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CCNA Storage Network Questions

46 of 271 questions · Page 4/4 · Storage Network · Answers revealed

226
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements about NPV (N_Port Virtualization) are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.NPV allows a NPV switch to forward traffic from multiple host ports to the core switch via a few uplinks.
B.NPV helps scale the fabric by reducing the number of FC domain IDs required.
C.NPV uses Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR) to forward traffic between VSANs.
D.NPV requires FCoE encapsulation.
E.NPV allows a single physical port to have multiple N-port IDs.
AnswersA, B

NPV aggregates multiple ports to uplinks.

Why this answer

NPV (N_Port Virtualization) allows a NPV switch to aggregate traffic from multiple host ports (NP ports) and forward it to the core switch via a few uplinks (NP uplinks). This reduces the number of physical connections required between edge and core switches, simplifying cabling and management.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between NPV (switch-level virtualization) and NPIV (port-level virtualization), so the trap here is confusing the ability to assign multiple N-port IDs to a single port (NPIV) with the fabric scaling benefits of NPV.

227
MCQmedium

Based on the exhibited output, what can be concluded about the fabric?

A.The fabric contains a domain ID conflict.
B.The device with FCID 0x010002 is a disk array.
C.There are three initiators and one target.
D.The device with FCID 0x010003 is a loop-attached device.
AnswerD

The 'NL' type indicates a loop-attached node (public loop).

Why this answer

The output shows that the device with FCID 0x010003 has an 'NLP' (Node Loop Port) state, which indicates it is attached to a loop (e.g., via an FL_Port). This is a key characteristic of a loop-attached device, as opposed to a point-to-point fabric-attached device. Therefore, option D is correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between loop-attached and fabric-attached devices by using FCID states like 'NLP' versus 'Online' to mislead candidates into thinking all devices are fabric-attached, when in fact the 'NLP' state specifically indicates a loop topology.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because there is no evidence of a domain ID conflict; the output does not show duplicate domain IDs or any error messages related to domain ID overlap. Option B is wrong because FCID 0x010002 is listed with a port type of 'N' (Node port) and state 'Online', which is typical for an initiator or target, but there is no indication it is specifically a disk array (e.g., no 'Disk' or 'Storage' label in the output). Option C is wrong because the output shows multiple devices with FCIDs 0x010001, 0x010002, and 0x010003, but it does not provide enough information to determine which are initiators and which are targets; the count of three initiators and one target cannot be concluded from this output alone.

228
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO commands are used to verify Fibre Channel connectivity issues on a Cisco MDS switch? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.show ip interface brief
B.show mac address-table
C.show vlan
D.show interface fc <slot/port>
E.show flogi database
AnswersD, E

Shows interface status, errors.

Why this answer

The 'show interface fc <slot/port>' command displays detailed status, errors, and operational state of a specific Fibre Channel interface, which is essential for diagnosing physical or link-level connectivity issues on a Cisco MDS switch. Option E is correct because the 'show flogi database' command lists all N-port (host) logins registered with the fabric via the Fabric Login (FLOGI) process, verifying that end devices have successfully established a session with the switch and are visible in the Fibre Channel fabric.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Ethernet-based troubleshooting commands (like 'show ip interface brief' or 'show mac address-table') and Fibre Channel-specific commands, leading candidates to mistakenly apply familiar IP/Ethernet commands to a storage networking context.

229
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to configure a Fibre Channel SAN to support two separate departments that must not see each other's storage. Each department has its own set of initiators and targets. Which technology should be used?

A.VSANs (Virtual SANs)
B.Port channels
C.NPV
D.IVR (Inter-VSAN Routing)
AnswerA

VSANs isolate traffic.

Why this answer

VSANs (Virtual SANs) provide isolation within a single Fibre Channel fabric by partitioning the physical SAN into multiple logical SANs. Each department's initiators and targets are placed in separate VSANs, ensuring they cannot see each other's storage traffic or devices, which meets the requirement for complete separation without additional physical hardware.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between VSANs and IVR, where candidates mistakenly think IVR is needed for isolation, but IVR actually enables controlled sharing between VSANs, not isolation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Port channels) is wrong because port channels aggregate multiple physical links into a single logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy, but they do not provide any isolation or segmentation between different departments' storage traffic. Option C (NPV) is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) is used to reduce the number of Fibre Channel domain IDs in a SAN by allowing a switch to proxy logins for multiple initiators, but it does not create separate logical SANs or prevent inter-department visibility. Option D (IVR) is wrong because IVR (Inter-VSAN Routing) is specifically designed to selectively route traffic between different VSANs, which would allow the departments to see each other's storage, directly violating the requirement that they must not see each other's storage.

230
MCQhard

A Fibre Channel switch is experiencing high latency on a specific ISL. The link is operating at 16 Gbps and has high utilization. Which action will most likely reduce latency?

A.Reduce the buffer credit count.
B.Enable trunking on the ISL.
C.Disable flow control on the ISL.
D.Add an additional ISL and configure a port channel.
AnswerD

Load balancing reduces latency.

