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CCNA Storage Network Questions

75 of 271 questions · Page 2/4 · Storage Network · Answers revealed

76
MCQhard

A storage engineer is configuring replication between two data centers. The distance is 500 km with a round-trip latency of 10 ms. The application requires zero data loss in the event of a primary site failure. Which replication method should be chosen?

A.Synchronous replication
B.Snapshot-based replication
C.Asynchronous replication
D.RAID-10 mirroring
AnswerA

Synchronous replication provides zero data loss, but performance may suffer due to latency.

Why this answer

Synchronous replication ensures zero data loss (RPO=0) as writes are acknowledged only after being committed on both sites. However, it is sensitive to latency; with 10 ms RTT, performance may degrade but it meets the requirement.

77
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following Fibre Channel port types are used to connect end devices such as hosts or storage?

Select 2 answers
A.FL port
B.E port
C.N port
D.F port
E.NP port
AnswersC, D

N port is on the end device.

Why this answer

(N port) is correct because an N_port (Node port) is the Fibre Channel port type used on end devices such as hosts (HBAs) or storage controllers to connect to a Fibre Channel switch. Option D (F port) is correct because an F_port (Fabric port) is the switch-side port that connects to an N_port, forming a point-to-point link between the end device and the fabric. Together, N_port and F_port enable standard fabric login (FLOGI) and frame exchange.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between N_port and FL_port, trapping candidates who confuse the point-to-point fabric connection (N_port to F_port) with the older Arbitrated Loop topology (NL_port to FL_port).

78
MCQmedium

A Cisco MDS switch has two VSANs (VSAN 10 and VSAN 20). The engineer wants to connect two switches using a single ISL that carries both VSANs. Which configuration is required on the ISL interface?

A.Use two separate ISLs, one for each VSAN.
B.Configure the port as a trunk port (EISL).
C.Create a PortChannel and add the ISL.
D.Configure the port as a regular E-port.
AnswerB

Trunk port (EISL) allows multiple VSANs over a single ISL.

Why this answer

An EISL (Extended ISL) is a trunk port that carries multiple VSANs. The interface must be configured as a trunk port using the 'switchport mode trunk' command (or 'trunk mode on' in some contexts) to allow multiple VSANs.

79
MCQhard

A large enterprise uses Cisco Nexus 5548UP switches in FCoE mode. The storage array is connected via native FC to an MDS 9700. The FCoE switches are connected to the MDS via FC uplinks. Recently, the storage team deployed a new FCoE initiator that requires access to a specific LUN. After configuring the zone and VSAN, the initiator cannot discover the target. The zone includes the pWWN of the target and the FCoE initiator's pWWN (derived from its MAC address). The initiator is in VSAN 100, and the target is in the same VSAN. The MDS show flogi database shows the initiator. The show fcoe database on the Nexus shows the initiator but the session is not active (state: FIP-VN_Port not logged in). The engineer checks the FIP snooping policy and notices that the FCoE VLAN to VSAN mapping is correct. What is the most likely issue?

A.The MDS does not have a route to the FCoE initiator's VSAN
B.The FCoE initiator is not using the correct VN_Port MAC address
C.The FIP snooping policy is blocking the FLOGI
D.The FCoE NPV is not enabled on the Nexus
AnswerC

FIP snooping uses ACLs to enforce zoning; if misconfigured, it can drop FLOGI frames.

Why this answer

The FCoE initiator appears in the FCoE database but is not logged in, indicating the FLOGI is being dropped. The FIP snooping policy on the Nexus switch may be blocking the FLOGI traffic because the initiator's MAC address is not in the allowed FCoE MAC list or the policy is misconfigured. Incorrect VN_Port MAC would prevent FCoE database entry, NPV is not required for FCoE native mode, and routing is not an issue within the same VSAN.

80
MCQhard

A data center uses FCoE on Nexus 9000 switches. The storage team reports inconsistent performance during peak times. Queuing drops are seen on the FCoE-enabled interfaces. Which QoS configuration change would best address the issue?

A.Enable WRED on the FCoE class
B.Increase MTU on the FCoE VLAN
C.Ensure sufficient buffer allocation for the no-drop class
D.Increase the number of pause frames on the no-drop class
AnswerC

Correct: Allocating more buffers to the no-drop class prevents drops.

Why this answer

In FCoE networks, lossless behavior is required for storage traffic, which is enforced by priority flow control (PFC) on the no-drop class. Queuing drops on FCoE-enabled interfaces indicate that the no-drop class is experiencing buffer exhaustion under congestion. Increasing buffer allocation for the no-drop class ensures that FCoE frames are not dropped, maintaining the lossless fabric required by Fibre Channel over Ethernet.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that pause frames alone guarantee lossless delivery, but the trap is that insufficient buffer allocation for the no-drop class will still cause drops under burst conditions, regardless of pause frame configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection) is a congestion avoidance mechanism for drop-tolerant traffic (e.g., best-effort), and enabling it on the FCoE no-drop class would cause random drops, violating the lossless requirement of FCoE. Option B is wrong because increasing MTU on the FCoE VLAN does not address queuing drops caused by buffer congestion; FCoE already uses jumbo frames (typically 2500 bytes), and MTU changes affect frame size, not buffer allocation or drop behavior. Option D is wrong because increasing the number of pause frames on the no-drop class would not solve buffer exhaustion; pause frames are used by PFC to signal backpressure, but if the buffer is already full, additional pause frames cannot prevent drops—proper buffer sizing is needed to absorb bursts.

81
MCQmedium

An engineer needs to connect a Cisco MDS switch to a core Fibre Channel fabric using NPV mode. What port type will the edge switch's uplink ports assume in this scenario?

A.NP-port
B.N-port
C.E-port
D.F-port
AnswerA

NP-port is the uplink port type in NPV mode.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the edge switch presents NP-ports to the core fabric, which appear as N-ports to the core switch.

82
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring CHAP authentication for iSCSI. Which two statements about CHAP are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.CHAP authentication is optional and can be disabled.
B.CHAP provides encryption of iSCSI data.
C.CHAP authentication is only used for discovery sessions.
D.CHAP requires a shared secret between initiator and target.
E.CHAP uses a digital certificate for authentication.
AnswersA, D

CHAP can be enabled or disabled per iSCSI session.

Why this answer

CHAP uses a three-way handshake (challenge, response, verification) and can be configured as one-way (target authenticates initiator) or mutual (both authenticate).

83
MCQeasy

An engineer notices that a Fibre Channel link between two Cisco MDS 9000 series switches is flapping every few minutes. The interface counters show a high number of CRC errors. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.NPV mode enabled on the switch
B.Incorrect zoning configuration
C.Faulty SFP or optical cable
D.VSAN mismatch between switches
AnswerC

CRC errors point to physical layer problems.

Why this answer

CRC errors on a Fibre Channel link indicate physical-layer corruption of frames, typically caused by faulty optics, dirty or damaged fiber cables, or marginal signal integrity. Flapping occurs because the link repeatedly fails to maintain proper synchronization due to excessive bit errors, triggering port reset or re-initialization. A faulty SFP or optical cable directly introduces noise or attenuation that corrupts the data stream, leading to CRC errors and link instability.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between physical-layer issues (CRC errors, flapping) and logical/configuration issues (VSAN mismatch, zoning, NPV), tempting candidates to select a configuration-based answer when the symptoms clearly point to a hardware fault.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) mode is a switch feature that allows a switch to act as a proxy for end devices, reducing domain IDs; it does not cause physical-layer CRC errors or link flapping. Option B is wrong because incorrect zoning configuration affects which devices can communicate (access control) but does not introduce bit errors or physical-layer corruption on the link. Option D is wrong because a VSAN mismatch between switches prevents the link from coming up at all (the port will be isolated or disabled), not cause intermittent flapping with CRC errors.

84
MCQhard

A company has two data centers connected via a WAN link using an FCIP tunnel between two Cisco MDS 9700 switches. The FCIP link is configured on a GigabitEthernet port with an MTU of 1500 bytes and uses IPSec for encryption. Recently, storage replication traffic has become slow, and the administrator notices high TCP retransmissions on the FCIP interface. The administrator checks the bandwidth utilization and sees it is only 50% of the link capacity. The storage arrays report no errors or performance issues on their local switches. The administrator also verifies that the FCIP profile is configured correctly and that compression is enabled but not causing any errors. What is the most likely cause of the TCP retransmissions?

A.The WAN link has packet loss due to a duplex mismatch.
B.IPSec encryption introduces too much overhead.
C.The FCIP profile is configured with compression that is causing delays.
D.The TCP window size is too small for the latency.
AnswerD

A TCP window size that is too small for the latency prevents the sender from transmitting enough data to fill the pipe. This leads to underutilization (50%) and can cause retransmissions when the retransmission timer expires because the sender is waiting for ACKs. In FCIP, it is crucial to tune the TCP window to the bandwidth-delay product.

