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CCNA Configuration Questions

75 of 108 questions · Page 1/2 · Configuration · Answers revealed

1
MCQhard

An administrator configures DNS injection and rewriting in a manual NAT rule on an FTD device. What is the primary purpose of enabling DNS translation in a NAT rule?

A.To cache DNS responses locally on the FTD control plane
B.To encrypt DNS queries over TLS (DoT)
C.To block malicious DNS tunneling attempts via Snort inspection
D.To rewrite DNS A-records returning internal server IPs so external clients receive the correct public NAT IP
AnswerD

DNS translation rewrites A-record payloads inside DNS replies, so an external client querying an internal server's hostname receives the mapped public NAT address rather than the unreachable private IP. This satisfies the stem's requirement that DNS injection and rewriting accompany the manual NAT rule, keeping name resolution consistent with address translation.

Why this answer

DNS translation (DNS injection and rewriting) in a manual NAT rule rewrites DNS A-records in DNS responses so that when an internal server's DNS reply contains a private IP, external clients receive the corresponding public NAT IP instead. This ensures clients connect to the correct translated address.

Exam trap

SNCF often tests the purpose of DNS translation in NAT, and candidates confuse it with DNS caching, DNS encryption, or DNS security inspection, rather than A-record rewriting for NAT.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS translation does not cache DNS responses on the FTD control plane; caching is not the purpose of NAT DNS rewrite. Option B is wrong because encrypting DNS over TLS (DoT) is a separate security feature and is not performed by NAT DNS translation. Option C is wrong because blocking malicious DNS tunneling is a function of Snort/IPS inspection, not NAT DNS rewriting.

2
MCQmedium

A network security engineer is configuring an FTD device managed by FMC to inspect traffic traversing a site-to-site VPN. The engineer wants to apply intrusion prevention and malware inspection to traffic destined to an internal web server. The traffic is already allowed by an access control rule. Which configuration step is required to ensure the traffic is inspected?

A.Modify the default action of the access control policy to include intrusion and malware inspection.
B.Create a separate access control policy dedicated to VPN traffic and assign the intrusion and malware policies there.
C.Enable the 'Intrusion Prevention' and 'Malware' options within the access control rule.
D.Configure a prefilter policy with a rule that sends traffic to the intrusion and malware inspection engines.
AnswerC

Within an access control rule, the Inspection tab allows you to select intrusion and malware policies. Enabling these options ensures that matching traffic is inspected by the chosen IPS and malware policies. This is the standard method to apply deep inspection in FTD access control.

Why this answer

To inspect traffic for intrusions and malware, you must enable the corresponding options within the access control rule that matches the traffic. The rule's Inspection tab allows selection of intrusion and malware policies. Prefilter policies handle early actions but not deep inspection.

The default action cannot perform inspection. Therefore, enabling these settings on the rule is the correct approach.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that prefilter policies can perform intrusion and malware inspection, when they are only for early traffic handling.

3
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring a new Cisco FTD device in FMC and needs to ensure that the device can communicate with the FMC for management and policy deployment. Which interface type must be configured on the FTD to allow FMC management?

A.Data interface
B.Console interface
C.Management interface
D.Diagnostic interface
AnswerC

The management interface on an FTD device is used for out-of-band management, including communication with FMC for policy deployment, logging, and health monitoring. It must be configured with an IP address, gateway, and DNS settings. Without a properly configured management interface, the FTD cannot register with FMC or receive policies.

Why this answer

The management interface is dedicated for FMC communication, including registration, policy deployment, and health monitoring. It must be configured with an IP address and gateway. The diagnostic, data, and console interfaces serve different purposes and cannot be used for FMC management.

Ensuring the management interface is correctly set up is essential for FTD operation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the management interface with data interfaces that also have IP addresses, but only the management interface is used for FMC communication.

4
MCQeasy

When configuring an Access Control Policy on the FMC, what is the purpose of the Default Action set at the bottom of the rules table?

A.It sets the global timeout values for all TCP connections.
B.It defines the action taken for traffic that matches no explicit rules in the policy.
C.It acts as a prefilter rule for dropped packets.
D.It forces all unmatched traffic to be sent to the Cisco Cloud for telemetry.
AnswerB

The Default Action is the terminal rule applied when no earlier rule matches the packet, ensuring every connection receives a definitive verdict rather than being dropped implicitly. It satisfies the requirement that unmatched traffic still be handled by an explicit allow, block, or monitor decision.

Why this answer

The Default Action at the bottom of the FMC Access Control Policy rules table specifies what happens to traffic that does not match any explicit rule above it. Common settings are Block (default deny) or Allow (permit), and it can also invoke an intrusion policy or send to a captive portal.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the misconception that the Default Action is a prefilter or a timeout setting — candidates overlook that it is simply the catch-all rule for unmatched traffic in the ACP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because connection timeout values are configured in the Access Control Policy's advanced settings or in the device platform settings, not in the Default Action. Option C is wrong because prefilter rules are a separate policy layer evaluated before the ACP; the Default Action does not act as a prefilter and does not handle dropped packets specifically. Option D is wrong because the Default Action does not send traffic to the Cisco Cloud for telemetry — that is not a function of the ACP Default Action; telemetry is handled by separate integrations like Cisco SecureX or Umbrella.

5
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is configuring Security Intelligence feeds on the FMC. Which TWO types of objects or feeds can be used to populate Security Intelligence blacklists? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Local user identity realm database
B.Prefilter fast-path exclusion rules
C.Custom Network/IP Lists (Objects)
D.QoS class map profile objects
E.Cisco provided dynamic feeds (e.g., IP or URL reputation feeds)
AnswersC, E

Custom Network/IP Lists are administrator-defined objects holding specific addresses or ranges, uploaded directly to the FMC. They populate Security Intelligence blacklists without relying on external reputation services, satisfying the requirement for locally controlled, static blocklists in this scenario.

Why this answer

Security Intelligence supports custom network/IP lists and Cisco provided dynamic feeds (like reputation feeds for URLs and IPs).

6
MCQmedium

You need to map internal users to specific security policies based on their AD group membership. What must be configured in FMC to support this?

A.Access Control Policy
B.Network Discovery Policy
C.Identity Policy
D.SSL Decryption Policy
AnswerC

An Identity Policy in FMC binds users to realm and group attributes, then maps those identities to specific access control policies. Group membership from Active Directory therefore determines which security policy each internal user receives.

Why this answer

Identity policies require an Identity Realm and agent integration to map user IPs to group memberships.

7
MCQmedium

An administrator is deploying a new Cisco FTD device managed by FMC and needs to route traffic between two internal networks while performing NAT. The FTD must also enforce access control and inspection policies. Which interface mode must be configured on the FTD to meet these requirements?

A.Inline tap mode
B.Routed mode
C.Transparent mode
D.Passive mode
AnswerB

Routed mode allows the FTD to act as a Layer 3 device, performing routing, NAT, and policy enforcement between networks. It is the standard mode for inter-network traffic that requires IP address translation and access control, making it the correct choice for this scenario.

Why this answer

Routed mode is required because the FTD must perform Layer 3 routing, NAT, and access control between different subnets. Transparent mode is Layer 2 only and cannot route between networks. Inline tap and passive modes are monitoring modes that do not forward traffic, so they cannot enforce policies or provide NAT.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that transparent mode can perform NAT and routing like a traditional firewall, when it actually operates at Layer 2 without IP address modification.

8
MCQmedium

What action should you take if you want to test a new Access Control Rule without impacting production traffic?

A.Delete the rule
B.Use the 'Block' action
C.Use the 'Trust' action
D.Use the 'Monitor' action
AnswerD

The Monitor action logs and evaluates traffic against the rule without blocking it, so you can observe what the rule would have denied while production traffic continues unaffected. This satisfies the requirement to test the Access Control Rule without impacting production.

Why this answer

The Monitor action in an Access Control Rule allows traffic to pass while logging it, without enforcing any block or trust action. This is ideal for testing a new rule because it does not impact production traffic—traffic is still allowed but you can see what would have matched. It provides visibility without disruption.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that Monitor blocks traffic or that Trust is a safe testing action, when Trust actually bypasses inspection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because deleting the rule removes it entirely and provides no testing capability. Option B is wrong because Block would drop traffic, impacting production. Option C is wrong because Trust bypasses further inspection and could allow malicious traffic, not suitable for testing.

9
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring an Identity Policy in FMC to enforce user-based access control. Active Directory integration has been established via User Agent, but the engineer notices that some users authenticated via remote access VPN are not being resolved to their IP addresses. Which feature must be integrated into the identity configuration to capture IP-to-user mappings for remote access VPN users?

A.FMC Captive Portal
B.Terminal Services Agent (TS Agent)
C.SNMP polling of the DHCP server
D.Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) via pxGrid or RADIUS Accounting
AnswerD

Cisco ISE supplies IP-to-user mappings for remote access VPN sessions through RADIUS Accounting and pxGrid, which the User Agent alone cannot capture because it only passively monitors Active Directory logins. Integrating ISE satisfies the requirement to resolve VPN users' identities, enabling the Identity Policy to enforce user-based access control.