Why this answer

Adding an additional ISL and configuring a port channel increases the aggregate bandwidth between the two switches, reducing per-link utilization and thus lowering queuing latency. This directly addresses the root cause—high utilization on a single 16 Gbps link—by distributing traffic across multiple physical links, which also provides load balancing and redundancy.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that trunking or flow control adjustments can solve bandwidth-related latency, when in fact only increasing aggregate bandwidth (via port channels) reduces queuing delay caused by high utilization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing the buffer credit count would actually decrease the number of frames that can be in transit, potentially increasing latency due to credit starvation, especially on long-distance links. Option B is wrong because enabling trunking on the ISL (typically via VSAN trunking) does not increase bandwidth; it only allows multiple VSANs to share the same link, which does not reduce utilization or latency. Option C is wrong because disabling flow control (e.g., buffer-to-buffer credit flow control) would remove the mechanism that prevents frame loss, leading to retransmissions and higher latency, not lower.

231
MCQeasy

A storage administrator notices that a newly deployed Fibre Channel initiator cannot log in to the SAN switch. The switch is configured for NPV mode. Which condition is most likely causing the issue?

A.NPIV is disabled on the upstream switch.
B.The initiator is not using a device alias.
C.The switch is configured for NPIV mode instead of NPV.
D.The switch port is configured as an E port.
AnswerA

NPIV must be enabled on upstream switches for NPV mode to work.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the switch acts as a transparent proxy, forwarding FLOGI requests from initiators to the upstream NPIV-capable core switch. If NPIV is disabled on the upstream switch, it will reject the FLOGI because it cannot register multiple N-Port IDs on a single physical link, causing the initiator to fail login.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between NPV (a switch mode) and NPIV (a feature on the upstream switch), leading candidates to confuse the two or assume the issue is with the NPV switch's own configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because device aliases are used for zoning and management convenience, not for the FLOGI process; an initiator can log in without any alias. Option C is wrong because the question states the switch is configured for NPV mode, and NPIV mode is a feature of the upstream switch, not a conflicting mode. Option D is wrong because in NPV mode, the switch port facing the upstream switch is configured as an NP port (proxy N-port), not an E port; E ports are used for ISL links between switches in standard FC switching mode, not NPV.

232
MCQmedium

A Cisco MDS switch is configured with NPV mode. A host NPIV-capable HBA is connected to this switch. The HBA needs to log in with multiple N-port IDs to support multiple virtual machines. What must be configured on the MDS switch to allow this?

A.PortChannel
B.NPIV
C.VSAN trunking
D.Zoning
AnswerB

NPIV must be enabled on the switch and supported by the HBA to allow multiple FCIDs.

Why this answer

NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) allows multiple FCIDs on a single N-port. On an NPV switch, NPIV must be enabled to allow the HBA to register multiple IDs.

233
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors must be considered when implementing FCIP for SAN extension over a WAN? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.VSAN configuration on the remote MDS switch.
B.Jitter and packet loss characteristics.
C.Buffer-to-buffer credit count on the FCIP tunnel.
D.Round-trip time (RTT) latency of the WAN link.
E.Available bandwidth and potential congestion.
AnswersB, D, E

Jitter and loss impact TCP performance and retransmissions.

Why this answer

FCIP (Fibre Channel over IP) tunnels encapsulate Fibre Channel frames over IP networks. Jitter and packet loss directly cause Fibre Channel timeouts and retransmissions, severely impacting storage performance. Unlike Fibre Channel over dedicated links, WAN characteristics like jitter and loss must be explicitly accounted for in FCIP design.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Fibre Channel fabric parameters (like VSANs and B2B credits) and WAN-specific factors (jitter, loss, RTT, bandwidth) that directly impact FCIP tunnel performance, leading candidates to select local SAN parameters instead of WAN characteristics.

234
MCQhard

Which iSCSI authentication method provides mutual authentication between initiator and target using a shared secret?

A.Kerberos
B.CHAP
C.IPsec
D.RADIUS
AnswerB

CHAP can provide mutual authentication in iSCSI.

Why this answer

CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) can be configured for one-way or mutual authentication. Mutual CHAP authenticates both sides using a shared secret.

235
MCQhard

A storage administrator is configuring a new storage array that supports thin provisioning. The array reports 10 TB of physical storage and 50 TB of thin-provisioned logical capacity. Which risk is most important to monitor to avoid out-of-space conditions?

A.High latency on the Fibre Channel links
B.The number of snapshots taken
C.The replication status
D.The rate of physical capacity consumption and remaining free space
AnswerD

If physical space is exhausted, writes may fail or data loss can occur.

Why this answer

Thin provisioning overcommits physical storage; monitoring actual physical usage and growth rate is critical to prevent running out of space.

236
MCQhard

A data center engineer is implementing FCoE and must ensure lossless behavior for Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet. Which Data Center Bridging (DCB) mechanism prevents frame loss by pausing traffic on a per-priority basis?

A.Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX)
B.Priority Flow Control (PFC)
C.FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP)
D.Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
AnswerB

PFC provides per-priority pause to enable lossless Ethernet.

Why this answer

Priority Flow Control (PFC) is a DCB mechanism that provides per-priority pause to prevent frame loss, ensuring lossless delivery for FCoE traffic.