Why this answer

High TCP retransmissions and 50% utilization on an FCIP link over a high-latency WAN are classic symptoms of a TCP window size that is too small for the latency. When the TCP window is insufficient, the sender cannot keep the pipe full, leading to idle periods and retransmissions when the sender's retransmission timer expires while waiting for acknowledgments. In FCIP, the TCP window should be adjusted based on the bandwidth-delay product.

A duplex mismatch would cause collisions and errors, but the absence of reported errors and only 50% utilization suggests the issue is not physical layer. IPSec overhead adds processing delay but rarely causes retransmissions. Compression delays are not significant enough to cause retransmissions.

Therefore, option D is correct.

85
MCQeasy

Which FC port type is used for end-device connection in Fibre Channel fabric, and is typically found on a host bus adapter?

A.NP-port
B.E-port
C.F-port
D.N-port
AnswerD

N-port is the node port on end devices like HBAs.

Why this answer

N-port is the standard port type for end devices in Fibre Channel.

86
Drag & Dropmedium

Sequence the steps to configure a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect (FI) for the first time.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Initial FI setup involves IP assignment, cluster mode, user creation, uplink config, and verification.

87
MCQhard

In a multipath Fibre Channel SAN, which component is responsible for selecting the active path for I/O operations?

A.The storage target
B.The Fibre Channel switch
C.The fabric name server
D.The initiator (host HBA and multipath driver)
AnswerD

Multipath software on the host decides which path to use.

Why this answer

In a multipath Fibre Channel SAN, the initiator (host HBA and multipath driver) is responsible for selecting the active path for I/O operations. The multipath driver, such as Cisco MDS N-Port Virtualization or native OS multipathing (e.g., Linux DM-Multipath), uses path selection policies (e.g., round-robin, least-queued, or active/passive) to choose the path for each I/O request. The storage target, switch, and fabric name server do not make per-I/O path decisions; they only provide connectivity or discovery services.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the Fibre Channel switch or storage array controls path selection, but in reality, the initiator's multipath driver is the sole decision-maker for active I/O paths.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the storage target (LUN or array controller) presents logical units but does not select the active path for I/O; it responds to commands sent by the initiator. Option B is wrong because the Fibre Channel switch forwards frames based on destination addresses and does not perform per-I/O path selection; it is unaware of multipath policies. Option C is wrong because the fabric name server provides device discovery and address resolution (e.g., FCNS queries) but does not participate in I/O path selection.

88
MCQhard

In an FCoE environment, a CNA presents a VN-port to the network. Which protocol is used to establish the virtual link between the VN-port and the FCoE switch's VF-port?

A.ARP
B.FIP
C.LLDP
D.DHCP
AnswerB

FIP handles FCoE virtual link initialization.

Why this answer

FIP (FCoE Initialization Protocol) is used for discovery, login, and virtual link establishment between VN-ports and VF-ports. It replaces FC's fabric login (FLOGI) over Ethernet.

89
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting a SAN that uses FCoE. The FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) discovery phase is failing for one server. The server is connected to a Cisco Nexus switch configured for FCoE. Which command should be checked first?

A.show vlan fcoe
B.show npv status
C.show dcbx parameters
D.show priority-flow-control
AnswerA

This command shows FCoE VLANs and VSAN mappings, which are critical for FIP.

Why this answer

The FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) discovery phase relies on FCoE VLANs being properly configured and active on the switch. The 'show vlan fcoe' command displays the FCoE VLANs and their status, which is the first place to check when FIP discovery fails because the server must be in the correct FCoE VLAN to discover the FCF (FCoE Forwarder). If the FCoE VLAN is missing or not mapped correctly, FIP discovery will fail.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between FCoE VLAN configuration (show vlan fcoe) and DCBX/PFC settings, trapping candidates who confuse FIP discovery failures with lossless fabric issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'show npv status' is used to verify N_Port Virtualization (NPV) mode, which is relevant only when the switch is operating as an NPV device (e.g., connecting to a core Fibre Channel switch), not for basic FCoE VLAN discovery. Option C is wrong because 'show dcbx parameters' displays Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX) parameters like CoS and PFC configurations, which are important for FCoE traffic but do not directly affect FIP discovery phase failures. Option D is wrong because 'show priority-flow-control' shows PFC settings per interface, which ensures lossless behavior for FCoE but is not the first command to check when FIP discovery fails; PFC misconfiguration would cause data corruption or timeouts, not a failure to discover the FCF.

90
MCQhard

A storage administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between a server and a storage array over Fibre Channel. The server is connected to an NPV edge switch, which uplinks to a core switch. The server's WWPN is registered in the zone, but the server cannot see the target. The administrator notices that the core switch does not see the server's WWPN in its FC name server database. What is the most likely cause?

A.The host is using an incorrect FCID
B.The VSAN mismatch between edge and core switches
C.The NPV edge switch does not register host WWPNs in the core fabric's name server; only the NP-port WWPN is registered
D.The zone set is not activated on the edge switch
AnswerC

NPV mode causes the edge switch to proxy the host's login, but the host's WWPN is not registered on the core.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the edge switch does not propagate WWPNs to the core's name server; instead, the NP-port's WWPN is seen. The core sees the edge switch's NP-port WWPN, not the host's WWPN.

91
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are valid methods to configure zoning in a Cisco MDS 9000 series switch?

Select 2 answers
A.IP address zoning
B.MAC address zoning
C.Domain/port (DID) zoning
D.Interface (fc-port) zoning
E.pWWN zoning
AnswersC, E

Uses FC domain ID and port number, another standard method.

Why this answer

C is correct because Domain/Port (DID) zoning uses the Fibre Channel domain ID and port number to identify members, which is a standard zoning method on Cisco MDS switches. DID zoning is configured using the `zone` command with the `domain-id,port-number` syntax, providing a hardware-based zoning approach that does not rely on WWNs.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Fibre Channel zoning methods and Ethernet-based concepts; candidates mistakenly choose IP or MAC zoning because they are familiar with network-layer segmentation, but Fibre Channel zoning operates at the FC-2 layer using WWNs or DIDs.

92
Multi-Selectmedium

A storage engineer is planning an FCoE deployment in a data center. The network must support lossless Ethernet for Fibre Channel traffic. Which three Data Center Bridging (DCB) features are required? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Priority Flow Control (PFC)
B.Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
C.Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
D.Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
E.Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX)
AnswersA, C, E

PFC ensures no frame loss for FCoE traffic.

Why this answer

PFC (Priority Flow Control) provides per-priority pause for lossless transmission. ETS (Enhanced Transmission Selection) allocates bandwidth among traffic classes. DCBX (Data Center Bridging Exchange) allows peers to exchange DCB configuration parameters.

93
MCQhard

A Cisco MDS switch is configured as an NPV switch to connect to a core switch. Which statement about NPV operation is true?

A.The NPV switch allocates FC IDs to end devices from its own pool.
B.The NPV switch uses FDISC to register multiple N-Port IDs from a single physical link.
C.The NPV switch requires at least one VSAN to be defined as a fabric VSAN.
D.The NPV switch performs fabric login (FLOGI) on behalf of all attached end devices.
AnswerB

NPV uses FDISC to multiplex multiple N-Port IDs over the NP uplink to the core.

Why this answer

In N_Port Virtualization (NPV) mode, a Cisco MDS switch acts as a passthrough device that aggregates multiple end-device N_Ports onto a single uplink to a core Fibre Channel switch. The NPV switch uses the Fabric Discovery (FDISC) protocol to register multiple N_Port IDs (NPIV) from a single physical link, allowing each end device to obtain its own FC ID from the core switch. This is correct because NPV does not assign FC IDs itself but relies on the core switch for fabric login and address assignment.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that an NPV switch performs fabric login or assigns FC IDs locally, when in fact it only forwards FLOGI/FDISC requests to the core switch and never allocates addresses itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an NPV switch does not allocate FC IDs from its own pool; it forwards FLOGI/FDISC requests to the core switch, which assigns FC IDs from the fabric's address space. Option C is wrong because NPV does not require any VSAN to be defined as a fabric VSAN; NPV switches operate in a passthrough mode and do not participate in fabric services like VSAN-based zoning or name server. Option D is wrong because the NPV switch does not perform FLOGI on behalf of end devices; each end device performs its own FLOGI (or FDISC for NPIV) to the core switch, and the NPV switch merely forwards these requests.

94
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is deploying iSCSI storage in a data center. Which two features should be configured to improve performance and redundancy? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Jumbo frames (MTU 9000)
B.VSAN
C.CHAP authentication
D.FCoE
E.MPIO
AnswersA, E

Jumbo frames improve performance by reducing overhead.

Why this answer

MPIO provides path redundancy and load balancing; jumbo frames reduce CPU overhead and improve throughput.

95
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel addressing component uniquely identifies a port on a storage array and is used for zoning and target identification?

A.FCID
B.WWPN
C.WWN
D.WWNN
AnswerB

WWPN uniquely identifies a Fibre Channel port.

Why this answer

A WWPN (World Wide Port Name) is a globally unique 64-bit identifier assigned to each Fibre Channel port. It is used for zoning and target identification.