Why this answer

Remote access VPN users are authenticated by the VPN headend (e.g., Cisco ASA/FTD or ISE), and their IP-to-user mappings are not learned by the User Agent, which relies on Active Directory security event log parsing on domain controllers. To capture these mappings, FMC must integrate with Cisco ISE via pxGrid or receive RADIUS Accounting records, which provide the user-to-IP binding at the time of VPN session establishment. This allows the Identity Policy to resolve VPN users to their assigned IP addresses.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the misconception that the User Agent alone can resolve all user identities—candidates must remember that remote access VPN users require ISE pxGrid or RADIUS Accounting integration to capture IP-to-user mappings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FMC Captive Portal is used to authenticate users who are not yet identified (e.g., guest users) by presenting a web login page—it does not capture IP-to-user mappings for VPN users who are already authenticated by the VPN headend. Option B is wrong because Terminal Services Agent (TS Agent) is used on Microsoft Terminal Servers/RDS to map multiple users on a single host to unique source ports, enabling per-user identification—it does not address remote access VPN user mapping. Option C is wrong because SNMP polling of the DHCP server can retrieve DHCP lease information, but it does not provide user identity mappings for VPN users; DHCP alone cannot associate an IP with a username.

10
MCQeasy

Which tab in the Access Control Policy rule editor allows you to specify the source and destination zones?

A.Ports
B.Zones
C.Networks
D.Applications
AnswerB

The Zones tab defines source and destination security zones for traffic matching the rule, satisfying the requirement to scope the policy by zone. Zones map interfaces to trust levels, so specifying them here controls which network segments the rule inspects, unlike Applications or Ports tabs which filter by service and protocol.

Why this answer

The 'Zones' tab is where you define ingress and egress zones for the rule.

11
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring a Cisco FTD device in a high-availability pair managed by FMC. Which TWO statements about the failover link are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The failover link can be shared with the management interface to save switch ports.
B.The failover link must be configured with the same IP address on both FTD devices.
C.The failover link must be encrypted with IPsec to protect state updates.
D.The failover link must be a dedicated physical interface or a separate VLAN on an existing interface.
E.The failover link must be configured on both FTD devices with the same interface type and speed.
AnswersD, E

The failover link carries state and health information between HA peers. It can be a dedicated physical interface or a VLAN subinterface on an existing data interface. This separation ensures that failover traffic does not compete with data traffic and is isolated for reliability. Using a dedicated link or VLAN is a requirement for proper HA operation.

Why this answer

The failover link must be a dedicated interface or VLAN and must be configured identically on both units in terms of type and speed. It cannot share the management interface or use duplicate IP addresses. Encryption with IPsec is not a requirement.

These rules ensure reliable state synchronization and failover.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming the failover link can be combined with management or that it requires encryption, when in fact it needs dedicated, symmetric configuration.

12
MCQhard

You are configuring an SSL Decryption policy. Which action is required to ensure that traffic to a specific financial website is excluded from inspection due to compliance reasons?

A.Do Not Decrypt
B.Decrypt - Resign
C.Bypass
D.Block
AnswerA

This allows the traffic to pass through the firewall without SSL inspection.

Why this answer

The 'Do Not Decrypt' action in an SSL Decryption policy explicitly excludes matching traffic from decryption, which is the correct choice for compliance reasons such as financial data that must not be inspected. This action ensures the traffic passes through without being decrypted or resigned, satisfying legal and privacy requirements.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing 'Do Not Decrypt' with 'Bypass'; candidates may think 'Bypass' is a valid action, but it is not an option in the SSL Decryption policy, leading them to select a non-existent action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'Decrypt - Resign' would decrypt the traffic and re-sign it with the FTD's certificate, which violates the compliance requirement to exclude the financial website from inspection. Option C is wrong because 'Bypass' is not a valid action in the SSL Decryption policy; the actual actions are 'Do Not Decrypt', 'Decrypt - Resign', 'Decrypt - Replace Key', and 'Block'. Option D is wrong because 'Block' would prevent access to the financial website entirely, which is not the goal; the requirement is to exclude it from inspection, not to deny it.

13
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE methods can be used to populate IP address objects or groups in the FMC Object Management? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Intrusion Signature ID number
B.CIDR Network subnet
C.Individual Host IP address
D.IP Address Range (start to end)
E.Mac Address OUI prefix
AnswersB, C, D

A CIDR network object accepts an address plus prefix length, defining an entire subnet such as 10.10.0.0/24 in one entry. This satisfies the stem's requirement for populating FMC objects, since CIDR notation efficiently represents whole networks rather than listing individual host addresses.

Why this answer

In Cisco FMC Object Management, IP address objects can be populated by entering a CIDR Network subnet (option B), such as 192.168.1.0/24, which defines a network block by prefix length. Option C, an Individual Host IP address, is also valid because FMC allows creating a host object with a single IPv4 or IPv6 address (for example, 10.10.10.10). Option D, an IP Address Range (start to end), is supported as well, letting you specify a contiguous range such as 192.168.1.10–192.168.1.20.

The unmarked options do not belong: an Intrusion Signature ID number (option A) is used for intrusion policy/signature identification, not for defining IP address objects, and a MAC Address OUI prefix (option E) identifies a hardware vendor prefix, not an IP address or subnet.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests which object types belong in Object Management — candidates pick unrelated identifiers like Signature IDs or MAC OUI prefixes that belong to other policy types.

14
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring a NAT rule, which THREE options are valid 'Type' selections within the NAT Rule editor?

Select 3 answers
A.Static
B.Identity
C.Virtual
D.Dynamic
E.Transparent
AnswersA, B, D

Static NAT is one of the three Type values offered by the NAT Rule editor, giving a fixed one-to-one mapping between an original and translated address. It satisfies the stem because the editor presents it as a selectable rule type, not a separate policy setting.

Why this answer

Static, Dynamic, and Identity are valid NAT types in FTD/FMC.

15
MCQeasy

Where do you define the 'Search' criteria for finding objects in FMC?

A.Devices > Device Management
B.Policies > Access Control
C.Objects > Object Management
D.Analysis > Reports
AnswerC

Correct, this page has the search functionality.

Why this answer

The Object Management page provides a search bar for filtering existing objects.

16
MCQhard

When you have multiple overlapping NAT rules, which rule is applied?

A.The rule that matches the interface
B.The rule with the lowest priority
C.The most specific rule
D.The first matching rule
AnswerD

Cisco Secure Firewall evaluates NAT rules sequentially and applies the first rule whose match criteria the traffic satisfies, then stops processing further NAT rules. Rule order therefore determines the outcome, so overlapping rules must be arranged with the most specific entries placed above broader ones.

Why this answer

The FTD matches NAT rules using a top-down approach, similar to Access Control rules.

17
MCQmedium

A security requirement mandates that QoS be applied to limit bandwidth for guest users. Where is QoS configured on an FMC-managed FTD?

A.Within the Access Control Policy rules
B.In a separate QoS Policy
C.Under the Platform Settings
D.In the Prefilter Policy
AnswerB

QoS on FTD is applied through a dedicated QoS Policy, separate from access control and other policy types. Creating one and attaching it to the relevant access control policy lets you rate-limit guest traffic, satisfying the bandwidth restriction the requirement demands.

Why this answer

QoS policies are defined as a separate policy type in the FMC and then applied to the Access Control Policy.

18
MCQeasy

Where in the FMC UI do you go to create a new Access Control Policy?

A.Devices > Device Management
B.Policies > Access Control
C.Objects > Object Management
D.Analysis > Connection
AnswerB

Access Control Policies are created and managed under the Policies menu in the FMC UI, where the Access Control sub-item lists existing policies and offers the New Policy action. This path satisfies the requirement to create a new policy rather than edit an existing one.

Why this answer

In the FMC UI, Access Control Policies are created and managed under the Policies > Access Control menu. From there, administrators can create a new policy, assign it to managed devices, and configure rules.

Exam trap

SNCF often tests FMC navigation paths, and candidates confuse policy creation (Policies menu) with object creation (Objects menu) or device management (Devices menu).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Devices > Device Management is used to register, configure, and manage FTD devices, not to create access control policies. Option C is wrong because Objects > Object Management is used to define reusable objects (networks, ports, URLs), not policies. Option D is wrong because Analysis > Connection is used for monitoring and troubleshooting connections, not for policy creation.

19
MCQmedium

What must be configured before an Access Control Rule can use a URL category?

A.URL Filtering License
B.Identity Policy
C.Prefilter Policy
D.QoS Policy
AnswerA

URL categories are populated by the URL filtering database, which requires a valid URL Filtering licence to be installed and active on the firewall. Without that licence, category-based matching is unavailable, so the Access Control Rule cannot reference URL categories as match criteria.

Why this answer

The URL filtering license must be enabled/configured for the category database to be available.

20
MCQmedium

What is the effect of changing the order of rules in an Access Control Policy?

A.No effect
B.Resets the device
C.Changes the evaluation sequence
D.Updates the device firmware
AnswerC

Access Control Policies are processed top-down, first-match-wins, so reordering rules alters which rule matches a given packet first. Moving a permit above a deny, or vice versa, therefore changes the evaluation sequence and the resulting action.