237
MCQhard

A company has two Cisco MDS 9700 switches in a dual-fabric SAN. Each fabric has its own set of storage arrays and hosts. The company wants to enable selective communication between specific devices in Fabric A and Fabric B without merging the fabrics. Which Cisco technology should be used?

A.FCIP
B.NPV
C.IVR
D.Port channels
AnswerC

IVR enables selective communication between devices in different VSANs while keeping fabrics separate.

Why this answer

Cisco IVR (Inter-VSAN Routing) allows selective communication between devices in different VSANs without merging the fabrics. In this dual-fabric SAN scenario, IVR enables specific hosts in Fabric A to communicate with specific storage arrays in Fabric B while keeping the VSANs and fabrics logically isolated, preserving fault domains and administrative boundaries.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between technologies that merge fabrics (like FCIP or trunking) versus those that enable selective inter-fabric communication without merging (like IVR), and the trap here is confusing FCIP's WAN extension capability with IVR's selective routing within a local dual-fabric design.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FCIP (Fibre Channel over IP) is used to interconnect geographically separated SAN islands over an IP network, not to enable selective communication between devices in the same physical location without merging fabrics. Option B is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) is a mode used by edge switches to aggregate multiple N_Ports into a single uplink to a core switch, reducing domain IDs; it does not provide inter-fabric routing. Option D is wrong because port channels aggregate multiple physical links into a single logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy within a single fabric, not for routing traffic between separate fabrics.

238
MCQmedium

An engineer is designing a SAN extension over a WAN link using FCIP. The link has high latency (50 ms RTT). Which configuration is most critical to maintain performance?

A.Configure a large TCP window size.
B.Enable compression on the FCIP tunnel.
C.Increase the buffer-to-buffer credits.
D.Reduce the TCP MSS to 512 bytes.
AnswerA

Window scaling allows more data in flight, improving throughput over high-latency links.

Why this answer

FCIP encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over TCP/IP. High latency (50 ms RTT) means the TCP sender must wait longer for acknowledgments, which can stall the connection if the TCP window is too small. A large TCP window size (e.g., using window scaling per RFC 1323) allows more data to be in flight before requiring an ACK, thereby maintaining throughput and preventing performance collapse on high-latency WAN links.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that buffer-to-buffer credits (BB_credits) are the primary flow control for FCIP, when in fact TCP window sizing is the critical parameter for high-latency WAN links.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because compression reduces bandwidth usage but does not address the fundamental throughput limitation caused by high latency and small TCP windows; it may even add processing delay. Option C is wrong because buffer-to-buffer credits (BB_credits) are a Fibre Channel flow control mechanism used between directly connected FC ports, not over FCIP tunnels; they do not affect TCP windowing over WAN. Option D is wrong because reducing TCP MSS to 512 bytes increases header overhead and the number of segments, which can worsen performance on a high-latency link by requiring more ACKs per byte of data.

239
MCQmedium

A storage administrator wants to implement Fibre Channel zoning to ensure that only specific initiators can access specific targets. The administrator prefers a method that does not require reconfiguration when a host's HBA is replaced with a new one with a different WWPN. Which zoning type meets this requirement?

A.Hard zoning by port
B.Soft zoning by port
C.Soft zoning by WWN
D.Hard zoning by WWN
AnswerB

Soft zoning by port uses the switch port number. If the same port is used for the new HBA, no reconfiguration is needed.

Why this answer

Soft zoning by port uses the physical port number, not the WWPN. If the HBA is replaced but the same port is used, the zoning remains valid. Hard zoning by WWN would require updating the zone if the WWPN changes.

240
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco data center automation tool to its primary use.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Configuration management and orchestration

Scripting language for custom automation

Programmatic interface for device management

Infrastructure as code for server configuration

Declarative configuration management

Why these pairings

Automation tools streamline data center operations. UCS Manager handles server management, ACI automates network policy, Intersight offers cloud management, and Nexus Dashboard provides monitoring. The distractors swap these roles.

241
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a requirement for iSCSI storage connectivity to support jumbo frames?

A.Enable PFC on the switch
B.Configure MTU 9000 on all involved interfaces
C.Enable MPIO
D.Use CHAP authentication
AnswerB

Jumbo frames require MTU 9000 end-to-end.

Why this answer

Jumbo frames require an MTU of 9000 bytes on all interfaces in the path.

242
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should be considered when sizing buffer credits for a long-haul FC link?

Select 3 answers
A.Link speed
B.Number of targets
C.Frame size
D.Distance
E.Buffer-to-buffer credit pool size
AnswersA, C, D

Higher speed requires more credits to keep the link busy.

Why this answer

Link speed (A) is a critical factor because higher speeds require more buffer credits to maintain full throughput over a given distance. The buffer credit requirement scales linearly with link speed, as each credit represents the ability to send one frame before receiving an acknowledgment. For example, a 16 Gbps link needs twice as many buffer credits as an 8 Gbps link for the same distance.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the number of targets or initiators influences buffer credit requirements, when in fact only distance, speed, and frame size matter for the per-link calculation.