96
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel port type is used to connect two Cisco MDS switches together to form an inter-switch link (ISL)?

A.N-port
B.E-port
C.NP-port
D.F-port
AnswerB

E-port is the correct type for ISL connections.

Why this answer

An E-port (Expansion port) is used for links between Fibre Channel switches to form the fabric.

97
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. The interface fc1/1 is configured as an E_port. The connected switch also has an E_port configured. However, the interface shows an 'init' state. What is the most likely cause?

A.The domain ID is not configured on either switch.
B.The speed on the remote switch interface is set to 8000 Mbps.
C.The port VSAN on the local interface is different from the remote.
D.The remote switch interface is not configured as a trunk.
AnswerB

E_ports require matching speed settings to establish a link.

Why this answer

The 'init' state on an E_port indicates that the link is up but the port is still initializing the Exchange Link Parameters (ELP) and Exchange Switch Capabilities (ESC) protocols. If the remote switch interface speed is set to 8000 Mbps (8 Gbps) while the local interface is configured for a different speed (e.g., 4 Gbps or 16 Gbps), the speed negotiation will fail, preventing the E_port from transitioning to the 'online' state. Cisco MDS switches require matching speed settings on both ends of an E_port for successful initialization.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'init' and 'isolated' states, where candidates mistakenly attribute VSAN mismatch or domain ID issues to 'init', but the correct cause is often a speed mismatch or incompatible port parameters during ELP negotiation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the domain ID is assigned dynamically via the principal switch selection process during fabric formation; an unconfigured domain ID does not prevent E_port initialization but may cause a domain ID conflict later. Option C is wrong because a mismatched port VSAN between local and remote interfaces would cause the port to enter an 'isolated' state, not 'init', as VSAN mismatch is detected after ELP exchange. Option D is wrong because E_ports are inherently trunk ports in Fibre Channel; the concept of a 'trunk' in this context refers to VSAN trunking, which is optional and not required for basic E_port operation.

98
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A new host is connected to interface fc1/3. It is not appearing in the flogi database. The switch is in NPV mode. What is the most likely reason?

A.The FCID is already allocated.
B.The host's WWPN is already in use by another device.
C.The interface is configured as an NP port.
D.The interface is in a different VSAN than the host's FLOGI.
E.The host's HBA is not compatible with NPV.
AnswerC

An NP port expects connection to a core switch, not a host; thus hosts cannot log in through it.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, a switch operates as a proxy for FLOGI requests, forwarding them upstream to the core switch. For an interface to accept a host FLOGI, it must be configured as an F port. If the interface is configured as an NP port (which is intended for uplink to the core), it will not accept or forward FLOGI frames from the host.

Therefore, the host never appears in the flogi database.

Exam trap

Candidates often misunderstand NPV port roles, incorrectly thinking that an NP port is used for host connections. In reality, NP ports are for upstream links, while host-facing ports must be F ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an FCID allocation conflict would generate a specific error during FLOGI, but the host is not even appearing in the flogi database, indicating the FLOGI never reached the fabric. Option B is wrong because a duplicate WWPN would cause a login rejection or conflict, but again the host would still attempt FLOGI and appear briefly; the absence from the database suggests no FLOGI was processed. Option D is wrong because VSAN mismatch would cause the FLOGI to be dropped or rejected, but the host would still attempt to send a FLOGI and the interface would show some activity; the complete lack of appearance points to a port-mode issue.

Option E is wrong because HBA compatibility with NPV is not a common restriction; NPV is designed to work with standard Fibre Channel HBAs, and incompatibility would manifest as link issues, not a silent failure to appear in the flogi database.

99
MCQhard

A data center architect is designing an FCoE deployment. The network must support lossless Ethernet for storage traffic. Which set of IEEE standards must be enabled on the Ethernet switches to meet this requirement?

A.802.3ae (10GbE), 802.3ba (40/100GbE), 802.3by (25GbE)
B.802.1Q (VLAN tagging), 802.1p (CoS), 802.3ad (LACP)
C.802.1X (port security), 802.1AE (MACsec), 802.1AR (secure device identity)
D.802.1Qbb (PFC), 802.1Qaz (ETS, DCBX)
AnswerD

These are the DCB standards that enable lossless Ethernet for FCoE.

Why this answer

FCoE requires lossless Ethernet provided by Priority Flow Control (PFC - 802.1Qbb), Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS - 802.1Qaz), and Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX - 802.1Qaz).

100
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. The interface shows CRC errors. What is the most likely cause of these errors?

A.Insufficient buffer credits for the distance.
B.The port is configured as F port but should be E port.
C.Speed mismatch between the ports.
D.Faulty SFP or fiber cable.
AnswerD

CRC errors are typically caused by signal degradation from hardware.

Why this answer

CRC errors indicate that frames are being received with invalid checksums, which is typically caused by physical-layer issues such as a faulty SFP module or damaged fiber cable. These errors occur when the cyclic redundancy check computed by the receiver does not match the CRC appended by the sender, pointing to corruption during transmission. In Fibre Channel storage networks, a faulty SFP or cable is the most common root cause of CRC errors, as they directly affect signal integrity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between physical-layer errors (CRC, alignment errors) and flow-control issues (buffer credits, credit loss), leading candidates to mistakenly attribute CRC errors to buffer credit problems or port configuration mismatches.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because insufficient buffer credits cause credit starvation and frame drops, not CRC errors; CRC errors are a physical-layer issue, not a flow-control issue. Option B is wrong because configuring a port as F port instead of E port would cause a port type mismatch and prevent link initialization, not generate CRC errors on an established link. Option C is wrong because a speed mismatch between ports would prevent the link from coming up entirely or cause link flaps, not produce CRC errors on a stable link; CRC errors occur on a link that is already up and passing traffic.

101
MCQhard

On a Cisco MDS 9700, an engineer configures an FC port channel with 4 member interfaces. The connected storage array also supports port channels. Which load-balancing algorithm provides the best distribution of I/O when the array uses multiple LUNs per target?

A.Source ID (SID) and Destination ID (DID)
B.Source and destination port ID
C.Source FC ID (OXID) and destination FC ID (RXID)
D.Source and destination WWPN
AnswerC

Using exchange IDs (OXID/RXID) provides per-exchange load balancing, spreading I/O across LUNs better.

Why this answer

The OXID (Originator Exchange ID) and RXID (Responder Exchange ID) provide per-exchange granularity, which distributes I/O across all member links in the FC port channel. When multiple LUNs are presented under a single target (same DID), algorithms based on SID/DID or WWPN would hash all traffic to the same link, causing imbalance. The OXID/RXID algorithm ensures that each Fibre Channel exchange (e.g., each SCSI command) can be load-balanced independently, maximizing throughput.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between static identifiers (SID, DID, WWPN) and dynamic per-exchange identifiers (OXID/RXID), trapping candidates who assume that any source-destination pair will distribute I/O evenly across a port channel, ignoring the reality of multiple LUNs behind a single target.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SID and DID are static identifiers per initiator-target pair; with multiple LUNs under one target, all I/O would hash to the same link, offering no distribution. Option B is wrong because source and destination port IDs (FC port addresses) are also static per fabric login, leading to the same imbalance as SID/DID. Option D is wrong because source and destination WWPNs are globally unique but static per N-port; all traffic between a given initiator and target WWPN would hash to a single link, failing to leverage multiple LUNs for load balancing.

102
MCQmedium

An iSCSI storage array is configured to support multipath I/O (MPIO) for high availability. The administrator needs to configure the initiator to use multiple network paths. What must be ensured for MPIO to work correctly?

A.The initiator must have multiple network interfaces and the storage must support multiple connections to the same LUN.
B.CHAP authentication must be disabled for MPIO.
C.All paths must use the same IP address on the initiator.
D.The storage array must present each LUN with a different LUN ID on each path.
AnswerA

MPIO requires multiple paths from initiator to target.

Why this answer

For MPIO to function, the initiator must have multiple network interfaces and the storage array must present the same LUNs via multiple target portal groups, each accessible via different IP addresses.

103
Multi-Selectmedium

A data center is implementing iSCSI with MPIO. Which three components are required for MPIO to function? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Multiple network interfaces on the initiator
B.CHAP authentication
C.Jumbo frames enabled
D.Multiple iSCSI sessions
E.Multiple target IP addresses (portals)
AnswersA, D, E

Needed to create multiple paths.

Why this answer

MPIO requires multiple network paths between initiator and target, multiple network interfaces (or HBAs) on the initiator, and multiple target portals (IP addresses) on the storage array. A single session cannot leverage MPIO.

104
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco NX-OS feature to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Virtual device context for partitioning a switch

Virtual routing and forwarding for network segmentation

Virtual PortChannel for multi-homing with loop prevention

Fabric Extender for remote linecard connectivity

Power-On Auto Provisioning for zero-touch deployment

Why these pairings

The correct matches are VDC with logical partitioning, VRF with multiple routing tables, FEX with remote line card, and Port Channel with link bundling. Common confusion is between VDC and VRF.

