evade fixed-port blocking by dynamically shifting ports.

Why this answer

The Access Control Policy on Firepower Management Center (FMC) uses access control rules to inspect and control traffic based on applications, users, ports, and other criteria. To block peer-to-peer file sharing applications regardless of port, the administrator must create an access control rule that matches the application (e.g., BitTorrent) and sets the action to Block. Access control rules leverage Snort-based deep packet inspection to identify applications even when they use non-standard ports or encryption, making them the correct choice for application-based filtering.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing prefilter rules with access control rules; candidates might think prefilter rules can block applications, but prefilter rules only support limited Layer 3/4 criteria and cannot inspect application payloads.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NAT rules perform network address translation and do not inspect or block traffic based on application identity; they only modify IP addresses and ports. Option B is wrong because identity rules are used to associate users with IP addresses via identity sources (e.g., Active Directory, LDAP) and do not enforce application-based blocking. Option D is wrong because prefilter rules are used for early, fast-path filtering based on limited criteria (e.g., IP, port, VLAN) and do not perform deep packet inspection to identify applications like peer-to-peer file sharing.

80
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO settings are available when configuring the 'Logging' tab in an Access Control Rule?

Select 2 answers
A.Log to Cloud
B.Log every packet
C.Log at Middle
D.Log at End
E.Log at Beginning
AnswersD, E

Log at End records the connection's termination, capturing bytes transferred, duration and close reason once the session finishes. Together with Log at Beginning, it forms the two logging options available on an Access Control Rule's Logging tab.

Why this answer

In Cisco Firepower Management Center, an Access Control Rule's Logging tab lets you choose when to generate connection events for traffic matching the rule, and the two available timing settings are 'Log at Beginning' (option E) and 'Log at End' (option D). 'Log at Beginning' generates a connection event when the connection is first seen, which is useful for capturing attempted connections even if they are later blocked or never complete. 'Log at End' generates the event when the connection closes, providing full session details such as bytes sent/received and duration. 'Log to Cloud' (A) is not a logging-timing option in the Access Control Rule Logging tab, and 'Log every packet' (B) and 'Log at Middle' (C) are not valid settings for this tab.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the specific log timing options available in the Access Control Rule Logging tab—candidates must remember that only 'Log at Beginning' and 'Log at End' (and the combined option) exist, and not confuse them with per-packet logging or cloud logging features.

81
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring a Prefilter policy to handle GRE-encapsulated traffic. Which Prefilter rule option allows handling or accelerating tunneled traffic?

A.Access Control rule with GRE protocol filter
B.SSL Decryption Policy Tunnel Decrypt
C.Tunnel rule type
D.NAT rule with Protocol Rewriting
AnswerC

A Tunnel prefilter rule matches and handles GRE-encapsulated traffic, letting the firewall inspect or accelerate the inner flow rather than the outer tunnel. This satisfies the stem's requirement by specifically targeting tunneled packets, which standard access-control rules cannot evaluate.

Why this answer

In an FTD Prefilter policy, the Tunnel rule type is specifically designed to match and handle tunneled (encapsulated) traffic such as GRE, IP-in-IP, and Teredo before the outer header is stripped. A Tunnel rule lets the administrator either block the tunnel outright or 'fast-path' it so the encapsulated payload is not inspected, which is essential for performance and for handling protocols the Snort engine cannot natively parse. This is the only Prefilter rule type that explicitly addresses tunneled traffic handling.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that any rule mentioning 'GRE' or 'tunnel' in Access Control or SSL policies can handle encapsulated traffic — only the Prefilter Tunnel rule type actually does.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Access Control rules operate after prefiltering and do not have a dedicated GRE protocol filter that accelerates or bypasses tunnel inspection — they apply to the decapsulated flow. Option B is wrong because SSL Decryption Policy Tunnel Decrypt is for decrypting SSL/TLS tunnels, not GRE or other IP tunnels, and it is a separate policy from Prefilter. Option D is wrong because NAT rules with Protocol Rewriting are not a Prefilter feature and do not exist as a tunnel-handling mechanism in FTD.