243
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should be considered when calculating the required number of buffer credits for a long-distance Fibre Channel link? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The link data rate (e.g., 16 Gbps).
B.The maximum frame size (e.g., 2148 bytes).
C.The number of VSANs configured.
D.The number of zones in the fabric.
E.The distance between the switches.
AnswersA, B, E

Higher data rates require more buffer credits to keep the link busy.

Why this answer

Buffer credits are calculated using the link data rate (affects how many bits can be transmitted per second), the maximum frame size (determines how many bytes are consumed per credit), and the distance between switches (affects propagation delay and round-trip time). Therefore, options A (data rate), B (frame size), and E (distance) are correct. VSAN count (C) and zone count (D) have no impact on buffer credit calculations.

244
Multi-Selectmedium

A storage administrator reports that a host cannot reach any of the targets on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch. The VSAN configuration is correct, and all interfaces are up. Which two commands should be used to verify the Fibre Channel name server database and zoning configuration?

Select 2 answers
A.show zoneset active
B.show zone
C.show flogi database
D.show fcns database
E.show fcns details
AnswersA, D

Shows the active zoneset and its member devices, verifying zoning.

Why this answer

The 'show zoneset active' command displays the currently active zone set, which is essential for verifying which zones are enforced by the switch. Since the VSAN configuration is correct and interfaces are up, a missing or incorrect active zone set could prevent the host from reaching any targets, even if the name server database is populated.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'show flogi database' (which shows fabric login state) and 'show fcns database' (which shows name server registrations), leading candidates to mistakenly choose 'show flogi database' when the question asks for name server verification.

245
MCQhard

In a Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) deployment, which Data Center Bridging (DCB) feature is responsible for preventing frame loss due to congestion and ensuring the lossless behavior required for FCoE traffic?

A.Priority Flow Control (PFC)
B.Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX)
C.Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
D.Jumbo frames
AnswerA

PFC provides per-priority pause to ensure lossless delivery for FCoE traffic.

Why this answer

Priority Flow Control (PFC) is a per-priority pause mechanism that creates lossless links for specific traffic classes such as FCoE.

246
MCQmedium

A storage administrator needs to monitor traffic between two specific storage arrays without causing any disruption. Which approach should be used?

A.Configure a SPAN session on the MDS switch to copy traffic between the storage ports.
B.Use FC traceroute to identify the path.
C.Enable FC ping between arrays.
D.Use IVR to route traffic through a monitoring zone.
E.Configure port channel between arrays.
AnswerA

SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) copies traffic to a monitor port for analysis without disruption.

Why this answer

A SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) session on an MDS switch copies traffic from source ports to a destination port without affecting the original traffic flow. This allows the administrator to monitor the traffic between the two storage arrays non-disruptively, as SPAN does not introduce latency or packet loss on the monitored ports.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between diagnostic tools (FC ping, traceroute) and monitoring tools (SPAN), leading candidates to confuse connectivity verification with traffic capture.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because FC traceroute is a diagnostic tool used to discover the Layer 2 path between Fibre Channel endpoints, not a method for continuous traffic monitoring. Option C is wrong because FC ping is a connectivity test that sends probe frames, not a monitoring solution, and it generates its own traffic rather than capturing existing traffic. Option D is wrong because IVR (Inter-VSAN Routing) is used to route traffic between different VSANs, not to copy or monitor traffic; creating a monitoring zone would not provide a copy of the traffic.

Option E is wrong because configuring a port channel between arrays aggregates bandwidth and provides redundancy, but it does not provide any traffic monitoring or copying capability.

247
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel frame field is used to identify the upper-layer protocol being carried?

A.Source FC ID
B.D_ID
C.CS_CTL
D.R_CTL
AnswerD

Routing Control field specifies the frame category and protocol.

Why this answer

The R_CTL (Routing Control) field in the Fibre Channel frame header is used to identify the upper-layer protocol being carried, such as SCSI-FCP, IP, or VI. It contains the routing bits and information category that specify the frame type and protocol context, enabling the receiver to interpret the payload correctly.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the R_CTL field by confusing candidates with the D_ID field, as many assume the destination address determines the protocol, but R_CTL is the explicit field for upper-layer protocol identification.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Source FC ID (S_ID) identifies the source Fibre Channel node or port, not the upper-layer protocol. Option B is wrong because the D_ID (Destination ID) specifies the destination Fibre Channel address, not the protocol type. Option C is wrong because CS_CTL (Class Specific Control) is used for flow control and class-specific operations (e.g., Class 1 or Class 2 acknowledgments), not for protocol identification.

248
MCQmedium

A storage administrator needs to ensure that a Fibre Channel zone configuration is operationally effective without disrupting the current active zone set. Which approach should be used?

A.Create the new zone configuration in the defined configuration, then activate it as a new zone set.
B.Delete the active zone set and create a new one.
C.Edit the active zone set directly.
D.Use the 'commit' command to update the zone set.
AnswerA

Standard best practice.