105
MCQmedium

A company uses hard zoning based on World Wide Names (WWNs) to control access between servers and storage arrays. An administrator needs to add a new server with WWPN 50:00:00:00:00:00:01:23 to the zone. What is an advantage of hard zoning over soft zoning?

A.Hard zoning requires less configuration effort.
B.Hard zoning allows devices to communicate across VSANs.
C.Hard zoning is enforced by the switch hardware and provides better security.
D.Hard zoning prevents unauthorized devices from accessing the fabric even if they spoof a WWN.
AnswerC

Hard zoning uses hardware enforcement, preventing traffic from devices not in the zone.

Why this answer

Hard zoning uses the FC address (or WWN) and is enforced by the switch ASIC, providing security even if a device spoofs its WWN? Actually, hard zoning by WWN uses the WWN to assign FC addresses and enforces zoning at the hardware level, while soft zoning relies on name server queries and can be bypassed. Hard zoning provides better security.

106
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A server with WWPN 10:00:00:00:c9:2b:1a:5f is zoned to two storage ports in zone Server1_Storage1 and to one storage port in zone Server1_Storage2. The server can access the LUNs through the first zone but not through the second. What is the most likely cause?

A.The second zone does not include the second storage controller's port
B.The storage port 20:00:00:00:c9:2b:1a:6c is in a different VSAN
C.The zone set has not been activated
D.The server is not allowed to be in multiple zones
AnswerA

The server may need both storage paths to access LUNs; missing port causes no path.

Why this answer

The server can access LUNs through zone Server1_Storage1 because both storage ports in that zone are from the same storage controller or are properly configured for multipathing. However, zone Server1_Storage2 contains only one storage port (20:00:00:00:c9:2b:1a:6c), and if that port belongs to a different storage controller that is not zoned with the server's WWPN correctly, or if the second storage controller's port is missing from the zone, the server cannot discover or access LUNs through that path. In Fibre Channel zoning, each zone must include the initiator and at least one target port from the storage controller that owns the LUNs; if the second zone omits the required storage controller port, access fails.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that an initiator cannot be in multiple zones, but the real trap is that each zone must include the correct storage controller port that owns the LUNs, not just any storage port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if the storage port 20:00:00:00:c9:2b:1a:6c were in a different VSAN, the server would not be able to see it at all from either zone, yet the server can access LUNs through the first zone, indicating the port is in the same VSAN. Option C is wrong because if the zone set had not been activated, neither zone would work, but the server successfully accesses LUNs through the first zone, proving the zone set is active. Option D is wrong because Cisco MDS/Nexus Fibre Channel switches allow an initiator to be a member of multiple zones simultaneously; this is standard practice for multipathing and is not a restriction.

107
Multi-Selectmedium

A storage administrator is troubleshooting a Fibre Channel SAN where initiators cannot log in to a target. The administrator verifies that the VSAN is configured correctly and that zoning is in place. Which two additional checks should be performed to resolve the issue?

Select 2 answers
A.Ensure NPIV is enabled on the F-port.
B.Confirm that FCID persistence is not enabled with invalid static FCIDs.
C.Verify that port security is not blocking the initiator WWPN.
D.Verify the FCoE VLAN ID matches on both ends.
E.Check that LUN masking has been applied on the target.
AnswersB, C

Invalid static FCID persistence can cause login failures if the FCID is already in use or conflicting.

Why this answer

In a Fibre Channel SAN, FCID persistence assigns a specific FCID to a device each time it logs in. If an invalid static FCID is configured (e.g., an FCID that conflicts with another device or is outside the allowed range), the initiator may fail to log in because the switch cannot assign the requested address. This is a common cause of login failures even when VSAN and zoning are correctly configured.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between fabric-level login issues (like FCID persistence or port security) and storage-level issues (like LUN masking), leading candidates to incorrectly select LUN masking as a cause of login failure.

108
MCQmedium

A Fibre Channel fabric has multiple initiators and targets. The engineer wants to ensure that only specific hosts can access specific storage volumes. Which zoning practice is most secure?

A.Zoning by storage array aliases
B.Single-initiator zoning with WWPNs
C.Using VSANs instead of zones
D.Soft zoning with domain/port IDs
AnswerB

Correct: Single-initiator zoning is the most secure practice.

Why this answer

Single-initiator zoning with WWPNs is the most secure practice because it creates a one-to-one mapping between a single initiator and its target(s) using the globally unique World Wide Port Name. This eliminates any possibility of unauthorized access or interference from other initiators, as each zone contains exactly one initiator, preventing any form of 'spoofing' or 'zoning overlap' that could allow a rogue host to access storage volumes it should not see.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that VSANs alone provide sufficient security, but the trap is that VSANs isolate traffic at the fabric level, not at the device level, so zoning is still required within each VSAN to control which initiators can access which targets.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because zoning by storage array aliases relies on administrator-defined names that can be duplicated or misconfigured, and it does not enforce the strict isolation of single-initiator zoning; it often groups multiple initiators together, reducing security. Option C is wrong because VSANs provide isolation at the fabric level (Layer 2) but do not replace the need for zones within a VSAN; they separate traffic between different VSANs but within a VSAN, zoning is still required to control access between specific initiators and targets. Option D is wrong because soft zoning with domain/port IDs uses the switch port number (domain,port) which can change if a cable is moved or a device is reconnected to a different port, making it less secure and less stable than WWPN-based hard zoning.

109
MCQmedium

A server administrator reports that a newly provisioned application server cannot access its LUN on the storage array. The SAN zoning uses WWPNs. The administrator verifies that the server's HBA WWPN is correctly zoned with the storage port's WWPN. Which additional check should the engineer perform to isolate the issue?

A.Confirm that VSAN interop is enabled on the MDS switch
B.Verify that the zone set is activated and that the zones are in the active zone set
C.Ensure that the switch port is configured in F mode and local switching is enabled
D.Check whether FCIP is configured on the storage array
AnswerB

Zone set must be active for zoning to take effect.

Why this answer

Even if the WWPNs are correctly configured in the zone, the zone set must be activated for the zoning to take effect. Without activation, the zone configuration remains in the pending or offline zone set, and the Fibre Channel fabric will not enforce the access controls. The engineer should verify that the zone set is activated and that the zones appear in the active zone set using commands like 'show zoneset active' on the MDS switch.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between configuring a zone and activating the zone set, because candidates assume that creating a zone automatically applies it to the fabric.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VSAN interop is not a standard feature on MDS switches; VSANs are isolated by default and inter-VSAN routing (IVR) would be needed for communication between VSANs, but this is unrelated to a LUN access issue within the same VSAN. Option C is wrong because switch ports in F mode (fabric port) are used to connect to N-port devices like HBAs, and local switching is enabled by default on MDS switches; neither setting would prevent a correctly zoned HBA from accessing its LUN. Option D is wrong because FCIP is used for extending Fibre Channel over IP networks, not for local SAN connectivity; it is irrelevant to a server accessing its LUN on a directly connected storage array.

110
MCQmedium

A storage array uses thin provisioning. A volume is created with a virtual size of 1 TB but only 100 GB of physical storage is allocated initially. What happens when the host writes data beyond the currently allocated physical space?

A.The write fails immediately.
B.The array automatically extends the volume by allocating more physical blocks from the pool.
C.The host must reconfigure the volume size.
D.The volume is expanded to 1 TB physical.
AnswerB

Thin provisioning allocates on demand.

Why this answer

Thin provisioning allocates physical storage on demand. Additional storage is allocated from a shared pool as needed. The array may overcommit, but writes succeed as long as pool has free space.

111
MCQmedium

A medium-sized enterprise has a Cisco UCS environment with two Fabric Interconnects (FIs) in a cluster. There are 10 blade servers, each with a VIC 1340 adapter. The SAN consists of two MDS 9148S switches in a VSAN for storage. Each server is configured with two vHBAs (primary and secondary) connecting to the SAN via the FIs. Recently, after a firmware upgrade on the MDS switches, several servers are unable to boot from SAN. The storage administrator confirms that the storage array LUNs are accessible from the MDS switches. The UCS administrator reports that the vHBAs show a 'link down' status on the FI. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue?

A.Reconfigure the vHBAs on the UCS Manager with new WWPNs.
B.Check the storage array LUN masking and re-apply LUN access.
C.Verify the active zone set on the MDS switches and re-activate it if necessary.
D.Downgrade the MDS firmware to the previous version.
AnswerC

Firmware upgrade may deactivate the zone set.