Why this answer

Rules are evaluated top-down; changing the order can cause a rule to be shadowed or never matched.

21
MCQmedium

What is the result of applying an 'IPS Policy' to an Access Control Rule?

A.It enables deep packet inspection
B.It bypasses decryption
C.It blocks traffic based on IP
D.It disables the rule
AnswerA

Applying an IPS policy to an Access Control Rule activates the intrusion prevention engine on traffic matching that rule, enabling deep packet inspection of the permitted flows. The policy inspects packet payloads against signatures and blocks malicious activity inline, satisfying the requirement to detect and prevent exploits within allowed connections.

Why this answer

The IPS policy enables deep packet inspection for the traffic matched by the rule.

22
MCQeasy

What must be done to apply a change made in the Access Control Policy?

A.Click 'Deploy'
B.Wait 24 hours
C.Click 'Save'
D.Restart the device
AnswerA

Changes to the Access Control Policy remain in a draft state until committed to the managed devices. Clicking Deploy pushes the edited policy to the firewalls, so the new rules take effect; saving alone leaves the previous policy running.

Why this answer

You must click 'Deploy' in the FMC to push the changes to the FTD.

23
MCQhard

An engineer is configuring a QoS policy on an FMC-managed FTD and needs to police traffic to a maximum bandwidth limit on an interface. Which shaping/policing parameter must be configured?

A.Traffic Policing with specified Committed Information Rate (CIR)
B.Prefilter FastPath Rate Cap
C.Access Control Rate Limiting action
D.Random Early Detection (RED) drop threshold
AnswerA

Traffic policing enforces a maximum bandwidth by dropping or marking excess packets, and requires a Committed Information Rate defining the allowed average rate. This satisfies the stem's requirement to cap traffic at a maximum bandwidth limit on the interface.

Why this answer

Traffic policing on FTD is configured via a QoS policy that enforces a maximum bandwidth limit using a Committed Information Rate (CIR). The CIR defines the average rate allowed, and traffic exceeding it is dropped or marked down, directly capping bandwidth. This is the standard mechanism for rate limiting on an interface in Cisco Secure Firewall, and it must be applied through the FMC QoS policy.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing policing with shaping or other rate-limiting features like prefilter fastpath or access control actions; candidates may think any rate limit is policing, but only QoS policing with CIR enforces a hard bandwidth cap.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Prefilter FastPath Rate Cap is not a QoS policing parameter; prefilter policies handle fastpath decisions and do not provide a configurable rate limit for policing. Option C is wrong because Access Control Rate Limiting is not a valid FTD action; access control rules can log, allow, block, or trust traffic, but they do not enforce bandwidth limits. Option D is wrong because Random Early Detection (RED) is a congestion avoidance mechanism that randomly drops packets when a queue fills, not a method to police traffic to a specific maximum bandwidth.

24
MCQhard

What is the result of using a 'Security Group' object in an Access Control rule?

A.Matches based on IP address
B.Matches based on VLAN
C.Matches based on SGT
D.Matches based on Interface
AnswerC

A Security Group object references a Security Group Tag, so the rule matches traffic by the SGT value carried in the packet rather than by IP address, subnet, or interface. This satisfies the requirement to enforce policy based on SGT.

Why this answer

Security Group objects allow policy matching based on Cisco TrustSec tags.

25
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the 'Object Management' section in FMC?

A.To create reusable objects
B.To analyze traffic
C.To create policies
D.To manage firmware
AnswerA

Object Management in FMC stores reusable definitions such as network, port, URL and geolocation objects, which policies then reference. This satisfies the requirement to create reusable objects rather than duplicating values across access control rules.

Why this answer

Object Management is where you create reusable objects for policies.

26
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring a new FTD device in high availability (HA) mode using FMC. The administrator must ensure that the HA failover works correctly. Which two interface types must be configured to support HA operation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A dedicated data interface for each unit.
B.A dedicated management interface for each unit.
C.A dedicated failover link interface.
D.A cluster control link interface.
E.A state link interface for stateful failover.
AnswersC, E

In FTD HA, a dedicated failover link is required to exchange heartbeat and state information between the active and standby units. This link must be configured on both devices and cannot be used for regular data traffic. It ensures rapid detection of failures and coordination of failover events.

Why this answer

FTD high availability requires a failover link to exchange heartbeats and a state link for stateful failover. The failover link is essential for monitoring the health of the peer and triggering failover. The state link replicates connection state to maintain sessions during failover.

Management and data interfaces are not HA-specific, and cluster control links are for clustering, not HA.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing clustering requirements, such as the cluster control link, with high availability requirements.

27
MCQhard

When configuring a QoS policy, what happens if you exceed the 'Rate Limit' set for a traffic class?

A.The traffic is redirected to another interface
B.The traffic is logged as critical
C.The connection is reset
D.The excess traffic is policed
AnswerD

Exceeding a QoS policy's Rate Limit causes the policer to drop or remark excess packets beyond the committed rate, keeping traffic within the configured class limit. Policing, rather than shaping or queuing, is the action applied to out-of-profile traffic.

Why this answer

Traffic exceeding the rate limit is policed (dropped or shaped).

28
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to configure an Access Control rule that triggers an Intrusion Policy only when specific vulnerability signatures match. Where is the Intrusion Policy assigned?

A.Under the Advanced tab of the Access Control Policy globally
B.Under the Inspection tab of an individual Access Control rule
C.Within the Platform Settings object
D.In the Security Intelligence policy settings
AnswerB

An Intrusion Policy is bound to a specific Access Control rule via its Inspection tab, so the policy is evaluated only for traffic matching that rule's conditions. This scopes intrusion detection to the vulnerability signatures the administrator wants.

Why this answer

In Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center (FMC), an Intrusion Policy is assigned under the Inspection tab of an individual Access Control rule. This allows the rule to trigger intrusion inspection only when the traffic matches the rule's conditions (e.g., specific source/destination, application, or URL). This granular assignment ensures that intrusion detection/prevention is applied selectively based on the rule's match criteria.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the location of Intrusion Policy assignment, and the trap is confusing the global Advanced tab (which sets the default) with the per-rule Inspection tab (which provides granular control).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because assigning an Intrusion Policy globally under the Advanced tab of the Access Control Policy applies it to all traffic that does not match a more specific rule, which is not the desired granular control. Option C is wrong because Platform Settings objects configure system-level settings (e.g., SSH, timeouts, syslog) and do not assign Intrusion Policies. Option D is wrong because Security Intelligence policy settings are used to block traffic based on reputation and threat intelligence feeds, not to assign Intrusion Policies for signature-based detection.

29
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO protocols are commonly managed via Port objects in FMC?

Select 2 answers
A.UDP
B.ARP
C.TCP
D.IGMP
E.ICMP
AnswersA, C

UDP is a transport-layer protocol identified by port numbers, so FMC represents it as a Port object for use in access control rules. Port objects pair the protocol with the relevant port or range when defining policy.

Why this answer

TCP and UDP are the primary protocols managed via port objects.

30
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring Security Intelligence on the FMC to drop traffic from known malicious IP addresses. Where in the Access Control Policy is Security Intelligence evaluated relative to standard access rules?

A.Inside the Prefilter policy configuration menu
B.Before Access Control rules are evaluated
C.After all Access Control rules are evaluated as a fallback action
D.Concurrently with Intrusion Policy inspection
AnswerB

Security Intelligence uses reputation and category-based blocking lists evaluated before the access control rules, so malicious IP traffic is dropped without reaching rule matching. This ordering satisfies the stem's requirement, since blacklisted sources never consume rule processing or reach later allow decisions.

Why this answer

Security Intelligence is evaluated before access control rules in the FMC access control policy. This allows the system to quickly drop traffic from known malicious IP addresses, URLs, or DNS names without having to process the full access control rule set. This pre-evaluation improves performance and security by blocking threats early.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming Security Intelligence is part of Prefilter or evaluated after access rules, but it is actually evaluated before access control rules within the Access Control Policy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Security Intelligence is configured within the Access Control Policy, not the Prefilter policy. Option C is wrong because Security Intelligence is not a fallback after access control rules; it is evaluated first. Option D is wrong because Security Intelligence is evaluated before intrusion policy inspection, not concurrently.

31
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of an 'FQDN' object in FMC?

A.To define a protocol port
B.To define a zone
C.To define a domain name
D.To define a static IP
AnswerC

An FQDN object resolves a fully qualified domain name to its IP addresses, so access control rules can reference a hostname rather than hard-coded addresses. This satisfies the requirement to define a domain name, letting policies survive DNS changes without rule rewrites.

Why this answer

FQDN objects are used to define network resources by domain name, which the FTD resolves.

32
MCQhard

When defining a NAT rule for an internal server, what happens if the 'DNS Rewrite' option is enabled?

A.The FTD forces a DNS query to an external server
B.The FTD creates a new NAT object
C.The FTD blocks all DNS traffic
D.The FTD modifies DNS responses
AnswerD

Correct, it rewrites the A-record to the internal IP.

Why this answer

DNS Rewrite modifies the payload of DNS responses to ensure clients reach the correct internal server IP instead of the NAT public IP.

33
MCQhard

If you need to block a specific file type (e.g., .exe) from being downloaded, which feature must you enable in the Access Control Rule?