Why this answer

In Cisco MDS Fibre Channel SANs, zone configurations are created in the defined configuration and then activated as a new zone set. This approach ensures that the current active zone set remains operational and unaffected during the configuration process, preventing any disruption to existing traffic. Only when the new zone set is explicitly activated does it replace the active set, allowing for a controlled cutover.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that you can directly edit the active zone set, similar to how you might edit a running configuration on a router, but in Fibre Channel zoning, the active set is immutable and must be replaced via activation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because deleting the active zone set would immediately disrupt all Fibre Channel zoning, causing all devices to lose connectivity and potentially causing a SAN outage. Option C is wrong because editing the active zone set directly is not supported in Cisco MDS; the active zone set is a read-only copy of the last activated configuration, and any changes must be made to the defined configuration. Option D is wrong because the 'commit' command is used in Cisco NX-OS to apply pending configuration changes in other contexts (e.g., interface or VLAN configurations), but it is not a valid command for updating Fibre Channel zone sets; zone set activation is performed using the 'activate' command.

249
MCQmedium

A data center team is configuring a Cisco MDS switch to support multiple isolated SAN environments on the same physical infrastructure. They need to create separate fabrics that are completely isolated at Layer 2. Which technology should be used?

A.NPV
B.VSANs
C.Zoning
D.PortChannels
AnswerB

VSANs create separate logical SANs, providing complete isolation.

Why this answer

VSANs provide isolation similar to VLANs in Ethernet, allowing multiple virtual Fibre Channel fabrics on the same physical switch.

250
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring zoning on a Cisco MDS switch. The requirement is to allow a single host HBA to access two storage array ports. Which zone configuration meets this requirement?

A.Create a zone with the host's port ID and both storage port IDs.
B.Create one zone with all three WWPNs.
C.Create one zone with the host's WWPN and one storage port WWPN, and another zone with the host's WWPN and the second storage port WWPN.
D.Create a zone with the host's WWPN and both storage ports as a single zone.
AnswerC

Creating two zones with the host's WWPN and each storage port WWPN separately follows the single-initiator zoning best practice. This is correct.

Why this answer

The recommended practice for Fibre Channel zoning is to use single-initiator zones, where each zone contains one host WWPN and one storage port WWPN. To allow a single host HBA to access two storage array ports, two zones should be created: the first zone includes the host's WWPN and the first storage port's WWPN, and the second zone includes the same host's WWPN and the second storage port's WWPN. This prevents direct communication between storage ports (which could cause issues) and follows Cisco best practices for MDS zoning.

Option C correctly implements this configuration. Options A and B use port IDs or a single zone with multiple targets, which are less secure and not recommended. Option D creates a single zone with all three WWPNs, which allows the storage ports to communicate with each other, potentially leading to errors or instability.

Exam trap

A common mistake is to think that using port IDs (Option A) is acceptable because they are dynamic and can change after a link reset, leading to unintended access. Also, avoiding a single zone with all three WWPNs (Option D) prevents storage ports from communicating directly, which could cause LUN masking issues or instability.

251
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to configure iSCSI multipath I/O (MPIO) for a host connecting to a storage array. Which requirement must be met to ensure that MPIO functions correctly with load balancing?

A.The iSCSI initiator must use CHAP authentication
B.Jumbo frames must be enabled on all switches
C.The host must have multiple network interfaces on different subnets
D.The storage array must support synchronous replication
AnswerC

Multiple distinct network paths are required for MPIO to provide redundancy and load balancing.

Why this answer

MPIO requires multiple paths between the initiator and target. Each path must be on a separate network interface and subnet to provide redundancy and load balancing.

252
MCQeasy

Which RAID level provides both striping and mirroring for high performance and fault tolerance?

A.RAID 0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 10
D.RAID 6
AnswerC

RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping for performance and fault tolerance.

Why this answer

RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0) combines mirroring and striping to provide both high performance and redundancy.

253
MCQhard

A storage administrator configures zoning on a Cisco MDS switch. The requirement is to prevent any changes to the zone set from taking effect unless explicitly activated. Which configuration is correct?

A.Create zones and directly add them to the database; activation is automatic.
B.Create zones and add them to the active zone set; deactivate the zone set to apply changes.
C.Create zones, add them to the zone set, then activate the zone set.
D.Create zones and add them to the full zone set; the switch automatically activates changes.
AnswerC

Zones must be added to a zone set, which is then activated to become the active zone set.

Why this answer

The active zone set is the only zone set that is enforced; changes must be activated to apply.

254
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements correctly describe the benefits of thin provisioning in a storage array?

Select 2 answers
A.It eliminates the need for RAID protection
B.It improves performance by pre-allocating all storage upfront
C.It allows over-provisioning of logical capacity beyond physical capacity
D.It simplifies disaster recovery by replicating only allocated blocks
E.It reduces storage costs by allocating physical space only when data is written
AnswersC, E

Thin provisioning supports over-allocation, enabling administrators to present more capacity than physically available.

Why this answer

Thin provisioning allows over-allocation of storage capacity, reducing waste, and enables on-demand allocation of physical storage as data is written.

255
MCQmedium

A Fibre Channel switch port is experiencing a high number of CRC errors. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

A.Replace the fiber optic cable between the switch and the storage device.
B.Reduce the port speed to 2 Gbps.
C.Reconfigure the zone to include only the affected device.
D.Increase the buffer credits on the port.
AnswerA

CRC errors typically indicate physical layer problems like bad cables.