Why this answer

The 'link down' status on the vHBAs indicates that the Fibre Channel fabric is not properly delivering the FLOGI (Fabric Login) response to the initiators. Since the storage LUNs are accessible from the MDS switches, the issue is likely that the active zone set was deactivated or not saved after the firmware upgrade, preventing the vHBAs from logging into the fabric. Re-activating the zone set on the MDS switches will re-establish the FC zones and allow the vHBAs to complete FLOGI and resume boot from SAN.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between storage array LUN masking (target-side) and FC fabric zoning (switch-side); the trap here is that candidates assume a 'link down' on the vHBA must be a physical or HBA configuration issue, when in fact it is a fabric-level problem caused by missing or inactive zone sets after a switch upgrade.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing WWPNs would require re-zoning and re-masking on both the MDS and storage array, and the problem is not related to WWPN exhaustion or duplication. Option B is wrong because the storage administrator confirmed LUNs are accessible from the MDS, so LUN masking is already correct; the issue is at the FC fabric layer, not the storage array. Option D is wrong because downgrading firmware is a disruptive workaround that does not address the root cause (zone set activation state), and the problem is likely a configuration persistence issue after upgrade, not a firmware bug.

112
MCQhard

A data center administrator is implementing FCoE on a Cisco UCS fabric. The converged network adapters (CNAs) must communicate with the Fibre Channel storage array via the FCoE forwarder. Which FCoE port type is used on the CNA to connect to the FCoE forwarder?

A.VE-port
B.VN-port
C.VF-port
D.E-port
AnswerB

VN-port is the virtual N-port on the CNA, connected to a VF-port on the FCoE switch.

Why this answer

VN-port (Virtual N-port) is the FCoE equivalent of an FC N-port, used by the CNA to connect to the FCoE switch's VF-port (Virtual F-port).

113
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel address component uniquely identifies a port within a fabric and is assigned during fabric login (FLOGI)?

A.WWNN
B.FCID
C.Domain ID
D.WWPN
AnswerB

FCID is dynamically assigned during FLOGI.

Why this answer

The FCID (Fibre Channel ID) is a 24-bit address assigned by the switch upon FLOGI. It consists of Domain, Area, and Port fields. WWPN is a permanent identifier, not assigned dynamically.

114
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is configuring FCoE on a Cisco Nexus switch. Which two components are required for FCoE initialization? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP)
B.VN-port (Virtual N-port)
C.Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
D.FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP)
E.VF-port (Virtual F-port)
AnswersB, D

VN-port is the switch side virtual port that connects to the host's VN-port.

Why this answer

FIP is used to discover and initialize FCoE devices, and VN-ports are the virtual FC ports on the switch that connect to VN-ports on the host.

115
MCQhard

An engineer is designing a SAN to connect hosts to two storage arrays for redundancy. The hosts are dual-attached to two MDS switches. Each storage array has two controllers, each with a single FC port. The engineer wants to avoid a single point of failure and ensure that each host can reach both storage controllers. Which design should be used?

A.Connect both HBAs of each host to the same switch, and create zones that include both HBAs and both storage ports.
B.Connect each host HBA to a separate switch, and zone each HBA to one storage controller port.
C.Use NPV mode to simplify connectivity.
D.Connect each host HBA to a different switch, and zone each HBA to a specific storage controller, using zones that cross VSANs.
E.Connect each host HBA to a different switch, and zone each HBA to both storage controller ports.
AnswerE

This provides redundant paths at every layer: HBA, switch, and controller.

Why this answer

It provides full redundancy: each host HBA connects to a different MDS switch, and each HBA is zoned to both storage controller ports. This ensures that if a switch, HBA, or storage controller fails, the host can still reach at least one storage controller via the remaining path. The dual-zoning per HBA allows each host to access both controllers without a single point of failure, meeting the requirement for host-to-controller reachability.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that connecting both HBAs to the same switch is acceptable for redundancy, but the trap here is that a single switch failure would cause complete loss of connectivity, so each HBA must be on a different switch to eliminate that single point of failure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because connecting both HBAs of each host to the same switch creates a single point of failure at the switch level; if that switch fails, the host loses all connectivity. Option B is wrong because zoning each HBA to only one storage controller port means that if that specific controller port fails, the host cannot reach the other controller, violating the requirement for full redundancy. Option C is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) mode is used to simplify Fibre Channel fabric connectivity by reducing domain IDs, but it does not address the zoning or redundancy requirements for host-to-controller access.

Option D is wrong because zoning across VSANs is unnecessary and adds complexity; VSANs are used for isolation, not for providing redundant paths, and this design does not ensure each host can reach both storage controllers.

116
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is tuning performance for a storage network. Which two practices improve FC SAN performance?

Select 2 answers
A.Disabling flow control.
B.Using single-initiator zoning.
C.Ensuring adequate buffer credits.
D.Enabling broadcast zoning.
E.Setting fabric login timeout to the maximum.
AnswersB, C

Reduces inter-initiator traffic.

Why this answer

Single-initiator zoning (Option B) reduces inter-switch link (ISL) traffic and prevents fabric-wide disruptions by ensuring that only one initiator can communicate with a specific set of target ports. This minimizes the number of Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) and simplifies troubleshooting, directly improving FC SAN performance by reducing control-plane overhead.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that disabling flow control improves performance by reducing overhead, but in FC SANs, flow control (BB_Credit) is mandatory for lossless operation, and disabling it causes frame drops and retransmissions.

117
Multi-Selecthard

An organization uses synchronous replication between two storage arrays for disaster recovery. Which three characteristics apply to synchronous replication? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.It requires less bandwidth than asynchronous replication.
B.Write acknowledgment is sent only after data is written to both arrays.
C.It increases write latency compared to asynchronous replication.
D.It is suitable for long-distance links with high latency.
E.It provides zero Recovery Point Objective (RPO).
AnswersB, C, E

This ensures data consistency.

Why this answer

Synchronous replication writes data to both primary and secondary arrays before acknowledging the write. This ensures zero RPO and minimal data loss, but increases write latency due to the round trip. It is typically used over short distances.

118
MCQhard

An engineer is designing an NPV deployment to scale the number of hosts connected to a Fibre Channel fabric. In NPV mode, which port type is used on the NPV switch to connect to the core switch?

A.VN_port
B.E_port
C.F_port
D.NP_port
AnswerD

NP_port is the upstream port on an NPV switch that connects to a core switch's F_port.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the edge switch uses NP_ports to connect to the core switch's F_ports. NP_ports behave like N_ports and log in to the core fabric.

119
MCQeasy

A new storage administrator is configuring LUN masking on a Cisco MDS switch. The storage array presents two LUNs to the fabric with the same LUN ID (0) but to different target ports. The administrator wants to ensure that a specific host can access both LUNs. The host is connected to a single HBA port. The host will see both target ports in the same zone. After zoning, the host discovers both target ports but only sees the first LUN. The show flogi database shows the host's pWWN with two FC IDs assigned. What is the most likely issue?

A.The zone is misconfigured
B.The host is not configured for multipathing
C.There is a LUN ID conflict
D.The target LUNs are not masked to the host's pWWN
AnswerD

The storage array likely has LUN masking that only allows the first LUN for this host.

Why this answer

The host discovers both target ports via FLOGI but only sees the first LUN because the storage array has not been configured to mask the LUNs to the host's pWWN. LUN masking is an array-side access control that determines which initiator WWNs can see which LUNs; without it, the array defaults to presenting only the first LUN (LUN 0) to any initiator. The zone is correctly configured (both target ports are in the same zone and the host sees them), and the LUN ID conflict is irrelevant because the LUNs are on different target ports, so they can share the same LUN ID without conflict.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between zoning (fabric-level connectivity) and LUN masking (array-level access control), trapping candidates who assume zoning alone grants LUN visibility.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the zone is correctly configured: the host discovers both target ports, proving the zone includes both target ports and the host's pWWN. Option B is wrong because multipathing is a host-side driver configuration that affects path failover and load balancing, not the visibility of LUNs; the host already sees both target ports, so multipathing would not cause one LUN to be hidden. Option C is wrong because a LUN ID conflict occurs when two LUNs with the same ID are presented to the same initiator from the same target port, but here the LUNs are on different target ports, so sharing LUN ID 0 is allowed and does not cause one LUN to disappear.

120
Multi-Selectmedium

A storage administrator is configuring Fibre Channel zoning on a Cisco MDS switch to restrict access between initiators and targets. Which two statements about hard zoning vs. soft zoning are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Hard zoning uses the Fibre Channel name server to restrict access.
B.Both hard and soft zoning require the active zone set to be configured.
C.Hard zoning provides security against WWPN spoofing.
D.Soft zoning enforces access at the hardware level.
E.Soft zoning can be bypassed by a device that directly addresses another device.
AnswersC, E

Hard zoning uses hardware-based ACLs that filter by port or WWN, making it harder to spoof.

Why this answer

Hard zoning uses hardware ACLs to enforce access at the port level, providing security against WWPN spoofing. Soft zoning relies on the name server to filter responses, but a device can still attempt to communicate; it is less secure.

121
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO benefits does NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) provide in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enhances security by isolating traffic at the port level
B.Enables Fibre Channel connectivity for virtual machines
C.Increases throughput by aggregating bandwidth
D.Allows multiple VSANs on a single link
E.Reduces the number of physical ports needed for virtualized servers
AnswersB, E

Correct: VMs can have dedicated WWPNs.