82
MCQeasy

Which menu in the FMC allows you to view the list of managed FTD devices?

A.Policies > Devices
B.Devices > Device Management
C.Analysis > Devices
D.System > Devices
AnswerB

The Devices > Device Management menu in FMC lists all managed FTD devices, showing their status, model and health. Navigating there satisfies the stem's requirement to view the inventory of FTD devices registered to the manager.

Why this answer

Devices > Device Management is the primary menu for managing all FTD nodes.

83
MCQeasy

Which option in the Access Control Policy rule allows you to define a specific application, such as 'Facebook', to be blocked?

A.Applications
B.URL
C.Zones
D.Ports
AnswerA

The Applications tab in the Access Control Policy references application detectors, letting administrators select a specific application such as Facebook for blocking. It satisfies the requirement to define a named application, unlike URL, category or user conditions, which filter by destination or identity instead.

Why this answer

The 'Applications' tab in an Access Control Rule allows selection of specific applications for blocking or monitoring.

84
MCQmedium

An administrator configures a security intelligence feed in the FMC to block known malicious IP addresses. Where are Security Intelligence feeds and lists applied in the FMC configuration?

A.Directly inside the Prefilter policy configuration
B.Under the Security Intelligence tab of the Access Control Policy
C.Within individual Access Control rules under the Source/Destination tabs
D.Under Objects > Security Intelligence > Rule Mapping
AnswerB

Security Intelligence feeds and lists are configured on the Security Intelligence tab within an Access Control Policy in the FMC. This placement lets the policy evaluate source and destination IP reputation against the feed before allowing or blocking traffic.

Why this answer

Security Intelligence feeds and lists in FMC are configured under the Security Intelligence tab of the Access Control Policy. This tab lets you apply source/destination block lists and feeds globally to the policy, with options for block, monitor, or allow actions. It is not a per-rule setting or a standalone object.

Exam trap

SNCF often tests the misconception that Security Intelligence is configured per access control rule or in Prefilter — the correct location is the Security Intelligence tab of the Access Control Policy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Prefilter Policy handles tunnel and SSL prefiltering, not Security Intelligence feed application. Option C is wrong because individual Access Control rules can reference SI lists via source/destination, but the feeds and lists themselves are applied at the Security Intelligence tab of the Access Control Policy, not inside each rule. Option D is wrong because there is no 'Objects > Security Intelligence > Rule Mapping' menu; SI objects are created under Objects > Security Intelligence, but they are applied in the Access Control Policy's Security Intelligence tab.

85
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting an SSL Decryption policy where encrypted connections are failing. The FMC logs indicate that clients are rejecting the FTD's re-signed certificate because it is not trusted. What configuration step is missing?

A.Configure a Prefilter policy to bypass SSL handshakes for those clients.
B.Import the server's private key into the FTD certificate store.
C.Enable SSL Known Key decryption for external websites.
D.Deploy the FTD's Re-signing CA certificate to the trusted root certification authorities store of all internal client endpoints.
AnswerD

The FTD re-signs intercepted traffic with its own CA, so clients must trust that CA or they reject the certificate. Importing the FTD's Re-signing CA certificate into each endpoint's trusted root store satisfies the stem's constraint that clients currently reject the re-signed certificate as untrusted.

Why this answer

When FTD performs SSL decryption via re-signing, it acts as a man-in-the-middle: it intercepts the client's TLS session and presents a certificate signed by its own Re-signing CA. For clients to accept this certificate without errors, the FTD's Re-signing CA certificate must be installed in the trusted root CA store of every internal endpoint. Without that trust anchor, clients reject the re-signed certificate and the connection fails.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing decryption modes: candidates see 'certificate not trusted' and reach for Known Key or bypass options, when the real fix is distributing the Re-signing CA to client trust stores.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Prefilter SSL bypass would skip decryption entirely, which defeats the purpose of the decryption policy and does not fix the trust problem. Option B is wrong because importing the external server's private key is only relevant for Known Key decryption of pinned/self-signed sites, not for re-signing internal client trust. Option C is wrong because Known Key decryption applies to specific external sites with pinned certificates and does not address client-side trust of the FTD's Re-signing CA.