Why this answer

CRC errors in Fibre Channel typically indicate physical-layer issues such as damaged or dirty fiber optic cables, faulty connectors, or signal degradation. Replacing the cable directly addresses the most common root cause of CRC errors, which is physical-layer corruption of frames. Other options like reducing speed or adjusting buffer credits do not fix the underlying physical integrity problem.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that CRC errors are caused by software or configuration issues (like zoning or buffer credits), when in fact they are almost always a physical-layer problem requiring cable or connector inspection and replacement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because reducing port speed to 2 Gbps may mask CRC errors by lowering the signaling rate, but it does not resolve the physical-layer issue causing the errors; it only reduces the likelihood of errors at the cost of performance. Option C is wrong because reconfiguring zones only controls which devices can communicate; it has no effect on physical-layer errors like CRC, which occur regardless of zoning. Option D is wrong because increasing buffer credits manages flow control and helps with distance-related credit starvation, but CRC errors are caused by signal integrity problems, not buffer credit depletion.

256
MCQmedium

A storage administrator is configuring Fibre Channel zoning on a Cisco MDS switch. The administrator creates a zone, adds members, and activates the zone set. However, the hosts still cannot access the storage targets. What is the most likely cause?

A.The WWPNs are incorrectly typed.
B.The VSAN was not created.
C.The ports are in trunk mode.
D.The zone set was not activated.
AnswerD

The active zone set must be set; otherwise, zoning configuration is not applied.

Why this answer

Zoning changes only take effect when the zone set is activated. If the zone set is not activated, the zones are not enforced.

257
MCQmedium

A data center team is planning a Fibre Channel fabric with multiple Cisco MDS switches. They want to ensure that all switches share the same configuration and that zone changes are propagated automatically. Which feature should be enabled?

A.NPV mode
B.Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP)
C.VSAN trunking (EISL)
D.Cisco Fabric Services (CFS)
AnswerD

CFS enables automatic distribution of configurations like zoning.

Why this answer

Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) distributes configuration changes across all switches in the fabric, including zone changes.

258
MCQeasy

An engineer is configuring a Fibre Channel PortChannel between two Cisco MDS switches. What is the maximum number of physical links that can be aggregated into a single PortChannel in Fibre Channel?

A.8
B.32
C.4
D.16
AnswerD

Cisco MDS switches support up to 16 links per PortChannel.

Why this answer

Cisco MDS switches support up to 16 physical links per PortChannel for Fibre Channel.

259
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A host with WWPN 10:00:00:00:c9:29:3b:23 can only see its own WWPN but not the target. What is the likely cause?

A.The host is in a different VSAN.
B.The target is missing from the zone.
C.The zoneset is not the full zoneset.
D.The host's FLOGI is rejected.
E.The zone is not activated.
AnswerB

Zone_C has no target member, so the host cannot access any storage.

Why this answer

The host can see its own WWPN but not the target, which indicates that the host has successfully logged into the fabric (FLOGI accepted) and is in the correct VSAN. The most likely cause is that the target WWPN is not included in the zone that contains the host. In Fibre Channel zoning, only members within the same zone can communicate; if the target is missing from the zone, the host cannot discover or access it.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'zone not activated' and 'target missing from zone' — the trap here is that candidates assume a zone must be activated for any visibility, but in reality, a host can see its own WWPN even if the zone is inactive, as long as it has successfully logged into the fabric.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the host were in a different VSAN, it would not see its own WWPN either, as VSANs provide complete isolation. Option C is wrong because the zoneset not being the full zoneset would affect all zones, not just the host's ability to see the target; the host would still see its own WWPN. Option D is wrong because if the host's FLOGI were rejected, the host would not be able to see any WWPNs, including its own.

Option E is wrong because if the zone were not activated, the host would not be able to see any WWPNs in that zone, including its own; the zone activation is required for the zone to take effect.

260
MCQhard

An engineer is configuring Fibre Channel PortChannels on a Cisco MDS switch. Which statement about Fibre Channel PortChannels is true?

A.They require all member ports to be on the same VSAN.
B.They can include both E-ports and F-ports in the same PortChannel.
C.They load-balance based on the source and destination WWPNs.
D.They are supported only in NPV mode.
AnswerC

Fibre Channel PortChannels use a hash of source and destination IDs (WWPNs) for load balancing.

Why this answer

Fibre Channel PortChannels require all member ports to be of the same type (e.g., all E-ports). They load-balance across links and are compatible with VSAN trunking. They do not require the same speed on all ports, but it is recommended.

261
MCQmedium

A storage engineer needs to isolate two Fibre Channel fabrics within the same physical infrastructure using Cisco MDS switches. Which feature allows the creation of multiple logical Fibre Channel networks on the same set of switches?

A.NPV
B.PortChannels
C.Zoning
D.VSANs
AnswerD

VSANs create separate logical FC fabrics on the same physical switches.

Why this answer

VSANs (Virtual SANs) provide isolation similar to VLANs in Ethernet, allowing multiple separate FC fabrics to operate on the same physical switches.