A.SSL Policy
B.IPS Policy
C.File Policy
D.QoS Policy
AnswerC

File Policy is the Access Control Rule setting that inspects file attributes such as type or reputation, enabling blocking of specific extensions like .exe. Without it enabled, the rule cannot evaluate file characteristics for download decisions.

Why this answer

File policies are associated with Access Control rules to inspect and block files.

34
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring manual NAT on an FTD device managed by FMC. Which TWO parameters must be defined when creating a manual NAT rule? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Prefilter FastPath action
B.Security Intelligence Whitelist
C.Snort Inspection Engine Mode
D.Original Source
E.NAT Type (Static or Dynamic)
AnswersD, E

Original Source identifies the real internal host or subnet whose traffic is translated, forming the match criterion for the manual NAT rule. It satisfies the mandatory parameter requirement because FMC needs this object to determine which packets the translation applies to.

Why this answer

Manual NAT rules require defining the NAT type (Static or Dynamic) and the Original Source (along with other matching parameters like interfaces or destination).

35
MCQhard

You are configuring SSL decryption. To ensure that traffic to a specific financial domain is NOT decrypted due to privacy regulations, what must you configure in the SSL Decryption Policy?

A.Use a 'Monitor' action in the SSL policy
B.Configure an SSL rule with the 'Do Not Decrypt' action
C.Create an Access Control Rule with a 'Decrypt' action
D.Add the domain to the Prefilter Policy
AnswerB

An SSL rule matching the financial domain with the 'Do Not Decrypt' action exempts that traffic from decryption, satisfying the privacy regulation constraint. The rule is evaluated before decryption rules, so matching sessions pass through encrypted.

Why this answer

In Palo Alto Networks SSL decryption policy, the 'Do Not Decrypt' action is specifically designed to bypass decryption for traffic that must remain encrypted for legal, privacy, or compliance reasons. When a financial domain is matched by an SSL rule with this action, the firewall forwards the session without performing any SSL forward proxy or inbound inspection, preserving end-to-end encryption. This satisfies privacy regulations while still allowing the firewall to log the connection metadata.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the SSL Decryption Policy with the Security Policy or Prefilter Policy; candidates may think a 'Monitor' action or an Access Control Rule can prevent decryption, but only the SSL Decryption Policy's 'Do Not Decrypt' action achieves that.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a 'Monitor' action in an SSL policy still decrypts the traffic but only logs it without blocking, so it does not prevent decryption. Option C is wrong because an Access Control Rule with a 'Decrypt' action would explicitly force decryption, the opposite of the requirement. Option D is wrong because the Prefilter Policy is used for tunnel content inspection and application override, not for selectively excluding domains from SSL decryption.

36
MCQhard

An administrator configures an SSL Decryption Policy with a rule to 'Do Not Decrypt' financial traffic. However, the administrator also wants to ensure that the encrypted session still undergoes basic certificate validation and categorization. How does FTD handle 'Do Not Decrypt' traffic?

A.All inspection, including URL categorization and SNI extraction, is completely bypassed.
B.The FTD extracts SNI and performs URL categorization using the unencrypted Client Hello handshake.
C.The FTD converts the traffic to plaintext using a self-signed proxy certificate.
D.The FTD drops the connection because decryption is mandatory for any inspection.
AnswerB

Extracting the SNI from the unencrypted Client Hello lets FTD categorise the session without decrypting payload, satisfying the 'Do Not Decrypt' rule while still applying URL filtering. Certificate validation, however, is not performed on this traffic, so the stem's validation requirement is only partly met.

Why this answer

When an SSL policy rule is set to 'Do Not Decrypt', FTD still inspects the TLS Client Hello to extract the Server Name Indication (SNI) and uses it for URL categorization and basic certificate validation. The session remains encrypted, but metadata from the handshake is available for policy enforcement. This allows the administrator to apply URL filtering and other non-decryption inspections without breaking the encrypted flow.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that 'Do Not Decrypt' means no inspection at all; candidates often overlook that SNI extraction and URL categorization still occur on the unencrypted handshake.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FTD does not completely bypass inspection; it still extracts SNI and performs categorization. Option C is wrong because converting traffic to plaintext requires a decrypt rule with a re-sign or known-key action, not 'Do Not Decrypt'. Option D is wrong because decryption is not mandatory for all inspection; 'Do Not Decrypt' is a valid action that allows metadata-based inspection.

37
MCQmedium

Which object type should be used to represent a group of network subnets?

A.Host
B.Range
C.Port Group
D.Network Group
AnswerD

A Network Group object in Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center represents a collection of network subnets, satisfying the requirement to group subnets as a single reusable object. Unlike individual host or range objects, it aggregates multiple subnet entries, letting policies reference them collectively rather than listing each subnet separately.

Why this answer

A Network Group object allows you to aggregate multiple network subnets into a single object for policy efficiency.

38
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring a NAT policy on FMC for an FTD device. The requirement is to translate the source IP address of internal users to a single public IP address when accessing the Internet, while preserving the source port. Which NAT type should be used?

A.Static NAT
B.Static PAT
C.Dynamic PAT
D.Dynamic NAT
AnswerC

Dynamic PAT, also known as NAT overload, translates multiple internal IP addresses to a single public IP address while using unique source ports to distinguish sessions. This meets the requirement of using one public IP and preserving the source port (by translating it to a unique port). It is the correct choice for allowing many internal users to share one public IP.

Why this answer

Dynamic PAT (NAT overload) allows multiple internal hosts to share a single public IP address by translating both the source IP and source port. This is the standard method for outbound Internet access from a private network. Static NAT and Static PAT are used for inbound access or one-to-one mappings, and Dynamic NAT without PAT does not allow multiple hosts to share one IP.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing Dynamic NAT with Dynamic PAT; Dynamic NAT uses a pool of addresses and does not allow multiple hosts to share a single IP without port translation.

39
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to create a Port object group containing TCP ports 80, 443, and 8080 on the FMC. Where is this object configured?

A.Policies > Access Control > Ports
B.Devices > Device Management > Object Explorer
C.Objects > Object Management > Ports
D.System > Configuration > Port Groups
AnswerC

Port object groups are created under Objects > Object Management > Ports in the FMC, where individual TCP and UDP ports are defined and grouped. This location satisfies the requirement to build a group containing TCP ports 80, 443 and 8080.

Why this answer

Port object groups and individual ports are created under Objects > Object Management > Ports.

40
MCQhard

An FTD device is deployed in routed mode with multiple security zones. An administrator needs to configure an Access Control rule that evaluates traffic flowing between two different security zones. How are security zones utilized in the rule?

A.Security zones replace IP address objects entirely in all rule configurations.
B.Security zones are used exclusively in NAT translation rules.
C.Security zones are selected under the Zones tab of an Access Control rule as Source and Destination.
D.Security zones are assigned globally in device platform settings, not in access rules.
AnswerC

Within an Access Control rule, security zones are chosen on the Zones tab, specifying which source and destination zones the rule matches. This lets the administrator evaluate traffic flowing between two different zones, satisfying the inter-zone inspection requirement.

Why this answer

In FMC, an Access Control rule includes a Zones tab where you select the source and destination security zones (interface groups) that the rule should match. Traffic flowing between two different security zones is matched by specifying those zones as Source and Destination in the rule, allowing zone-based policy enforcement.

Exam trap

SNCF often tests the misconception that security zones replace IP objects or are only for NAT, causing candidates to overlook that zones are selected as Source/Destination match criteria within Access Control rules.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because security zones do not replace IP address objects; they are used alongside them as additional match criteria, and IP-based rules remain fully supported. Option B is wrong because security zones are used in Access Control rules (and other policies), not exclusively in NAT rules. Option D is wrong because security zones are not assigned globally in device platform settings; they are defined as interface objects and referenced within access control rules.

41
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE settings can be configured within a Prefilter Policy on the FMC? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Intrusion Policy signature tuning
B.FastPath action to bypass Snort inspection
C.Default Action for unmatched traffic (Analyze or FastPath)
D.Security Intelligence block lists
E.Tunnel rule handling (e.g., GRE, IPsec)
AnswersB, C, E

FastPath is a prefilter action that bypasses Snort inspection entirely for matching traffic, offloading it from the detection engine. This differs from access control rules, which pass traffic through Snort; FastPath is unique to the prefilter layer.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because a Prefilter Policy's central purpose is to let early-pass traffic skip deep inspection, and the FastPath action explicitly bypasses Snort so matching flows are forwarded without intrusion or file analysis. Option C is correct because every Prefilter Policy defines a Default Action applied to traffic that matches no prefilter rule, and that default is chosen as either Analyze (send to Snort for full inspection) or FastPath (bypass Snort). Option E is correct because Prefilter Policies include tunnel handling settings that let you analyze or fastpath tunneled traffic such as GRE and IPsec, including inspecting the outer or inner flow.

Option A is not part of a Prefilter Policy: Intrusion Policy signature tuning is configured in the Intrusion Policy itself, which the Prefilter Policy only references via the Analyze action. Option D is also not a Prefilter setting: Security Intelligence block lists are configured in the Access Control Policy's Security Intelligence tab, not in the Prefilter Policy.