Why this answer

NPIV allows a single physical N_Port to register multiple N_Port IDs (FCIDs) with the Fibre Channel fabric. This enables each virtual machine on a virtualized server to have its own unique WWN and FCID, providing direct Fibre Channel connectivity to storage without requiring a dedicated physical HBA per VM. By sharing a single physical port among multiple VMs, NPIV reduces the number of physical ports and HBAs needed in virtualized environments.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests NPIV alongside VSAN trunking and port channels, so the trap here is confusing NPIV's ability to assign multiple FCIDs per port with VSAN trunking or bandwidth aggregation, leading candidates to incorrectly select options about multiple VSANs or increased throughput.

122
MCQmedium

A Cisco MDS switch is configured with a VSAN and the administrator needs to assign a Fibre Channel port to this VSAN. Which command should be used in interface configuration mode to assign the port to VSAN 10?

A.vsan database vsan 10
B.switchport vsan 10
C.switchport mode vsan 10
D.vsan 10
AnswerB

This is the correct command to assign the interface to VSAN 10.

Why this answer

The 'switchport vsan' command is used to assign a Fibre Channel interface to a specific VSAN.

123
MCQeasy

Which feature allows a Fibre Channel switch to use multiple links between two switches as a single logical link?

A.NPIV
B.NPV
C.SAN port channel
D.SPAN
E.FCIP
AnswerC

SAN port channels bundle multiple ISL links into a single logical link.

Why this answer

SAN port channel (C) is correct because it allows multiple physical Fibre Channel links between two switches to be aggregated into a single logical link, providing load balancing and redundancy. This is achieved by bundling up to 16 physical ISLs into one logical interface, using a proprietary hashing algorithm to distribute frames across the member links while maintaining in-order delivery.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between SAN port channel (link aggregation) and NPV/NPIV (virtualization features), so the trap here is confusing link aggregation with virtualization or tunneling protocols like FCIP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) allows a single Fibre Channel N_Port to register multiple FC IDs, enabling virtualization, but it does not aggregate links. Option B is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) allows a switch to behave as a host to upstream switches, reducing domain IDs, but it does not bundle links. Option D is wrong because SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) is a Cisco feature for mirroring traffic to a monitor port, not for link aggregation.

Option E is wrong because FCIP (Fibre Channel over IP) tunnels FC frames over IP networks for long-distance connectivity, but it does not combine multiple physical links into a single logical link between two FC switches.

124
Multi-Selectmedium

A storage administrator is configuring iSCSI security. Which two methods can be used to authenticate iSCSI initiators to a target? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.CHAP
B.WWN zoning
C.IP-based access control lists
D.FCoE VLANs
E.VSAN membership
AnswersA, C

CHAP authenticates the initiator to the target.

Why this answer

CHAP is the standard authentication for iSCSI, and IP-based ACLs are a common access control method. Mutual CHAP is an option, but CHAP is the base.

125
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements about Fibre Channel zoning are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Zoning can be used to prevent unauthorized access to storage targets.
B.Zoning is required to increase the distance between a host and storage.
C.Zoning can only be applied within a single VSAN.
D.Zoning is used to load balance traffic across multiple paths.
E.Hard zoning uses ACLs to enforce membership at the frame level.
AnswersA, E

Zoning restricts communication between specific ports.

Why this answer

Fibre Channel zoning restricts which initiators can communicate with which targets, effectively preventing unauthorized access to storage LUNs. By defining zone members (via WWN or port ID), the fabric enforces these access controls at the switch level, ensuring that only devices within the same zone can exchange Fibre Channel frames.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between hard zoning (frame-level ACL enforcement) and soft zoning (name server filtering), and candidates mistakenly think zoning can increase distance or balance traffic, which are unrelated functions.

126
MCQmedium

An administrator is troubleshooting a performance issue in an FC SAN. The initiator and target are in the same VSAN. The link is 16 Gbps but throughput is only 4 Gbps. The engineer checks the BB_Credit utilization and sees a high count of BB_Credit zero. What is the most likely cause?

A.Congestion on the target port
B.High link error rates
C.Incorrect zoning configuration
D.Buffer-to-buffer credit exhaustion
AnswerD

BB_Credit zero means the port has run out of credits, causing pauses and low throughput.

Why this answer

BB_Credit zero indicates buffer-to-buffer credit exhaustion, which pauses transmission and reduces throughput. This is typically due to distance or small credit pool. Link errors would show CRC errors, congestion would cause other symptoms, and zoning is unrelated.

127
MCQmedium

A data center uses a Cisco MDS 9710 director with multiple line cards. The storage network includes several host servers connected to the director via 16 Gbps FC connections. Recently, the engineering team deployed a new storage array that supports 32 Gbps FC. To take advantage of the higher speed, they upgraded the host HBAs to 32 Gbps. However, after the upgrade, some hosts are experiencing intermittent connection drops. The team notices that when a host disconnects, it takes approximately 30 seconds to reconnect. The link lights on the host and switch ports are green. The switch logs show 'VSAN 100: Port fc1/1 is down (link failure)' messages. No other errors are reported. The MDS line cards support 32 Gbps, and the ports are configured with the 'speed 32000' command. What is the most likely cause of the intermittent drops?

A.Insufficient buffer credits on the host ports
B.Incompatible SFP+ modules
C.Inconsistent zoning configuration
D.Mismatched port speed configuration between host and switch
AnswerD

A mismatch (e.g., host at 16 Gbps, switch at 32 Gbps) can cause intermittent link drops.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is a speed mismatch between the host HBA and the switch port. Although the switch port is set to 32 Gbps, the HBA might be set to auto-negotiate or default to 16 Gbps, causing instability. The 30-second reconnect time is typical of speed negotiation failures.

Incompatible SFPs would cause persistent link failure, buffer credits cause throughput drops but not disconnects, and zoning would block connectivity.

128
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is configuring zoning on a Cisco MDS switch to ensure that two servers can only communicate with their assigned storage arrays. Which three statements about Fibre Channel zoning are correct? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Zoning is configured within a VSAN.
B.Only active zone sets can be modified.
C.Hard zoning based on WWN provides security by permitting only specific WWNs to communicate.
D.Soft zoning based on port numbers is more secure than hard zoning.
E.A zone can contain both initiators and targets.
AnswersA, C, E

Zoning is always configured within a VSAN context.

Why this answer

Zoning in Fibre Channel is configured within a VSAN, providing logical isolation. Hard zoning based on WWN enforces security by permitting only specific WWNs to communicate, offering strong access control. A zone can contain multiple devices, including both initiators and targets, allowing flexibility.

Soft zoning based on port numbers is less secure than hard zoning, and active zone sets can be modified only when activated, but zone sets can be created or modified without activation. Therefore, statements A, C, and E are correct.

129
MCQmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting a SAN performance issue. The show interface counters command shows high output discard counts on a particular Fibre Channel interface. What is the most likely cause?

A.High CRC errors on the link.
B.Insufficient buffer credits on the transmitting port.
C.Insufficient bandwidth due to latency.
D.Mismatched zone configurations.
AnswerB

Output discards happen when the port runs out of buffer credits.

Why this answer

High output discard counts on a Fibre Channel interface indicate that the transmitting port is attempting to send frames faster than the receiving port can accept them. This is most commonly caused by insufficient buffer credits on the transmitting port, which limits the number of frames that can be in flight before an acknowledgment is required. When buffer credits are exhausted, frames are discarded at the transmit side, leading to output discards.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between output discards (flow-control/buffer credit issue) and input errors (physical-layer issues like CRC), leading candidates to mistakenly attribute output discards to CRC errors or bandwidth limitations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because high CRC errors indicate physical-layer issues such as faulty cables or optics, not output discards; CRC errors are counted on the receiving side. Option C is wrong because insufficient bandwidth due to latency is not a direct cause of output discards; latency affects throughput but does not inherently cause frame discards at the transmit queue. Option D is wrong because mismatched zone configurations prevent communication between devices or cause login issues, but they do not result in output discard counters on a specific interface.

130
MCQeasy

A company is deploying a new storage array with dual controllers. Each controller has two 16 Gbps Fibre Channel ports. The engineer wants to connect each controller to two separate MDS switches for redundancy. What is the recommended port type configuration on the MDS switches for the storage-facing ports?

A.F port
B.Configure the port as auto to allow negotiation
C.NP port
D.E port
AnswerA

F ports connect N ports of end devices.

Why this answer

A is correct because an F port (Fabric port) is the standard port type on an MDS switch for connecting to an N_port (Node port) on a storage array's Fibre Channel controller. Since each controller has two 16 Gbps FC ports and each connects to a separate MDS switch for redundancy, the switch-facing ports must operate as F ports to establish a point-to-point link with the array's N_ports, enabling fabric services and proper zoning.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between port types (F, E, NP, and auto) in storage networking, and the trap here is that candidates confuse 'auto' (a speed negotiation setting) with a port type, or mistakenly think NP ports are used for direct storage connections instead of NPV environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because configuring the port as 'auto' is not a valid port type in Fibre Channel; it refers to speed negotiation, not port type, and the question asks for the recommended port type configuration. Option C is wrong because an NP port (Proxy N port) is used in NPV (N_Port Virtualization) mode on switches that connect to a core switch, not for direct storage array connections. Option D is wrong because an E port (Expansion port) is used for inter-switch links (ISL) between MDS switches, not for connecting storage devices.