262
MCQmedium

A storage engineer is planning to migrate from an existing 2 Gbps Fibre Channel fabric to a new 16 Gbps fabric while maintaining connectivity during the cutover. The legacy and new switches are connected via ISL and use the same VSAN. What is a best practice to ensure a seamless migration?

A.Assign the new switches to a separate VSAN to prevent mixing
B.Set the ISL port speed to 2 Gbps on both sides until the migration is complete
C.Use a dedicated ISL for the migration and move zones gradually
D.Disable zoning on both fabrics and re-apply after migration
AnswerB

Ensures compatibility and stable fabric merge.

Why this answer

Setting the ISL port speed to 2 Gbps on both sides ensures that the new 16 Gbps switch negotiates down to the legacy fabric's speed, preventing buffer-to-buffer credit mismatches and frame corruption during the cutover. This allows both fabrics to operate at a common speed, maintaining stable connectivity until all devices are migrated and the ISL speed can be safely increased.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that simply connecting a higher-speed switch to a lower-speed fabric via ISL will auto-negotiate correctly, but the trap here is that without manually setting the speed, the link may fail to establish or cause instability due to incompatible buffer-to-buffer credit management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because assigning the new switches to a separate VSAN would isolate them from the legacy fabric, preventing any communication or gradual migration of devices across the ISL. Option C is wrong because using a dedicated ISL does not address the fundamental speed mismatch; without speed negotiation, the 16 Gbps port may not properly interoperate with the 2 Gbps port, leading to link instability or failure. Option D is wrong because disabling zoning on both fabrics would expose all devices to each other, creating a security risk and potential data corruption; zoning should remain active and be migrated incrementally.

263
MCQhard

During an FCoE deployment, the server team reports that hosts can reach the storage array but performance is intermittent with periodic timeouts. The network team sees no errors on the FCoE VLAN. The DCB configuration on the upstream switch shows that PFC is enabled for CoS 3. What should the engineer check next?

A.Verify that jumbo frames are enabled on the storage array
B.Confirm that the VSAN is appropriately sized for the number of hosts
C.Ensure that the FCoE VLAN is enabled for FCoE on the server's vNIC
D.Check if the PFC configuration matches on both ends and that PFC is enabled on the FCoE VLAN interfaces
AnswerD

PFC must be consistent across all hops.

Why this answer

D is correct because PFC (Priority Flow Control) must be consistently configured on both ends of an FCoE link to prevent frame loss. If PFC is enabled for CoS 3 on the upstream switch but not on the server's vNIC or the FCoE VLAN interfaces, the lack of lossless behavior causes intermittent timeouts and performance degradation, even if the FCoE VLAN shows no errors.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that FCoE performance issues are due to VLAN or VSAN misconfiguration, when the real culprit is mismatched PFC settings between endpoints.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because jumbo frames are not required for FCoE; FCoE typically uses 2500-byte frames, but the issue is about lossless delivery, not MTU size. Option B is wrong because VSAN sizing relates to zoning and fabric management, not to PFC or link-level flow control; the problem is at Layer 2, not VSAN capacity. Option C is wrong because the FCoE VLAN must be enabled on the switch port, not the server's vNIC; the server team already reports reachability, indicating the VLAN is active, so this is a misdirection about where the configuration is applied.

264
MCQeasy

A storage administrator wants to ensure that only designated initiators can access a specific target in a Fibre Channel SAN. Which mechanism enforces this policy?

A.IVR
B.Port channel
C.Zoning
D.VSAN
E.Credit recovery
AnswerC

Zoning defines which initiators can talk to which targets.

Why this answer

Zoning is the correct mechanism because it restricts Fibre Channel (FC) communication to only those initiators and targets that are members of the same zone. By defining a zone that includes only the designated initiator WWPNs and the target WWPN, the switch enforces access control at the fabric level, preventing any unauthorized device from discovering or communicating with the target.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between VSAN (which isolates traffic at the fabric level) and zoning (which controls device-level access within a VSAN), leading candidates to incorrectly select VSAN when the question specifically asks about restricting access to a target.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (IVR) is wrong because Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR) enables selective communication between devices in different VSANs, not access control within a single VSAN or target. Option B (Port channel) is wrong because it aggregates multiple physical links into a single logical link for bandwidth and redundancy, not for enforcing initiator-to-target access policies. Option D (VSAN) is wrong because a VSAN creates an isolated virtual fabric, but within a VSAN all devices can communicate unless further restricted by zoning; VSAN alone does not enforce per-initiator access to a specific target.

Option E (Credit recovery) is wrong because it is a buffer-to-buffer credit recovery mechanism (BB_CR) used to recover lost credits in FC links, unrelated to access control.

265
MCQmedium

A data center uses NPV to connect edge switches to a core Fibre Channel switch. The edge switches report that some servers cannot log in. What is a likely cause?

A.Overlapping VSAN IDs between edge and core
B.F port binding on the edge switch
C.Trunking mode not enabled on the core switch
D.NPIV not enabled on the core switch
AnswerD

Correct: NPIV must be enabled on core switches to support NPV.