Exam trap

The trap is mixing up Prefilter Policy settings with Access Control Policy settings. Candidates might think that any traffic-handling feature is part of Prefilter, but Intrusion Policy and Security Intelligence are separate.

42
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of 'Network Discovery' in FMC?

A.To push firmware updates
B.To configure routing protocols
C.To identify hosts and user activity
D.To perform active IPS scanning
AnswerC

Network Discovery passively maps hosts, operating systems, and user activity by analysing traffic mirrored from managed devices, satisfying the requirement to identify endpoints and associated users without inline inspection. It populates the network map and host profiles used for access control and event correlation, distinguishing it from active scanning or policy enforcement functions.

Why this answer

Network Discovery identifies hosts, applications, and operating systems on the network.

43
MCQhard

An FMC administrator is configuring a URL Filtering policy. They want to block URLs categorized as 'Hacking' while logging the event. Where is this configured within the Access Control Policy?

A.Objects > Object Management > URL Objects
B.Policies > SSL Decryption > URL Match criteria
C.Policies > Access Control > Access Control Policy > Rules > URLs tab
D.Devices > Device Management > URL Filtering Settings
AnswerC

The URLs tab within an Access Control rule holds URL Filtering settings, where you select categories such as Hacking and set the action to Block with logging enabled. This satisfies the requirement to block and log within the existing Access Control Policy, rather than a separate policy type.

Why this answer

URL Filtering is enforced as part of Access Control rules in the FMC. Within an ACP rule, the URLs tab lets the administrator select URL categories (such as 'Hacking') and set the action to Block while enabling logging on the rule. This binds the URL category match directly to the rule's action and logging behavior.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing object definition with policy enforcement — candidates pick 'URL Objects' because it sounds like where URL filtering lives, but objects are only building blocks; enforcement happens in the ACP rule's URLs tab.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Objects > Object Management > URL Objects only defines reusable URL objects/lists; it does not enforce block or log actions. Option B is wrong because SSL Decryption URL Match criteria only determines which traffic is decrypted or bypassed, not URL category blocking. Option D is wrong because Device Management URL Filtering Settings only configures general URL filtering options (such as the cloud lookup and block page), not per-rule category enforcement.

44
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring a Cisco FTD device managed by FMC to perform application control. The administrator wants to block social networking applications while allowing business applications. Which FMC configuration element should be used to identify and control these applications?

A.Prefilter Policy
B.Intrusion Policy
C.Application Filter
D.URL Filtering Policy
AnswerC

The Application Filter is used within an Access Control rule to identify applications and application categories. By selecting the social networking category and setting the action to Block, the administrator can block those applications while allowing business applications. This is the correct method for application control in FTD.

Why this answer

To block social networking applications while allowing business applications, the administrator should use an Application Filter within an Access Control rule. Application Filters allow the FTD to identify applications based on deep packet inspection and take action. The administrator can select the social networking category and set the action to Block, while allowing other categories.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing URL Filtering with Application Filtering, as both can control web traffic but operate on different criteria.

45
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring manual NAT and needs to specify an interface pair (Source Interface and Destination Interface). Why is defining interface objects important in manual NAT rules?

A.It replaces the need for security zones in Access Control policies.
B.It forces the FTD to convert the packet from Layer 2 to Layer 3.
C.It scopes the translation rule to specific ingress and egress interfaces, preventing unintended translations across other subnets.
D.It enables automatic routing table updates for the translated IP address.
AnswerC

Interface objects bind the NAT rule to a defined source and destination interface pair, so translation applies only to traffic traversing that path. This scoping prevents the rule from matching unrelated traffic on other interfaces, satisfying the stem's requirement to constrain translation.

Why this answer

In manual NAT on FTD, specifying the source and destination interface objects scopes the translation rule to a specific ingress/egress path. This prevents the rule from matching traffic that enters or exits through other interfaces, which could otherwise cause unintended translations of traffic that should not be NATed. Interface objects in manual NAT are the equivalent of 'interface pair' matching in classic ASA NAT, giving the administrator granular control over where the translation applies.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking interface objects in NAT are optional or equivalent to security zones — candidates who skip them often create rules that translate traffic on unintended paths.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because interface objects in NAT do not replace security zones in Access Control policies — zones are still required for ACL matching, and NAT interface objects are a separate construct. Option B is wrong because NAT does not convert packets from Layer 2 to Layer 3; that is a function of routing and the FTD's data plane, not NAT configuration. Option D is wrong because NAT rules do not trigger automatic routing table updates — routing is handled independently by the routing table, and NAT does not inject routes.

46
MCQmedium

How do you enable 'High Availability' (HA) for an FTD pair managed by FMC?

A.Under Devices > Device Management
B.Under Policies > HA
C.Via the System > Configuration menu
D.In the Access Control Policy
AnswerA

HA is a device-level configuration.

Why this answer

HA is configured in the Device Management section by selecting two devices to pair.

47
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring manual NAT on an FTD device, which THREE options are available for configuring the Translated Source? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Specific IP Address or Network Object
B.Prefilter FastPath target
C.Security Intelligence blacklist feed
D.Dynamic IP Address Pool
E.Interface (Dynamic PAT)
AnswersA, D, E

Manual NAT permits the translated source to be a specific host or network object, giving one-to-one or many-to-one translation to a defined address. This satisfies the stem's requirement by naming a concrete translated source type available in FTD's manual NAT configuration.

Why this answer

In FTD manual NAT, the Translated Source field offers three choices: A 'Specific IP Address or Network Object' lets you statically translate the source to a single host or subnet object; D 'Dynamic IP Address Pool' translates to an address drawn from a configured pool (dynamic NAT); and E 'Interface (Dynamic PAT)' translates to the selected interface's IP using PAT/overload. These correspond to the standard static, dynamic, and PAT source translation methods available in the NAT policy. The unmarked options do not belong: B 'Prefilter FastPath target' relates to prefilter policy actions, not NAT translation, and C 'Security Intelligence blacklist feed' is a Security Intelligence feature for blocking traffic, not a source translation type.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the specific options available for Translated Source in manual NAT, catching candidates who confuse NAT translation targets with unrelated features like Prefilter FastPath or Security Intelligence feeds.

48
MCQhard

A network administrator is configuring an Access Control Policy on the FMC and needs to ensure that traffic from a specific subnet is inspected by the Snort engine for intrusion prevention. The administrator wants to achieve this with minimal performance impact on other traffic. Which action should be taken?

A.Create an Access Control rule with the source subnet and set the action to Allow, then enable File Policy and Intrusion Prevention.
B.Modify the default action of the Access Control Policy to Block with Intrusion Prevention enabled.
C.Create an Access Control rule with the source subnet, set the action to Allow, and enable Intrusion Prevention under the Inspection tab.
D.Create an Access Control rule with the source subnet and set the action to Trust.
AnswerC

Setting the action to Allow with Intrusion Prevention enabled ensures that only traffic matching the rule is inspected by Snort. Other traffic that does not match this rule will be handled by subsequent rules, potentially with different inspection levels. This minimizes performance impact because only the specified subnet's traffic undergoes deep inspection. This is the correct approach to selectively apply IPS.

Why this answer

To inspect only specific traffic with IPS, an Access Control rule with the source subnet and action Allow, with Intrusion Prevention enabled under Inspection, is correct. This limits deep inspection to that subnet, reducing performance impact on other traffic. Other actions either bypass inspection or apply it too broadly.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the Trust action with Allow; Trust bypasses inspection, while Allow with IPS enables it.

49
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE criteria can be used to match traffic in an Access Control Policy rule?

Select 3 answers
A.Application
B.SSL Certificate Name
C.QoS Priority
D.Source/Destination Network
E.URL Category
AnswersA, D, E

Application criteria match traffic by identifying the specific application or application category, using Cisco's Next-Generation Firewall application detectors rather than port alone. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a match criterion in an Access Control Policy rule, letting you enforce policy on evasive applications that hop ports or use encryption.

Why this answer

Access control rules can match based on Source/Destination Network, Applications, and URL categories.

50
MCQmedium

A security engineer is creating an Access Control Policy (ACP) in FMC. The policy must block all traffic matching specific URL categories while allowing standard web browsing. However, the administrator wants users to receive a warning page before continuing to pages categorized as "Potentially Damaging Content" rather than a hard block. Which action should the engineer assign to the URL category in the ACP Rules tab?

A.Block
B.Allow
C.Monitor
D.Interactive Block
AnswerD

Interactive Block presents a warning page requiring the user to acknowledge and continue, satisfying the stem's requirement for a warning rather than a hard block. Block would deny outright; Allow would permit silently. This action matches the "Potentially Damaging Content" category behaviour requested.

Why this answer

In an FMC Access Control Policy, the 'Interactive Block' action for a URL category presents users with a warning page that they can acknowledge to continue to the site. This matches the requirement to warn users before proceeding to 'Potentially Damaging Content' pages rather than hard-blocking them. The other actions either block outright, allow silently, or only log.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the difference between 'Block' (hard block) and 'Interactive Block' (warning page with continue option), catching candidates who pick 'Block' when the requirement explicitly mentions a warning page.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Block' would hard-block the traffic and show a block page with no option to continue, which does not meet the requirement of allowing users to proceed after a warning. Option B is wrong because 'Allow' would permit the traffic with no warning page at all, failing the requirement to warn users. Option C is wrong because 'Monitor' only logs the traffic without blocking or warning, so users would not see any warning page.