86
MCQmedium

In the FMC, what is the purpose of the 'Network Discovery Policy'?

A.To enable routing
B.To block unauthorized users
C.To define discovery scope
D.To monitor bandwidth
AnswerC

The Network Discovery Policy defines which networks and ports the FMC's discovery function scans, plus which devices and applications are excluded. This scoping determines what managed and unmanaged hosts appear in the network map, directly satisfying the requirement to define discovery scope.

Why this answer

It is used to control which networks are monitored for host/user discovery to avoid performance impact.

87
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions can be performed by an SSL Decryption Policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Do Not Decrypt
B.Redirect
C.Block
D.Decrypt
E.Monitor
AnswersA, D, E

Do Not Decrypt bypasses inspection entirely, letting the TLS session pass through untouched. It is one of the three SSL Decryption Policy actions, used for traffic that must not be intercepted, such as financial or health sites, or where decryption would break certificate pinning.

Why this answer

SSL policy actions include Decrypt, Do Not Decrypt, and Monitor.

88
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE criteria can be used to match traffic within an Access Control rule on the FMC? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Intrusion Policy Signatures
B.Device Platform Settings
C.URL Categories
D.Applications
E.Security Zones
AnswersC, D, E

URL Categories match traffic by the reputation or category assigned to the requested URL, satisfying the criterion of matching by web destination classification. This differs from matching by application detector, IP address, or security zone, and requires URL filtering licensing and a configured access control policy.

Why this answer

In Cisco FMC, an Access Control rule can match traffic using criteria such as URL Categories (C), which let you filter based on reputation or category of requested web destinations; Applications (D), which identify traffic by application or application group via Snort/App-ID; and Security Zones (E), which match the ingress/egress interfaces assigned to zones. These three are all valid match conditions on the rule's main criteria tabs. Intrusion Policy Signatures (A) are not a match criterion — an Intrusion Policy is an inspection action applied to traffic that already matched the rule.

Device Platform Settings (B) are also not a match condition; platform settings are applied via a Platform Settings policy to managed devices, not used to select traffic in an access rule.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting Intrusion Policy Signatures as a match criterion; candidates may confuse the action (inspection) with match conditions, but signatures are not used to match traffic in Access Control rules.

89
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring a Cisco FTD device managed by FMC in a high-availability pair. The administrator must ensure that failover occurs correctly. Which TWO interface configurations are required to support stateful failover? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A management interface configured with a standby IP address
B.A dedicated failover link interface
C.A data interface configured for stateful failover
D.An EtherChannel interface bundling failover and state links
E.A dedicated state link interface
AnswersB, E

A dedicated failover link interface is required to exchange failover status and heartbeat messages between the active and standby FTD devices. This link ensures that both devices are aware of each other's state and can trigger a failover if needed. Without it, the devices cannot coordinate failover, leading to potential split-brain scenarios.

Why this answer

To support stateful failover in an FTD high-availability pair, a dedicated failover link and a dedicated state link are required. The failover link exchanges status and heartbeat messages, while the state link synchronizes connection state tables. These ensure seamless failover and continuity of established connections.

Other interfaces like management and data do not serve these purposes.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a single link can handle both failover status and state synchronization, or that data interfaces can be used for these functions.

90
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting an FTD device that is failing to register with FMC. The FTD has been configured with the correct FMC IP address, registration key, and NAT ID. Which additional setting must be verified on the FTD to allow successful registration?

A.The FTD must be able to resolve the FMC's hostname via DNS.
B.The FTD must have a default route to reach the FMC.
C.The FTD must be configured with the same NAT ID as the FMC.
D.The FTD must have the same time zone as the FMC.
AnswerB

For the FTD to initiate communication with FMC, it needs a route to the FMC's IP address. If FMC is on a different subnet, a default gateway or specific static route must be configured on the management interface. Without a route, the FTD cannot send registration packets to FMC, and registration will fail even if all other settings are correct.

Why this answer

The FTD requires a route to reach FMC. If FMC is on a different network, a default gateway or static route must be configured on the management interface. Without it, registration packets cannot reach FMC.