131
MCQhard

A data center engineer is designing a storage network for a virtualized environment with 100 hosts and 50 storage arrays. Each host requires 4 Gbps of bandwidth to storage, and each storage array provides 8 Gbps. All devices use 16 Gbps FC links. What is the minimum number of 16 Gbps FC links required to support the total bandwidth demand without oversubscription?

A.50
B.200
C.100
D.25
AnswerD

25 links provide 400 Gbps of bandwidth (16 Gbps each) to meet total demand.

Why this answer

The total bandwidth demand from hosts is 100 hosts × 4 Gbps = 400 Gbps. Each storage array provides 8 Gbps, so total storage bandwidth is 50 arrays × 8 Gbps = 400 Gbps. Since all links are 16 Gbps FC, the minimum number of links required to carry 400 Gbps without oversubscription is 400 / 16 = 25 links.

This assumes full-duplex links and no oversubscription in the fabric.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept of aggregate bandwidth versus per-device bandwidth, leading candidates to incorrectly multiply host count by link speed or storage array count by link speed instead of summing the total bandwidth demand and dividing by link speed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (50) is wrong because it incorrectly assumes each storage array needs a dedicated 16 Gbps link, ignoring that the total bandwidth demand is 400 Gbps and 50 links would provide 800 Gbps, which is overkill and not minimal. Option B (200) is wrong because it mistakenly multiplies the number of hosts (100) by the per-host bandwidth (4 Gbps) and then divides by 8 Gbps (storage array bandwidth) or confuses link count with host count, leading to a gross overestimate. Option C (100) is wrong because it assumes each host requires a dedicated 16 Gbps link, ignoring that the aggregate demand is 400 Gbps and 100 links would provide 1600 Gbps, far exceeding the need.

132
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are best practices for Fibre Channel zoning on Cisco MDS switches?

Select 3 answers
A.Make zones as specific as possible, avoiding device inclusion across multiple zones unnecessarily
B.Use WWPN-based zoning instead of port-based zoning
C.Always activate the zone set using the 'zone activate' command in configuration mode
D.Use hard zoning (access control list enforcement)
E.Use soft zoning with name server response filtering
AnswersA, B, D

Making zones as specific as possible minimizes unnecessary device exposure and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or fabric disruption. Including devices across multiple zones unnecessarily can lead to complex troubleshooting and potential security gaps.

Why this answer

Options A, B, and D are best practices for Fibre Channel zoning on Cisco MDS switches. A: Making zones as specific as possible reduces unnecessary exposure and simplifies management. B: WWPN-based zoning is preferred over port-based zoning because it allows device mobility without reconfiguration.

D: Hard zoning provides hardware-level enforcement via access control lists, offering stronger security than soft zoning. Option C is incorrect because while activating the zone set is necessary, the correct command is 'activate zoneset' not 'zone activate', and it is a procedural step rather than a best practice.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between hard zoning and soft zoning, where candidates may incorrectly assume that soft zoning is a best practice due to its simplicity, but the exam emphasizes that hard zoning is the recommended method for security.

133
MCQhard

A large financial institution operates a dual-fabric Fibre Channel SAN with two separate MDS 9710 directors. Each fabric has multiple storage arrays and hundreds of hosts. The SAN is configured with VSANs to isolate different environments (production, development, backup). Recently, the backup VSAN has been experiencing slow performance during backup windows. Analysis shows that the ISLs between the directors in the backup VSAN are heavily utilized (near 100%) while other ISLs have spare capacity. The backup traffic consists of large sequential reads and writes. The SAN administrator has confirmed that there are no CRC errors or link issues. The backup VSAN uses a single 16 Gbps ISL. Which of the following is the best solution to improve backup performance?

A.Add an additional 16 Gbps ISL and configure a port channel for the backup VSAN.
B.Reduce the buffer credit count on the backup VSAN ISLs to reduce latency.
C.Enable QoS to prioritize backup traffic over other traffic.
D.Implement IVR to route backup traffic through the other fabric.
AnswerA

Increases bandwidth and load balancing.

Why this answer

Adding an additional 16 Gbps ISL and configuring a port channel for the backup VSAN increases the available bandwidth for backup traffic, which consists of large sequential reads and writes that can fully utilize the link. Port channels provide load balancing across member links based on source/destination IDs, effectively distributing the backup traffic and reducing congestion on the single ISL. This directly addresses the near-100% utilization without introducing complexity or relying on other fabrics.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that QoS or buffer tuning can solve bandwidth saturation issues, but the core problem here is insufficient aggregate bandwidth, which only adding physical links (via port channels) can resolve.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because reducing buffer credits on the ISL would actually increase latency and potentially cause frame drops, worsening performance, especially for long-distance links; buffer credits are used to absorb link latency, not to reduce it. Option C is wrong because QoS prioritization does not increase available bandwidth; it only reorders traffic, and since backup traffic is already the only traffic on that VSAN, prioritizing it would have no effect on the high utilization. Option D is wrong because IVR (Inter-VSAN Routing) would route backup traffic through the other fabric, but that fabric's ISLs are also shared with other VSANs and may not have spare capacity; moreover, IVR introduces additional complexity and potential security risks without guaranteeing improved performance, and the problem is bandwidth scarcity within the backup VSAN itself.

134
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE conditions can cause Fibre Channel buffer credit starvation? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Frequent CRC errors causing retransmissions
B.Long-distance links with insufficient credits allocated
C.High oversubscription ratio on the ISL
D.Multiple VSANs configured on the same trunk
E.Inadequate number of credits allocated to the port
AnswersA, B, E

Correct: Retransmissions consume credits without releasing them.

Why this answer

Frequent CRC errors indicate corrupted frames, which require retransmission. Each retransmission consumes an additional buffer credit, effectively starving the port of available credits for new transmissions. This leads to reduced throughput and potential credit starvation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between congestion (oversubscription) and buffer credit starvation, where candidates mistakenly associate high oversubscription with credit exhaustion, but credits are a per-port, per-link resource unrelated to oversubscription ratios.

135
MCQmedium

A storage administrator wants to isolate two Fibre Channel fabrics on the same physical switch infrastructure. Which technology should be used to achieve this isolation similar to VLANs in Ethernet?

A.PortChannels
B.Zoning
C.NPV
D.VSANs
AnswerD

VSANs partition the FC fabric into isolated logical SANs.

Why this answer

VSANs provide isolation in Fibre Channel networks analogous to VLANs.

136
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring a Cisco MDS switch for FCoE. Which two DCB features must be enabled to support FCoE traffic? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Jumbo frames
B.Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
C.Data Center Bridging Exchange (DCBX)
D.Priority Flow Control (PFC)
E.Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
AnswersC, D

DCBX is used to discover and configure DCB capabilities, including PFC.

Why this answer

FCoE requires lossless Ethernet. PFC provides no-drop priority for FCoE traffic, and DCBX is used to negotiate PFC and other parameters between peers.

137
MCQeasy

Which type of zoning uses the World Wide Port Name (WWPN) to define zone members, providing better security because WWPNs are globally unique?

A.Soft zoning by port
B.VSAN-based zoning
C.Hard zoning by WWPN
D.LUN masking
AnswerC

WWPN-based zoning is hard zoning and more secure.

Why this answer

Hard zoning by WWPN uses WWPNs to define members, and is considered more secure than soft zoning by port.

138
Multi-Selectmedium

A Cisco MDS switch is being configured for FCoE. Which three DCB components are required for lossless Ethernet operation? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DCBX (Data Center Bridging Exchange)
B.PFC (Priority Flow Control)
C.FIP (FCoE Initialization Protocol)
D.ETS (Enhanced Transmission Selection)
E.iSCSI
AnswersA, B, D

DCBX discovers and configures DCB parameters.

Why this answer

PFC, DCBX, and ETS are the three core DCB features required for FCoE.

139
MCQhard

During a SAN migration, an engineer connects new storage to an existing MDS switch. The new storage array is configured with WWPNs that were previously used by decommissioned servers. After zoning is updated, some servers fail to see the correct LUNs. What is the most likely cause?

A.The NPV feature is enabled on the switch causing proxy login issues.
B.Duplicate WWPNs exist in the fabric, causing device login conflicts.
C.The new storage is not in the same VSAN as the servers.
D.The switch is running an older firmware that does not support the new storage.
AnswerB

Reusing WWPNs without clearing the old entries leads to duplicate registrations.

Why this answer

The new storage array is configured with WWPNs that were previously used by decommissioned servers. When these WWPNs are introduced into the fabric, the switch detects duplicate WWPNs because the fabric name server still holds the old entries (or the devices are still logged in). This causes login conflicts, preventing the servers from correctly discovering the LUNs.