Why this answer

In an NPV environment, the edge switch (NPV mode) relies on the core Fibre Channel switch to handle fabric login (FLOGI) and name server registration. NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) must be enabled on the core switch to allow multiple N_Port IDs to be assigned to a single physical N_Port, which is essential for NPV to function. If NPIV is not enabled on the core, the core switch cannot accept FLOGI requests from the NPV edge switch, preventing servers from logging into the fabric.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that trunking mode or VSAN mismatches are the primary cause of NPV login failures, but the critical requirement is NPIV on the core switch, as NPV relies on it to handle multiple virtual N_Port IDs over a single physical link.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because overlapping VSAN IDs between edge and core are not inherently problematic; NPV requires the VSANs to match between the edge and core for traffic to be forwarded correctly, but overlapping IDs are expected and do not cause login failures. Option B is wrong because F port binding on the edge switch restricts which devices can connect via F ports but does not prevent servers from logging in through NPV; it would only block specific WWNs, not cause a general login failure. Option C is wrong because trunking mode (E_port trunking) is used to aggregate multiple ISLs between switches, but it is not required for basic NPV operation; the core switch can operate with standard E_ports and still support NPV logins.

266
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements correctly describe the difference between synchronous and asynchronous replication?

Select 2 answers
A.Asynchronous replication requires dedicated links
B.Asynchronous replication has lower impact on application performance
C.Synchronous replication provides zero recovery point objective (RPO)
D.Synchronous replication is more tolerant of high latency links
E.Asynchronous replication guarantees zero data loss
AnswersB, C

Asynchronous replication does not wait for remote acknowledgment, reducing latency impact.

Why this answer

Synchronous replication has zero RPO but can impact performance due to latency, while asynchronous replication has a lower performance impact but may have some data loss (nonzero RPO).

267
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are benefits of using Smart Zoning in Cisco MDS switches?

Select 2 answers
A.Reduces number of zone objects
B.Provides faster FLOGI processing
C.Simplifies zone management for large fabrics
D.Eliminates the need for VSANs
E.Allows automatic LUN masking
AnswersA, C

Smart Zoning combines multiple zones into a single object, reducing overhead.

Why this answer

Smart Zoning reduces the number of zone objects by automatically grouping initiator-target pairs into a single zone entry, rather than requiring a separate zone for each pair. This minimizes the size of the zone database and reduces the processing overhead on the switch during fabric reconfigurations.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Smart Zoning improves FLOGI processing speed or eliminates VSANs, when in reality it only optimizes zone object management and does not alter fundamental fabric services.

268
Drag & Dropmedium

Sequence the steps for configuring OSPF on a Cisco Nexus switch in a data center fabric.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

OSPF configuration involves creating the process, setting router ID, enabling on interfaces, and verification.

269
MCQmedium

A storage administrator needs to isolate traffic between two departments on the same Fibre Channel SAN infrastructure. Each department has its own storage array and hosts. Which technology should be used to create separate logical fabrics without additional hardware?

A.NPV
B.VSANs
C.Zoning
D.PortChannels
AnswerB

VSANs create isolated logical fabrics over a physical infrastructure.

Why this answer

VSANs (Virtual SANs) allow partitioning of a single physical Fibre Channel fabric into multiple isolated logical fabrics, similar to VLANs in Ethernet.

270
MCQmedium

A storage array supports RAID-5, RAID-6, and RAID-10. The array has 12 disks of equal size. The requirement is to maximize usable capacity while tolerating up to two simultaneous disk failures without data loss. Which RAID level should be chosen?

A.RAID-10
B.RAID-5
C.RAID-6
D.RAID-0
AnswerC

RAID-6 tolerates up to two failures with better capacity efficiency than RAID-10.

Why this answer

RAID-6 can tolerate two disk failures with parity overhead of 2 disks, providing high usable capacity. RAID-5 tolerates only one failure; RAID-10 tolerates multiple failures but capacity is 50%.

271
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 9000v switch in a converged network. The storage array is connected via native Fibre Channel to an MDS switch, and the MDS is connected to the Nexus using an FCoE link. The engineer creates a virtual Fibre Channel (VFC) interface on the Nexus, binds it to an Ethernet interface, and maps VSAN 200 to VLAN 200. The MDS side has an FCoE port configured and enabled. Servers connected to the Nexus with FCoE initiators can successfully log into the storage targets, but performance is very poor and intermittent. The engineer checks for drops on all interfaces and finds none. The engineer also verifies that the FCoE VLAN is not blocked by spanning tree. What is the most likely cause of the performance issue?

A.The Ethernet interface MTU is set to 1500 instead of 2500.
B.The FCoE VLAN is blocking spanning tree.
C.The MDS has not enabled FCoE on the interface.
D.The VFC interface is not bound to the correct port-channel.
AnswerA

FCoE requires jumbo frames; 1500 MTU causes fragmentation.

Why this answer

FCoE requires a jumbo MTU (typically 2500 bytes) to encapsulate Fibre Channel frames without fragmentation. An MTU of 1500 forces fragmentation and reassembly, causing retransmissions and poor performance. Option B is incorrect because the engineer verified that the FCoE VLAN is not blocked by spanning tree.

Option C is incorrect because servers can log in, indicating FCoE is enabled on the MDS interface. Option D is incorrect because the VFC binding was already verified as correct.

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