DNS, time zone, and NAT ID are either already addressed or not blocking registration in this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on DNS or NAT ID when the most common oversight is the lack of a default route on the management interface.

91
MCQhard

You have a large number of NAT rules. How does the FTD process them?

A.Bottom-up
B.Specific to General
C.Top-down
D.Alphabetical
AnswerC

First match wins.

Why this answer

NAT rules are processed in a top-down order until the first match is found.

92
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to group multiple existing port objects (e.g., TCP 80, TCP 443, TCP 8080) into a single object for use in Access Control Policy rules. Which object container should be created?

A.Port Object
B.Port Group Object
C.Protocol Object
D.Application Filter Object
AnswerB

A Port Group Object aggregates multiple existing port objects, such as TCP 80, 443 and 8080, into one reusable container. Referencing it in Access Control Policy rules avoids creating separate rules for each port, simplifying administration.

Why this answer

A Port Group Object is a container that groups multiple port objects (e.g., TCP 80, 443, 8080) into a single reusable object. This allows administrators to reference the group in Access Control rules instead of listing each port individually, simplifying policy management. Port Group Objects are specifically designed for this purpose in FMC.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing a Port Object with a Port Group Object; candidates may think a single Port Object can hold multiple ports, but it cannot—only a Port Group can contain multiple port objects.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Port Object represents a single port or a range, not a group of multiple ports. Option C is wrong because a Protocol Object represents IP protocols (e.g., TCP, UDP, ICMP) and is not used to group ports. Option D is wrong because an Application Filter Object is used to match applications based on characteristics like category or risk, not to group ports.

93
MCQmedium

You are defining an Access Control Policy rule to allow traffic. If you want to log the connection at the end of the flow only if it matches the rule, which Logging setting is appropriate?

A.Log at Beginning
B.Log at End
C.Disable Logging
D.Log Both
AnswerB

Log at End records the connection once it terminates, capturing the final action and bytes transferred rather than generating an entry at session start. This matches the requirement to log only when traffic matches the rule, and it reduces log volume compared with logging at both points.

Why this answer

In Cisco Secure Firewall (Firepower) Access Control Policy, the 'Log at End' setting logs the connection only when the connection is terminated, and only if the connection matched the rule. This is useful for logging allowed traffic without generating a log at the beginning of the connection, which reduces log volume and provides end-of-flow details such as bytes transferred and duration.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the logging options by presenting scenarios where candidates must distinguish between logging at the beginning, end, or both, and the trap is choosing 'Log Both' when only end-of-flow logging is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Log at Beginning' generates a log when the connection starts, which does not wait until the end of the flow and may not include final connection statistics. Option C is wrong because 'Disable Logging' would not log the connection at all, contradicting the requirement to log at the end. Option D is wrong because 'Log Both' logs at both the beginning and end, which is more than required and generates additional log entries.

94
MCQmedium

How do you identify which Access Control Rule triggered a specific connection log?

A.Check the 'Policy Name' field
B.Check the 'Device Name'
C.Check the 'Ingress Zone'
D.Check the 'Rule Name' field in the connection event
AnswerD

The connection event's 'Rule Name' field directly records which Access Control Rule matched the traffic, satisfying the need to attribute a specific connection to its triggering rule. Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center populates this field at evaluation time, so no correlation across separate rule or policy tables is required.

Why this answer

The connection event log contains a field identifying the specific Rule Name that matched.

95
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue. The traffic is being dropped by a Prefilter rule. What is the characteristic of traffic handled by a Prefilter policy?

A.It performs full IPS inspection
B.It operates at the L7 layer
C.It bypasses the Snort engine
D.It only applies to encrypted traffic
AnswerC

Prefilter policies operate before and separately from the Snort inspection engine, so matching traffic is allowed or blocked without deep packet inspection. This bypass explains why a Prefilter rule drops the connection regardless of Snort configuration.

Why this answer

Prefilter policies provide a fast path to inspect traffic without the overhead of deep packet inspection.