51
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items must be defined to create a fully functional Network Object group in FMC?

Select 2 answers
A.Member Objects
B.Object Description
C.SNMP Traps
D.Routing Table
E.Object Name
AnswersA, E

A network object group must contain at least one member object, such as a host, network, or range, since the group exists solely to bundle them for policy reuse. An empty group is functionally useless, making member objects the second mandatory element.

Why this answer

A group needs a name and at least one member (object) assigned to it.

52
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring a Network Address Translation (NAT) rule on a Cisco FMC managed Threat Defense device. The requirement is to translate the source IP address of traffic coming from the inside zone going to the outside zone, but only for a specific internal subnet. Which NAT type must the administrator select in the FMC NAT rule configuration?

A.Twice NAT (Destination NAT)
B.Prefilter NAT
C.Auto NAT (Object NAT)
D.Manual NAT (Identity NAT)
AnswerC

Auto NAT, or object NAT, is defined on a single network object, here the internal subnet, and translates only that object's source address between the chosen interfaces or zones. For outbound internet access it is usually dynamic PAT to the outside interface address. It is the simplest and recommended way to do ordinary source NAT, while manual NAT is reserved for translations that depend on the destination or need precise ordering.

Why this answer

Auto NAT (Object NAT) in Cisco FMC is used to translate the source IP address of traffic for a specific object (such as an internal subnet) when it matches the specified conditions. It is configured within the object definition and is the simplest way to perform source NAT for a given subnet. Manual NAT is used for more complex scenarios, such as when both source and destination translation are needed or when NAT rules must be ordered.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing Auto NAT with Manual NAT, as candidates may think Manual NAT is always required for subnet translation, but Auto NAT is specifically designed for object-based source translation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Twice NAT (Destination NAT) typically involves translating both source and destination, and the requirement here is only source translation for a specific subnet. Option B is wrong because Prefilter NAT is not a valid NAT type in FMC; prefilter policies are used for early traffic handling, not NAT. Option D is wrong because Manual NAT (Identity NAT) is used for more complex NAT configurations and identity NAT does not translate the source IP address.

53
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to create a Prefilter policy to fast-path (bypass Snort inspection for) a trusted backup stream between two data centers. Which action type should be selected in the Prefilter rule?

A.FastPath
B.Monitor
C.Block
D.Inspect
E.Trust
AnswerA

FastPath bypasses Snort inspection entirely for matching traffic, satisfying the requirement to fast-path the trusted backup stream. Access Control rules instead block or allow with inspection, so FastPath is the only action that skips intrusion analysis while permitting the flow between data centres.

Why this answer

In a Prefilter policy, the FastPath action bypasses Snort inspection for trusted traffic, allowing it to be forwarded without deep packet inspection. This is ideal for a trusted backup stream between data centers because it reduces latency and processing overhead. The FastPath action is specifically designed to fast-track traffic that does not require security inspection.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the distinction between Prefilter actions (FastPath, Monitor, Block, Inspect) and Access Control actions (Trust, Allow, Block, etc.), so candidates must remember that FastPath is the correct bypass action in Prefilter.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Monitor action allows the traffic to pass but still inspects it, which does not bypass Snort. Option C is wrong because Block action denies the traffic, which is not desired for a trusted backup stream. Option D is wrong because Inspect action sends the traffic through Snort for full inspection, which is the opposite of bypassing.

Option E is wrong because Trust is not a valid action in a Prefilter rule; it is used in Access Control policies to allow traffic without further inspection, but Prefilter uses FastPath for bypass.

54
MCQmedium

An administrator is deploying a new Cisco FTD device in a high-availability pair managed by FMC. The security policy requires that if the primary unit fails, the secondary unit must take over immediately without dropping existing TCP sessions. Which failover configuration must the administrator verify on the FTD devices?

A.The FMC and FTD devices are configured with identical IP addresses on their management interfaces.
B.The secondary unit is placed in a separate FMC domain to isolate management traffic.
C.The primary unit is configured to forward all traffic to the secondary unit for inspection.
D.Stateful failover is enabled and the failover link is configured.
AnswerD

Stateful failover replicates connection state and inspection tables between the active and standby units, so established TCP sessions continue without re-establishment when failover occurs. The failover link must be a dedicated interface or the same interface with a separate VLAN. Without stateful failover, the standby unit would drop existing sessions because it lacks the state information.

Why this answer

Stateful failover is required to maintain existing TCP sessions across a failover event. The failover link carries state updates, and without it, the standby unit cannot replicate connection state. The other options either break management, invalidate HA, or misrepresent HA traffic flow.

The correct configuration ensures seamless session continuity when the primary fails.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that HA automatically preserves TCP sessions without explicitly enabling stateful failover and configuring the failover link.

55
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator needs to define network objects in the FMC Object Management menu. Which THREE object types are natively supported for network definition? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Port Object
B.Host Object
C.Network Object (Subnet)
D.Application Filter Object
E.Range Object
AnswersB, C, E

A Host Object stores a single IPv4 or IPv6 address as a named, reusable entity in FMC Object Management. It satisfies the stem's network-definition requirement because hosts are one of the native network object types, referenceable directly in access control and NAT rules.

Why this answer

FMC supports Host, Range, Network (subnet), FQDN, and Network Group objects for network definitions.

56
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring a Prefilter Policy in FMC to optimize performance on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device. The requirement is to completely bypass inspection for a trusted high-speed data backup tunnel between two datacenters using GRE encapsulation. Which prefilter rule action should be selected?

A.Monitor
B.Block
C.Analyze
D.Fast Path
AnswerD

Fast Path bypasses further inspection of the tunnel while still applying prefilter rules, matching the requirement to completely skip inspection for trusted GRE backup traffic. It differs from Trust, which passes traffic to the snort inspection engine, so Fast Path delivers the needed performance.

Why this answer

The Fast Path action in a Prefilter Policy is specifically designed to bypass all further inspection (including Snort and other deep packet inspection engines) for traffic that matches the rule. This is ideal for trusted high-speed traffic like a GRE-encapsulated backup tunnel, where inspection would add latency and reduce throughput without security benefit. Fast Path effectively offloads the flow to the hardware or fast path, preserving performance.

Thus, D is correct.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the distinction between Prefilter actions (Monitor, Block, Analyze, Fast Path) and their impact on inspection; candidates may confuse 'Monitor' with bypassing inspection, but Monitor only logs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Monitor) is wrong because Monitor only logs the traffic without affecting inspection; it does not bypass inspection. Option B (Block) is wrong because Block drops the traffic, which would prevent the backup tunnel from functioning. Option C (Analyze) is wrong because Analyze sends traffic for further inspection, which is the opposite of bypassing inspection.

57
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Site-to-Site VPN between two FTD devices managed by FMC. The VPN tunnel is up, but traffic is not passing. The administrator suspects an issue with the crypto ACL. Which configuration element should be verified on both peers to ensure the crypto ACL matches?

A.The IPsec proposal settings
B.The pre-shared key or certificate configuration
C.The IKEv2 policy encryption algorithms
D.The protected networks defined in the VPN topology
AnswerD

The crypto ACL in a policy-based VPN defines the interesting traffic that is encrypted and sent through the tunnel. On FTD managed by FMC, the protected networks are configured in the VPN topology and must match on both peers. If they do not match, traffic will not be encrypted or decrypted correctly, causing the tunnel to drop traffic.

Why this answer

In a policy-based VPN, the crypto ACL defines the interesting traffic. On FTD, this is configured as protected networks in the VPN topology. If the protected networks do not match on both peers, traffic will not be encrypted or decrypted, even though the tunnel is up.

The other settings are for tunnel establishment and would prevent the tunnel from coming up if mismatched.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on tunnel establishment parameters like IKEv2 or IPsec proposals, when the tunnel is already up; the issue is with the traffic selector, which is defined by the protected networks.

58
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring an Access Control Policy on FMC and wants to log all connections that match a specific rule, including the beginning and end of each connection. Which logging action should be selected for the rule?

A.Log at Beginning of Connection
B.Log at Beginning and End of Connection
C.Log None
D.Log at End of Connection
AnswerB

This option generates a connection event at the start and another at the end of each connection, providing full visibility. It is useful for detailed analysis and compliance. The other options do not provide both start and end logging, which is required to capture the entire connection lifecycle.

Why this answer

The 'Log at Beginning and End of Connection' action generates two events per connection, capturing both initiation and termination. This provides complete visibility for the rule. The other logging options are partial or disabled, so they do not satisfy the need to log the full connection lifecycle.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that logging at the beginning or end alone is sufficient, but the requirement explicitly asks for both start and end events.

59
MCQmedium

An administrator configures an Identity Policy on the FMC to authenticate users via Active Directory using captive portal. Where is the Identity Policy applied within the Firepower configuration hierarchy?