The correct answer is B.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept of duplicate WWPNs in the fabric as a subtle cause of device login failures, and the trap here is that candidates might overlook the reuse of WWPNs and instead blame VSAN misconfiguration or firmware issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) is used to aggregate multiple N-Ports into a single F-Port, and it does not cause proxy login issues related to duplicate WWPNs; it is unrelated to the scenario. Option C is wrong because the question states zoning is updated, implying the servers and storage are in the same VSAN; if they were not, zoning would not be effective, but the symptom is specific to LUN visibility, not VSAN mismatch. Option D is wrong because older firmware might cause feature incompatibility, but the specific symptom of servers failing to see correct LUNs after reusing WWPNs points directly to duplicate WWPN conflicts, not a generic firmware version issue.

140
MCQhard

An engineer is configuring FCoE on a Cisco MDS switch and needs to ensure that the switch can communicate with FCoE-enabled servers. Which FCoE port type should be used on the switch to connect to a server's CNA?

A.VE_port
B.VF_port
C.NP_port
D.VN_port
AnswerB

VF_port is the switch port that connects to a VN_port on a CNA.

Why this answer

In FCoE, a VF_port (Virtual F_port) on the switch connects to a VN_port (Virtual N_port) on the server's CNA. This is analogous to an F_port connecting to an N_port in native FC.

141
MCQmedium

A data center uses FCoE to consolidate storage and LAN traffic. Which IEEE standard ensures that FCoE frames are not dropped due to congestion by providing lossless Ethernet?

A.ETS (Enhanced Transmission Selection)
B.FIP (FCoE Initialization Protocol)
C.PFC (Priority Flow Control)
D.DCBX (Data Center Bridging Exchange)
AnswerC

PFC provides lossless Ethernet by pausing traffic per priority.

Why this answer

Priority Flow Control (PFC, IEEE 802.1Qbb) creates lossless lanes by pausing traffic on specific priorities to prevent drops. ETS allocates bandwidth, and DCBX exchanges capabilities.

142
MCQmedium

Which FCoE port type is analogous to an N-port in traditional Fibre Channel and connects to a VF-port on an FCoE switch?

A.VF-port
B.VE-port
C.NP-port
D.VN-port
AnswerD

VN-port is the host-side port, analogous to N-port.

Why this answer

In FCoE, VN-port is the virtual equivalent of an N-port, and VF-port is the equivalent of an F-port. A VN-port connects to a VF-port.

143
MCQmedium

A storage administrator configures a new Cisco MDS switch and enables NPV mode. However, the upstream switch shows the NPV switch as an end device instead of a switch. What is the most likely reason?

A.The upstream switch port is configured as an E port.
B.NPIV is not enabled on the upstream switch.
C.The NPV switch has a domain ID that conflicts with the upstream switch.
D.The NPV switch is configured with N port mode.
AnswerB

Without NPIV, the upstream switch treats the NPV device as a regular end device.

Why this answer

When NPV mode is enabled on a Cisco MDS switch, it operates as an N-port proxy, requiring the upstream Fibre Channel switch to support NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization). NPIV allows multiple FC IDs to be assigned to a single N port, which is essential for the NPV switch to present multiple end devices behind a single physical link. Without NPIV enabled on the upstream switch, the NPV switch is treated as a single end device (like a server HBA) rather than as a switch fabric element.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse NPV with NPIV or assume that enabling NPV on the downstream switch automatically configures the upstream switch, when in fact NPIV must be explicitly enabled on the upstream switch to support the NPV proxy behavior.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because configuring the upstream switch port as an E port would create an ISL between two switches, but NPV mode requires the upstream port to be an F port (fabric-facing) to accept NPIV-enabled N-port connections; an E port would not allow NPV to function at all. Option C is wrong because domain ID conflicts are irrelevant in NPV mode—NPV switches do not participate in fabric domain ID assignment; they are transparent and do not have their own domain ID. Option D is wrong because the NPV switch is explicitly configured with N port mode (not F port mode) on its upstream-facing interfaces, which is correct behavior; the issue is that the upstream switch lacks NPIV support, not that the NPV switch is in N port mode.

144
MCQhard

A storage network using Cisco MDS 9700 switches has two VSANs (100 and 200). The engineer wants to share a physical ISL between both VSANs while maintaining traffic isolation. Which feature should be used?

A.VSAN trunking
B.PortChannel with trunk mode on
C.Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR)
D.FSPF metric manipulation
AnswerA

VSAN trunking allows multiple VSANs over a single link with isolation.

Why this answer

VSAN trunking allows a single physical ISL to carry traffic for multiple VSANs by adding a VSAN tag to each frame, ensuring traffic isolation between VSANs 100 and 200. This is the native Cisco MDS feature designed for sharing inter-switch links across VSANs without merging their control planes or forwarding tables.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between VSAN trunking and Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR), where candidates mistakenly choose IVR because they think 'sharing' implies routing between VSANs, but the question specifically requires traffic isolation, not inter-VSAN communication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because PortChannel with trunk mode on bundles multiple physical links into a single logical link but does not inherently enable multiple VSANs over a single ISL; VSAN trunking must be explicitly configured on the PortChannel. Option C is wrong because Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR) is used to route traffic between different VSANs, not to share an ISL while maintaining isolation; it actually breaks isolation by allowing communication across VSANs. Option D is wrong because FSPF metric manipulation affects path selection within a single VSAN's fabric and has no role in enabling multiple VSANs over a shared link.

145
Multi-Selecthard

A Cisco MDS switch is configured for NPV mode. An upstream NPIV-enabled switch is connected. The administrator notices that the NPV switch is not logging in to the NPIV switch. The NPV switch shows the following: 'show npv status' indicates NPV is enabled but no traffic. Which three conditions could cause this issue?

Select 3 answers
A.FSPF is not enabled on the NPV switch.
B.The uplink interface on the NPV switch is not configured as an NP port.
C.The upstream switch is not configured for NPIV mode.
D.The NPV switch does not have the proper license for NPV mode.
E.The VSAN on the NPV uplink does not match the VSAN on the core switch.
AnswersB, C, E

NPV uplinks must be configured as NP ports to connect to the core NPIV switch.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the uplink interface on the NPV switch must be explicitly configured as an NP port (np). If the interface is left as a default F port or another port type, it cannot establish a connection to the upstream NPIV-enabled switch. The 'show npv status' output showing NPV enabled but no traffic indicates that the NPV switch is operational but the uplink is not properly configured to initiate the FLOGIN process.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that NPV requires a license or that FSPF must be enabled, when in fact NPV is license-free and does not use FSPF; the real issue is typically an incorrect port mode or VSAN mismatch.

146
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel port type is used to connect a host bus adapter (HBA) to a Fibre Channel switch in a point-to-point topology?

A.E-port
B.F-port
C.N-port
D.NP-port
AnswerC

N-port is the host port in a point-to-point connection to a fabric.

Why this answer

An N-port (Node port) is used on the host side, and an F-port (Fabric port) is used on the switch side. The question asks for the host side port type.

147
MCQmedium

A Cisco MDS switch is being configured to support multiple isolated Fibre Channel fabrics over a single physical infrastructure. Which feature should be used to achieve this isolation?

A.VLANs
B.PortChannels
C.VSANs
D.Zoning
AnswerC

VSANs create isolated Fibre Channel fabrics.

Why this answer

Virtual SANs (VSANs) provide fabric isolation by creating separate logical fabrics within a single physical switch infrastructure, similar to VLANs in Ethernet.

148
MCQeasy

A storage administrator has deployed a Fibre Channel fabric with two MDS switches. Each host has a single HBA. Which port type is used to connect the HBA to the switch?

A.N-port
B.F-port
C.E-port
D.NP-port
AnswerA

N-port is the host (node) port, connected to an F-port on the switch.

Why this answer

An N-port is a host (node) port that connects to an F-port on the switch. The HBA operates in N-port mode by default.

149
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is configuring iSCSI multipath I/O (MPIO) for a storage array. Which two conditions are required for MPIO to operate correctly? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The storage array must be configured with multiple target portals (IP addresses).
B.The target must present a single IP address for all paths.
C.The initiator must have multiple network interfaces connected to different subnets.
D.The initiator and target must use CHAP authentication.
E.Jumbo frames must be enabled on all switches.
AnswersA, C

Multiple target portals allow connection to different paths.

Why this answer

MPIO requires multiple network paths between the initiator and target. The target must present multiple IP addresses (one per path) and the initiator must have multiple network interfaces.

150
MCQeasy

An engineer is configuring a new Fibre Channel switch in a Cisco MDS environment. The switch will connect to end devices such as servers and storage arrays. Which two port types will be used on the switch to connect to these end devices?

A.F_port and FL_port
B.NP_port and VF_port
C.E_port and TE_port
D.N_port and NL_port
AnswerA

F_ports connect to N_ports on end devices; FL_ports connect to NL_ports in loop topologies.

Why this answer

On a Fibre Channel switch, F_ports connect to N_ports on hosts and storage. N_ports are on end devices, not on the switch. E_ports are for ISLs between switches.

NP_ports are used in NPV mode.

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