96
MCQmedium

When editing an Access Control Rule, which action allows you to drop traffic while simultaneously sending a TCP RST to the client?

A.Block with Reset
B.Interactive Block
C.Block
D.Trust
AnswerA

Block with Reset drops the packet and returns a TCP RST to the sender, immediately terminating the connection rather than silently discarding it. This satisfies the requirement to both deny traffic and notify the client, unlike plain Block, which drops silently and forces the client to time out.

Why this answer

The 'Block with Reset' action drops the connection and sends a reset packet to notify the sender.

97
MCQmedium

What is the result of assigning a 'Trust' action to a rule in an Access Control Policy?

A.Traffic is inspected by IPS
B.Traffic is blocked
C.Traffic is permitted without inspection
D.Traffic is decrypted
AnswerC

A Trust rule in an Access Control Policy permits matching traffic to pass without any further inspection by the access control policy, bypassing intrusion and file analysis. This satisfies scenarios needing uninspected throughput for trusted flows.

Why this answer

Trust allows traffic through the firewall without any further inspection by the Snort engine.

98
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to create a custom Application filter object in the FMC to easily select cloud storage applications in Access Control rules. Where are application filters created?

A.Devices > Device Management > Apps
B.Objects > Object Management > Application Filters
C.System > Configuration > Application Database
D.Policies > Access Control > Applications
AnswerB

Application filters are reusable objects created under Objects > Object Management > Application Filters in the FMC. Building the filter there lets the administrator group cloud storage applications once, then reference that single object in Access Control rules instead of selecting each application individually.

Why this answer

Application Filters are reusable objects created under Objects > Object Management > Application Filters in the FMC. They let administrators group applications by characteristics such as category, risk, business relevance, or tags, so a single filter can be referenced in Access Control rules instead of listing dozens of individual applications. This is the canonical location for creating custom application filter objects.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing where objects are created versus where they are used — candidates pick the Access Control policy page because that's where filters appear in rules, but the object itself is created under Object Management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Devices > Device Management does not contain an 'Apps' section for creating application filter objects; it manages device registration and interfaces. Option C is wrong because System > Configuration > Application Database only handles application signature updates and database settings, not filter creation. Option D is wrong because Policies > Access Control is where filters are used in rules, not where the filter objects themselves are defined.

99
MCQhard

What occurs when an 'Interactive Block' action is used in an Access Control rule?

A.The user receives a notification page
B.The traffic is dropped
C.The traffic is automatically allowed
D.The rule is ignored
AnswerA

Interactive Block drops the connection but returns a notification page to the user explaining the block, unlike plain Block which silently discards traffic. This satisfies the requirement to inform the user while still denying access.

Why this answer

The user is shown a page explaining why the traffic was blocked and given an option to proceed.

100
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to configure Quality of Service (QoS) on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device via FMC to limit peer-to-peer traffic bandwidth. Where must the QoS policy be applied for it to take effect on traffic traversing the firewall?

A.Assigned to Access Control Policy rules directly
B.Assigned inside Prefilter Policies
C.Assigned globally in Platform Settings
D.Assigned to Security Zones in the Access Control Policy QoS tab
AnswerD

QoS policies on FTD only affect traffic when bound to Security Zones within the Access Control Policy's QoS tab, since that association determines which zone-to-zone flows the rate limiting and prioritisation rules actually inspect and shape.

Why this answer

In FMC, a QoS policy is applied to the Access Control Policy by assigning it to security zones on the QoS tab. The QoS policy defines rate limiting and prioritization, and it takes effect only when associated with zones that carry the traffic traversing the FTD. This is the correct location for applying QoS to limit peer-to-peer bandwidth.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests where QoS is applied in FMC, so candidates who confuse QoS with prefilter or platform settings pick the wrong assignment location instead of the zone-based QoS tab in the Access Control Policy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because QoS is not assigned directly to individual Access Control Policy rules; rules determine allow/block/inspect actions, while QoS is a separate policy applied at the zone level. Option B is wrong because Prefilter Policies handle early actions like fastpath, block, and tunnel, not QoS rate limiting; QoS is not configured inside prefilter. Option C is wrong because Platform Settings configure device-level parameters such as timeouts, banners, and SSL settings, not QoS policies.