A.Directly under Devices > Device Management > Platform Settings
B.Within the Access Control Policy settings on the FMC
C.Inside the SSL/TLS Decryption Policy
D.As a standalone rule inside a Prefilter Policy
AnswerB

Identity policies are bound to access control policies on the FMC; the ACP then applies them to matching traffic. The captive portal authentication and Active Directory realm selection therefore take effect only through that access control policy association, not at the device or platform level.

Why this answer

In FMC, Identity Policies are not standalone objects; they are referenced inside an Access Control Policy. The Access Control Policy contains the identity policy selection, and the identity policy defines the captive portal, AD realm, and authentication rules. This is why the correct placement is within the Access Control Policy settings on the FMC.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming Identity Policy is a standalone device-level or prefilter-level object — candidates miss that it is nested inside the Access Control Policy on the FMC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Platform Settings control device-level parameters like syslog, SNMP, and timeouts, not identity/authentication policy. Option C is wrong because SSL/TLS Decryption Policy governs certificate handling and decryption rules, not user identity or captive portal authentication. Option D is wrong because Prefilter Policy handles tunnel/SSL prefiltering and fastpath rules before access control, and it does not host identity policies.

60
MCQmedium

Which feature in FMC allows you to group multiple physical interfaces into a single logical zone for policy assignment?

A.Security Zone
B.VLAN Group
C.Port Channel
D.Bridge Group
AnswerA

A Security Zone groups multiple physical interfaces into one logical unit, letting you assign and reuse policy against that zone rather than per interface. This satisfies the stem's requirement for grouping interfaces for policy assignment within FMC.

Why this answer

Security Zones allow logical grouping of interfaces for easier policy management.

61
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring an FQDN object, which THREE options are valid for the FQDN field?

Select 3 answers
A.IP address
B.Subdomain
C.Wildcard domain
D.Protocol name
E.Single domain name
AnswersB, C, E

A subdomain entry lets the FQDN object match hosts beneath a parent domain, such as mail.example.com, which the FQDN field accepts as a valid value alongside single domain names and wildcards. This satisfies the question's requirement for a valid FQDN field option.

Why this answer

In an FQDN object, the FQDN field accepts a single domain name (E), such as example.com, which resolves to one or more IP addresses and is the standard hostname form. It also accepts a subdomain (B), such as www.example.com or mail.example.com, since a subdomain is still a fully qualified domain name with a complete host and domain hierarchy. A wildcard domain (C), such as *.example.com, is likewise valid because it lets the object match any hostname within that domain.

An IP address (A) is not valid in the FQDN field because IP addresses belong in address or IP-netmask objects, not in a name-based FQDN object. A protocol name (D) is also invalid, since protocols such as TCP, UDP, or ICMP are specified in service objects, not in an FQDN field.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the valid formats for FQDN objects — candidates may incorrectly include IP addresses or protocol names, confusing FQDN objects with network or service objects.

62
MCQmedium

A network engineer needs to configure Auto NAT on a Firepower Threat Defense device managed by FMC to translate internal subnet 10.10.10.0/24 to a single public IP address 203.0.113.50. Which translation type should be selected?

A.Static NAT
B.Dynamic PAT (Port Address Translation)
C.Static Identity NAT
D.Dynamic NAT
AnswerB

Dynamic PAT translates many internal addresses to one public IP using unique source ports, matching the /24-to-single-address requirement. Static NAT would need one public address per host, and dynamic NAT without PAT requires a pool.

Why this answer

Dynamic PAT (Port Address Translation) is the correct choice because it translates multiple internal IP addresses to a single public IP address using unique source ports. This allows the entire 10.10.10.0/24 subnet to share one public IP, which is the typical use case for PAT. Static NAT would require a one-to-one mapping, and Dynamic NAT would require a pool of public IPs.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Dynamic NAT with Dynamic PAT; Dynamic NAT uses a pool of IPs without port translation, while PAT uses a single IP with port translation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Static NAT maps one internal IP to one public IP, not a subnet to a single IP. Option C is wrong because Static Identity NAT does not translate the IP address at all. Option D is wrong because Dynamic NAT uses a pool of public IP addresses, not a single IP.

63
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to create a variable set to define specific port or network variables used within Intrusion Rules. Where are variable sets managed in the FMC?

A.Devices > Device Management > Variables
B.Objects > Object Management > Variable Sets
C.System > Localized Variables
D.Policies > Access Control > Variables
AnswerB

Variable sets are managed under Objects > Object Management > Variable Sets in the FMC, where port, network and other variables used by intrusion rules are defined and later applied via intrusion policies. This is the dedicated location for creating and editing those reusable rule variables.

Why this answer

In FMC, variable sets used by Intrusion Rules are managed under Objects > Object Management > Variable Sets. This is where administrators define variables such as $HOME_NET, $EXTERNAL_NET, and port variables that Snort rules reference. The variable sets are then applied to the Intrusion Policy.

Exam trap

The 300-710 SNCF exam often tests the location of variable sets, and candidates confuse them with device management or access control policy menus, so remembering that they are objects under Object Management is key.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Devices > Device Management manages device registrations and interfaces, not Snort variable sets. Option C is wrong because System > Localized Variables is not a valid FMC menu path for variable sets. Option D is wrong because Policies > Access Control is where access control policies are configured, not where Snort variables are defined.

64
MCQhard

An enterprise requires FTD to decrypt outbound SSL/TLS traffic so internal users visiting external websites can be inspected by Snort for malware. Which policy and action combination must be configured?

A.SSL/TLS Decryption Policy with Decrypt - Resign action
B.Prefilter Policy configured with SSL Bypass
C.SSL/TLS Decryption Policy with Decrypt - Inbound action
D.Access Control Policy with Malware Inspection enabled and no SSL policy
AnswerA

Outbound inspection requires the firewall to intercept the TLS session, so a Decrypt - Resign action re-signs traffic with an internal CA certificate, letting Snort inspect plaintext. Decrypt - Pass Through would leave traffic encrypted and invisible to Snort, failing the malware inspection requirement.

Why this answer

To inspect outbound SSL/TLS traffic from internal users to external sites, FTD must decrypt the traffic using an SSL/TLS Decryption Policy with the Decrypt - Resign action. Resign means FTD acts as a man-in-the-middle, presenting its own certificate to the client and re-establishing a separate TLS session to the server, allowing Snort to see cleartext. This is the only action that enables full inspection of outbound encrypted sessions.

Exam trap

The 300-710 SNCF exam often tests the confusion between Decrypt - Resign (outbound, man-in-the-middle) and Decrypt - Inbound (inbound to internal servers), and between SSL policy actions and Prefilter SSL Bypass, so candidates who don't map direction to action pick the wrong option.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SSL Bypass in a Prefilter Policy explicitly skips decryption and inspection, which is the opposite of what is required. Option C is wrong because Decrypt - Inbound is used for traffic destined to internal servers (inbound TLS), not for outbound user traffic to external websites. Option D is wrong because without an SSL/TLS Decryption Policy, FTD cannot see inside encrypted sessions, so Malware Inspection in the Access Control Policy will not be effective on TLS traffic.

65
MCQeasy

In the context of FTD, what does 'FMC' stand for?

A.Firewall Management Console
B.Firewall Monitoring Center
C.Firepower Managed Cloud
D.Firepower Management Center
AnswerD

FMC is the centralised management appliance for Cisco Firepower deployments, providing policy configuration, event correlation and device management for managed FTD sensors. It is distinct from the FTD device itself, which enforces the policies pushed from the FMC.

Why this answer

FMC is the central management platform for FTD devices.

66
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring interface-level QoS on an FTD device. Which THREE parameters or features can be configured within an FTD QoS policy? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.DSCP Marking
B.Active Directory user group mapping
C.Automatic IP address translation (NAT mapping)
D.Priority Queuing for critical traffic like VoIP
E.Rate Limiting (maximum bandwidth limits)
AnswersA, D, E

The FTD QoS policy marks egress traffic by rewriting the DSCP field in packet headers, letting downstream devices classify and treat flows according to the assigned per-hop behaviour, which is the marking capability the interface-level policy exposes.

Why this answer

Qos policies on FTD support rate limiting, traffic shaping, priority queuing, and marking DSCP values.

67
MCQhard

When configuring an FTD in Transparent Mode, how is the 'Bridge Group' created?

A.In the Access Control Policy
B.In Device Management > Interfaces
C.In the Security Zone settings
D.In the Platform Settings
AnswerB

In FTD transparent mode, the bridge group is defined under Device Management > Interfaces, where you assign the member interfaces and bridge group ID. This binds the paired interfaces into a single Layer 2 forwarding domain.

Why this answer

Bridge groups are created in the Device Management interface configuration section.

68
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is creating an Access Control Policy rule on the FMC. Which TWO elements are required to create a basic rule? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Rule Name
B.Source Security Zone
C.Action (e.g., Allow, Block, Monitor)
D.Destination Port Object
E.Intrusion Policy assignment
AnswersA, C

Every access control rule requires a unique name to identify and order it within the policy; the FMC will not save a rule without one. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a mandatory element when creating a basic rule.