101
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring SSL Decryption to inspect internal clients browsing external websites. The organization wants to ensure that traffic to financial and health-related websites is bypassed to maintain privacy and regulatory compliance. How should this be configured in the SSL Policy?

A.Use an Intrusion Policy rule to drop packets destined for financial URLs.
B.Create a rule matching the Financial/Health URL categories with the action 'Do Not Decrypt'.
C.Add financial servers to an SSL Decryption Known Key list.
D.Configure a Prefilter policy to fast-path financial URL categories.
AnswerB

A decryption policy rule matching the Financial and Health URL categories with a 'Do Not Decrypt' action exempts that traffic from inspection while all other categories remain decryptable. This satisfies the privacy and regulatory compliance constraint without disabling decryption fleet-wide.

Why this answer

Privacy and regulatory compliance for financial and health traffic is achieved by creating an SSL policy rule that matches the Financial and Health URL categories and sets the action to 'Do Not Decrypt'. This bypasses decryption for those flows while still allowing the rest of the SSL policy to decrypt other traffic. The rule should be placed above any broader Decrypt rules so it matches first.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any policy that 'matches URLs' can bypass decryption — candidates pick Prefilter fast-path or Intrusion Policy, but only the SSL Policy's Do Not Decrypt action preserves the encrypted session for specific categories.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Intrusion Policies operate on already-decrypted or unencrypted traffic and cannot selectively drop based on URL category; they also don't address the privacy requirement. Option C is wrong because a Known Key list is for supplying private keys to decrypt specific internal servers, not for bypassing categories. Option D is wrong because Prefilter fast-path bypasses the entire access control and inspection pipeline, which is broader than needed and doesn't specifically honor the SSL policy's Do Not Decrypt semantics.

102
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to ensure that specific internal subnets are never subjected to NAT translation when communicating with a partner VPN tunnel. Which NAT feature achieves this?

A.Auto NAT Static
B.Dynamic PAT
C.Port Address Translation
D.Identity NAT
AnswerD

Identity NAT exempts matching traffic from translation by mapping addresses to themselves, so the specified internal subnets traverse the partner VPN tunnel with their original source addresses intact. This directly satisfies the requirement that those subnets never undergo NAT translation, unlike dynamic or static NAT, which rewrite addresses.

Why this answer

Identity NAT (also called NAT exemption or 'no NAT') is the feature that explicitly excludes specified source/destination subnet pairs from translation. In Cisco FTD/FMC, an Identity NAT rule is placed in the manual NAT policy with the original source and destination as both the translated source and destination, effectively creating a 'do not translate' entry. This is the standard method for ensuring VPN traffic to a partner tunnel traverses without address rewriting, which is required for IPsec/ISAKMP selectors to match correctly.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'NAT exemption' with 'static NAT' — candidates often pick Auto NAT Static thinking it means 'no change,' when in fact static NAT always rewrites addresses one-to-one.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Auto NAT Static performs a one-to-one static translation of a real IP to a mapped IP — it changes the address, which is the opposite of what is needed for NAT exemption. Option B is wrong because Dynamic PAT translates many internal hosts to a single public IP using port overloading, which would break VPN traffic that requires original addressing. Option C is wrong because Port Address Translation is a subtype of dynamic NAT that rewrites both address and port, again altering the packet and breaking tunnel selectors.

103
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components of an Access Control rule can be used to identify traffic as 'Application' based?

Select 3 answers
A.Application Category
B.Device Type
C.Application Tag
D.Application Name
E.OS Version
AnswersA, C, D

Application Category is one of the three Access Control rule components that classify traffic as Application, alongside Application and Application Tag. It satisfies the stem's requirement by letting the rule match on the category metadata Cisco assigns to the detected application, rather than on IP, port, or URL alone.

Why this answer

In an Access Control rule, traffic can be identified as Application-based by matching on the Application Name (D), which targets a specific application signature such as 'facebook' or 'ssh'; by the Application Category (A), which groups applications by function such as 'social-networking' or 'file-sharing'; and by the Application Tag (C), which matches applications sharing a common attribute such as 'evasive' or 'high-risk'. These three are the application-identification criteria available in the rule's Application column, since App-ID classifies traffic by name, category, and tag. Device Type (B) and OS Version (E) are host/endpoint attributes used for policy matching (for example in HIP or User-ID based rules), not application identifiers, so they cannot be used to identify traffic as Application based.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing application-based criteria with endpoint-based criteria. Candidates might think Device Type or OS Version are application-related because they appear in the same rule configuration interface.

104
MCQhard

You are creating a custom URL category. How do you add specific domains to this category in FMC?

A.In the SSL Policy
B.Directly in the Access Control rule
C.In the Prefilter Policy
D.Via Objects > Object Management > URL
AnswerD

Custom URL categories are populated by adding URL objects, which live under Objects > Object Management > URL in FMC. Creating the URL objects there and grouping them into the category satisfies the requirement to add specific domains, since FMC has no separate domain-list editor for custom categories.

Why this answer

Custom URL objects are created in the Object Manager and then assigned to the category.

105
MCQeasy

An engineer wants to group several FTD interfaces into a single logical zone to simplify Access Control rule creation. Where are security zones created in the FMC?

A.System > Integration > Security Zones
B.Objects > Object Management > Security Zones
C.Policies > Access Control > Zones
D.Devices > Device Management > Interfaces > Zones
AnswerB

Security zones are reusable objects stored in the FMC object library, so they are created under Objects > Object Management > Security Zones before being referenced in access control policies. This grouping lets one zone object represent several FTD interfaces, satisfying the requirement to simplify rule creation.

Why this answer

Security zones are created under Objects > Object Management > Security Zones.

106
MCQhard

You are configuring a NAT rule and need to hide the internal network behind a single interface IP. Which NAT translation setting is required?

A.Static IP
B.Dynamic IP
C.Interface PAT
D.Identity NAT
AnswerC

Interface PAT overloads the interface IP, translating many internal addresses to that single address via port multiplexing. This satisfies the requirement to hide the internal network behind one interface IP, unlike static NAT, which maps one-to-one and would expose individual hosts.

Why this answer

Interface PAT (Port Address Translation) overloads the interface's own IP address and uses unique source ports to distinguish sessions, allowing many internal hosts to share a single public IP. This is the standard hide-NAT configuration on FTD when you want to mask the internal network behind one interface address.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating Dynamic NAT (pool of addresses) with Interface PAT (single interface IP with port overloading). Candidates who pick 'Dynamic IP' miss the 'single interface IP' requirement in the question.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Static NAT creates a fixed one-to-one mapping between an inside host and a public address, which does not hide multiple hosts behind a single IP. Option B is wrong because Dynamic IP (dynamic NAT with a pool) maps inside hosts to a pool of public addresses, not to a single interface IP, and does not use port overloading. Option D is wrong because Identity NAT translates the address to itself (no translation), which is used to exempt traffic from NAT, not to hide internal hosts.

107
MCQmedium

What is the primary function of a 'Security Zone' in FMC?

A.To set bandwidth limits
B.To logically group interfaces
C.To enable routing
D.To define IP ranges
AnswerB

A Security Zone in FMC is a logical container that groups interfaces sharing identical security policies, letting rules apply once rather than per interface. This satisfies the requirement to logically group interfaces, simplifying policy management across multiple physical or virtual interfaces.

Why this answer

Security Zones allow applying the same policy to multiple interfaces at once.

108
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO components must be configured in FMC to enable User Identity mapping for Access Control Rules?

Select 2 answers
A.QoS Policy
B.Identity Policy
C.Network Discovery Policy
D.SSL Policy
E.Identity Realm
AnswersB, E

The Identity Policy binds realm, realm-to-AD mapping and active authentication methods together, then is referenced by access control rules. Without it, FMC cannot resolve user or group identity for rule matching, so it satisfies the requirement for user identity mapping.

Why this answer

An identity realm (Active Directory connector) and the Identity Policy are both required to map users to their IP addresses.

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