Why this answer

Option A (Rule Name) is correct because the FMC Access Control Policy rule editor requires a unique name to identify the rule within the policy; without a name, the rule cannot be saved. Option C (Action) is correct because every access control rule must specify what happens to matching traffic — Allow, Block, Monitor, Trust, or Block with Reset — and this action determines how the rule is enforced. The remaining options are not mandatory for a basic rule: Source Security Zone (B) is optional and defaults to any zone, Destination Port Object (D) is optional and defaults to any port, and Intrusion Policy assignment (E) is an optional inspection setting applied only when the rule action permits further inspection.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests which fields are mandatory versus optional in an ACP rule, so candidates who assume zones or ports are required pick extra answers that are not actually needed for a basic rule.

69
MCQhard

When deploying a configuration change from FMC to FTD, what is the 'Deployment' process actually doing?

A.Pushing policy and configuration updates
B.Running a connectivity test
C.Rebooting the FTD
D.Updating the Snort binary
AnswerA

Deployment pushes the pending policy and configuration changes from FMC down to the managed FTD devices, applying them to the running configuration. It does not merely validate syntax or back up settings; the task is propagating edited access control and related policies to enforcement points.

Why this answer

The deployment process pushes the configuration changes and policies to the FTD device.

70
MCQmedium

You are setting up an FTD interface. What is the difference between a 'Routed' and 'Transparent' interface mode?

A.Transparent mode operates at L2
B.Routed mode does not support VLANs
C.Transparent mode requires a default gateway
D.Routed mode requires NAT
AnswerA

Transparent mode forwards frames at Layer 2, acting as a bump-in-the-wire bridge without IP addressing on its data interfaces. Routed mode performs Layer 3 forwarding between distinct subnets. Choosing transparent satisfies the stem's requirement to compare the two modes by their differing OSI layer of operation.

Why this answer

A Transparent (L2) interface mode on FTD bridges traffic between interfaces without modifying IP headers, operating at Layer 2 like a bump-in-the-wire switch. Routed mode, by contrast, acts as a Layer 3 hop with IP addresses and routing decisions.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming Transparent mode requires a default gateway or that Routed mode lacks VLAN support. Candidates must remember that Transparent = L2 bridging (no IP addressing, no gateway) and Routed = L3 hop (IP addressing, routing, VLANs).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Routed mode fully supports VLAN subinterfaces and 802.1Q trunking — VLANs are a core feature of routed deployments. Option C is wrong because Transparent mode does not require a default gateway on the firewall itself; it forwards frames based on MAC addresses and does not perform routing. Option D is wrong because Routed mode does not require NAT — NAT is an optional policy applied independently of interface mode.

71
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring an Identity Policy to enforce user-based access control. Which THREE identity sources are supported by the FMC for user awareness? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.RADIUS Server (Authentication and Accounting)
B.Captive Portal for active web authentication
C.Syslog server log scraping without agent integration
D.Active Directory via AD Agent or Cisco ISE (Passive Authentication)
E.Local SNMP MIB walk queries
AnswersA, B, D

RADIUS accounting supplies user-to-IP mappings to the FMC, letting identity policies enforce user-based access control without an agent. The FMC passively consumes accounting start and stop records to build its user awareness table, satisfying the scenario's requirement for a supported identity source.

Why this answer

Option A (RADIUS Server with Authentication and Accounting) is correct because FMC can consume RADIUS accounting records (via the RADIUS Accounting Start/Stop messages) to map IP addresses to usernames for user awareness, and it can also use RADIUS authentication events as an identity source. Option B (Captive Portal for active web authentication) is correct because FMC supports an active authentication identity source where users are redirected to a captive portal and must log in, after which their IP-to-user mapping is learned for the duration of the session. Option D (Active Directory via AD Agent or Cisco ISE Passive Authentication) is correct because FMC integrates with Active Directory through the Cisco AD Agent (or directly via ISE) and with Cisco ISE using passive authentication (pxGrid/MnT) to receive user-to-IP mappings without user interaction.

Option C is not a supported FMC user awareness identity source because FMC does not scrape arbitrary syslog servers for user identity without an agent or supported integration. Option E is not supported because SNMP MIB walks retrieve device and interface statistics, not user identity information, and FMC has no local SNMP MIB-walk identity source.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any log or monitoring source can provide identity — candidates pick syslog or SNMP because they sound like they gather user data, but only AD Agent, ISE, RADIUS, and Captive Portal are supported identity sources.

72
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is setting up a new Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device and needs to configure platform-level parameters using FMC Platform Settings. Which TWO features can be configured via Platform Settings? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.SSL Decryption Certificate assignment
B.Network Address Translation (NAT)
C.SNMP parameters
D.Access Control Policy rules
E.Syslog Server configuration
AnswersC, E

SNMP parameters are platform-level settings configured per FTD device via FMC Platform Settings, covering polling hosts, traps and community strings. This satisfies the stem's requirement for platform-level parameters rather than access-control or intrusion policy configuration, which sit elsewhere in FMC.

Why this answer

Options C and E are correct because FMC Platform Settings is specifically designed for platform-level (device-level) configuration rather than traffic inspection policies. SNMP parameters (option C) such as SNMPv2c/v3 community strings, users, hosts, and traps are configured under Platform Settings > SNMP, allowing the FTD to be monitored by an SNMP manager. Syslog Server configuration (option E) is also configured under Platform Settings > Syslog, where you define syslog servers, severity levels, and logging facilities for sending events off-box.

Option A is incorrect because SSL decryption certificate assignment is configured within the SSL policy (part of the access control policy configuration), not Platform Settings. Option B is incorrect because NAT is configured as part of the FTD NAT policy, which is a separate policy in FMC. Option D is incorrect because Access Control Policy rules are configured in the ACP itself, not in Platform Settings.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing platform-level settings with traffic inspection policies; candidates often assume that any configuration done in FMC falls under Platform Settings, but NAT, SSL decryption, and access control rules are separate policy types.

73
MCQmedium

Which type of object is best suited for defining a web server's public-to-private NAT mapping?

A.VLAN object
B.Network object (Host)
C.Port object
D.Network object (Group)
AnswerB

A host network object represents a single IP address, letting you define a static one-to-one mapping between one public address and one private address. That precisely matches a web server's public-to-private NAT requirement, unlike subnet or range objects.

Why this answer

A Network object (Host) is the correct choice because it represents a single IP address with a /32 mask, which is exactly what a one-to-one NAT mapping for a web server requires. Host objects are used in both Auto NAT and Manual NAT rules to define the specific address being translated.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting a Network object (Group) because it sounds more flexible — but NAT mappings are always one-to-one at the object level, so a Host object is required for a single server's translation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a VLAN object represents a Layer 2 broadcast domain, not an IP address, and cannot be used for NAT translation. Option C is wrong because a Port object defines TCP/UDP ports for access control or NAT port translation, not an IP address mapping. Option D is wrong because a Network object (Group) contains multiple addresses and is used for grouping, not for defining a single host's NAT mapping.

74
MCQhard

An administrator is implementing an SSL Decryption Policy on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device managed by FMC. The policy must decrypt outbound HTTPS traffic to inspect for malware, but certain financial domains must be excluded from decryption to comply with privacy regulations. Which rule action should be configured for these specific financial domains in the SSL Decryption Policy?

A.Do Not Decrypt
B.Decrypt - Known Key
C.Block
D.Decrypt - Resign
AnswerA

Do Not Decrypt exempts matching traffic from TLS inspection, so financial domains pass through encrypted and unexamined. This satisfies the privacy regulation requiring those sessions remain private while outbound HTTPS elsewhere is still decrypted for malware inspection.

Why this answer

To prevent inspection and decryption of sensitive traffic while allowing it to pass through the firewall, the Do Not Decrypt action is used in the SSL Decryption Policy.

75
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring an SSL Decryption Policy on the FMC. Which TWO conditions or actions can be configured within an SSL rule? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Matching traffic based on URL Categories (e.g., Banking, Gambling)
B.Applying the 'Decrypt - Resign' action
C.Configuring static route metrics for decrypted packets
D.Defining QoS rate limits for HTTPS sessions
E.Enforcing Snort 3 Intrusion rule signatures directly inside the SSL policy
AnswersA, B

URL Categories are a standard condition within SSL rules, letting the administrator selectively decrypt or bypass traffic to sites such as Banking or Gambling. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a configurable condition, since category-based matching is supported directly in the SSL Decryption Policy rule criteria.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because SSL rules on the FMC can match traffic using URL Category conditions (such as Banking or Gambling), which are evaluated against the URL/certificate information available before or during decryption. Option B is correct because 'Decrypt - Resign' is one of the standard SSL rule actions, in which the firewall acts as a man-in-the-middle, re-signing the server certificate with its own internal CA so the traffic can be inspected. Option C is incorrect because static route metrics are configured in the routing table (virtual router), not within an SSL decryption rule.

Option D is incorrect because QoS rate limiting is handled by QoS policies, not SSL rules. Option E is incorrect because Snort 3 intrusion signatures are enforced through intrusion policies that are invoked as part of access control, not directly inside the SSL policy itself.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests whether candidates confuse the SSL Decryption Policy with the Access Control Policy or Intrusion Policy — options that place routing, QoS, or Snort signatures inside SSL rules exploit this confusion.

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