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CCNA New Solutions Questions

75 of 487 questions · Page 4/7 · New Solutions topic · Answers revealed

226
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a legacy monolithic application to AWS. The application currently uses a shared file system for storing user uploads. The solution architect needs to design a highly available and scalable storage solution that supports concurrent read/write operations from multiple EC2 instances. Which AWS service should be used?

A.Amazon FSx for Windows File Server
B.Amazon S3 with S3 File Gateway
C.Amazon EFS
D.Amazon EBS with Multi-Attach enabled
AnswerC

EFS provides a scalable, shared file system accessible from multiple EC2 instances.

Why this answer

Amazon EFS provides a fully managed, elastic NFS file system that supports concurrent read/write access from thousands of EC2 instances across multiple Availability Zones. It is designed for high availability and scalability, automatically growing and shrinking as files are added or removed, making it ideal for a shared file system for user uploads in a migrated monolithic application.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon EBS Multi-Attach with a true shared file system, overlooking its single-AZ limitation and the need for a cluster-aware file system, or they mistakenly choose S3 File Gateway thinking it provides native file system semantics, when in fact it adds latency and complexity for concurrent write workloads.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon FSx for Windows File Server is optimized for Windows-based workloads requiring SMB protocol support and Active Directory integration, not for general-purpose Linux-based concurrent access from multiple EC2 instances. Option B is wrong because Amazon S3 with S3 File Gateway presents an NFS or SMB mount point backed by S3, but it introduces latency and caching complexity, and S3 itself is an object store, not a POSIX-compliant file system suitable for concurrent read/write locking. Option D is wrong because Amazon EBS with Multi-Attach enabled supports only up to 16 Nitro-based EC2 instances in a single Availability Zone, lacks cross-AZ high availability, and does not provide a shared file system interface (it is a block-level device requiring a cluster-aware file system).

227
MCQhard

A company is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda, Amazon API Gateway, and Amazon DynamoDB. They need to ensure that the application can handle sudden spikes in traffic without throttling. Which design should they implement?

A.Use Lambda provisioned concurrency and an API Gateway usage plan.
B.Enable DynamoDB auto scaling and configure Lambda function reserved concurrency.
C.Configure Lambda function reserved concurrency and an API Gateway cache.
D.Use DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) and Lambda function reserved concurrency.
AnswerB

Auto scaling handles throughput spikes; reserved concurrency prevents throttling of the function.

Why this answer

Enabling DynamoDB auto scaling automatically adjusts read/write capacity to handle traffic spikes, while configuring Lambda reserved concurrency ensures that the function has a guaranteed pool of concurrency available, preventing throttling from other functions. Option A (Lambda provisioned concurrency) reduces cold starts but does not prevent throttling; API Gateway usage plans control client access rates but do not handle backend spikes. Option C (reserved concurrency) alone prevents other functions from using concurrency but does not address DynamoDB throttling; API Gateway cache reduces read load but not write spikes.

Option D (DAX) is a caching layer for DynamoDB reads, not a scaling mechanism for traffic spikes.

228
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new microservices architecture using AWS Lambda. Each microservice has its own database. The company wants to securely store database credentials and rotate them automatically. Which AWS service should be used?

A.AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
B.AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
C.AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D.AWS Secrets Manager
AnswerD

Secrets Manager supports automatic rotation.

Why this answer

AWS Secrets Manager is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to securely store, manage, and automatically rotate database credentials for services like Amazon RDS, Redshift, and DocumentDB. It supports built-in rotation with AWS Lambda, ensuring credentials are rotated on a schedule without manual intervention, which directly meets the requirement for automatic rotation in a microservices architecture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Parameter Store's secure string parameter with Secrets Manager, but Parameter Store lacks native automatic rotation, which is the critical requirement in this question.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS KMS is a key management service for encryption keys, not for storing or rotating secrets like database credentials; it can encrypt secrets but does not manage rotation. Option B is wrong because AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store can store secrets but lacks native automatic rotation capabilities—it requires custom solutions or integration with Secrets Manager for rotation. Option C is wrong because IAM is used for access control and permissions, not for storing secrets or rotating credentials; it cannot store database passwords or manage their lifecycle.

229
MCQmedium

A company is designing a data lake on Amazon S3. The data will be ingested from various sources, including streaming data from IoT devices. The data must be processed in near real-time to derive insights. The company wants to use serverless technologies to minimize operational overhead. Which combination of services should the company use?

A.AWS Lambda, Amazon DynamoDB Streams, and Amazon S3.
B.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics, and Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.
C.Amazon SQS, AWS Lambda, and Amazon S3.
D.Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose, AWS Glue, and Amazon S3.
AnswerB

Kinesis Data Streams ingests streaming data, Kinesis Data Analytics processes it in real-time, and Firehose loads it into S3.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams ingests and stores streaming IoT data durably, Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics performs near real-time processing using SQL or Apache Flink, and Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivers the processed data to Amazon S3 for the data lake. This combination is fully serverless, scales automatically, and meets the near real-time requirement without managing any infrastructure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse batch ETL (AWS Glue) or simple message queuing (SQS) with true streaming analytics, missing that Kinesis Data Analytics is the only option that provides native, serverless, near real-time stream processing with stateful operations like windowing and aggregations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DynamoDB Streams is designed for change data capture from DynamoDB tables, not for ingesting high-throughput streaming data from IoT devices; it lacks the buffering, fan-out, and analytics capabilities needed for near real-time processing. Option C is wrong because Amazon SQS is a message queue for decoupling applications, not a streaming ingestion service; it does not support ordered, replayable, or near real-time analytics on continuous data streams. Option D is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose alone cannot perform near real-time analytics—it is a delivery service that can only apply simple transformations (e.g., Lambda) but lacks native stream processing with windowing, aggregations, or joins; AWS Glue is a batch ETL service, not a streaming analytics engine.

230
MCQhard

A company is designing a multi-region active-active application that uses Amazon DynamoDB global tables. The application must be able to handle write conflicts that may occur when the same item is updated in two different regions at the same time. The company needs to ensure that the application uses the most recently written data. What should the architect recommend?

A.Use the default last writer wins conflict resolution
B.Use optimistic locking with a version number
C.Use DynamoDB Streams to capture changes and reconcile conflicts
D.Use conditional writes to prevent overwrites
AnswerA

DynamoDB global tables use LWW based on a timestamp attribute to ensure the most recently written data is kept.

Why this answer

Amazon DynamoDB global tables use a last writer wins (LWW) conflict resolution mechanism based on the timestamp of the update. When concurrent updates to the same item occur in different regions, DynamoDB automatically compares the update timestamps and retains the most recently written data. This satisfies the requirement to use the most recently written data without requiring custom reconciliation logic.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often overthink conflict resolution and choose complex options like streams or optimistic locking, not realizing that DynamoDB global tables already handle this automatically with LWW, which is the simplest and most appropriate solution for ensuring the most recently written data is used.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because optimistic locking with a version number prevents overwrites by rejecting stale updates, but it does not resolve conflicts by keeping the most recent write; it would cause writes to fail instead of automatically selecting the latest data. Option C is wrong because DynamoDB Streams can capture changes but do not provide built-in conflict resolution; using streams to reconcile conflicts would require custom application logic and would not automatically ensure the most recently written data is used. Option D is wrong because conditional writes prevent overwrites when a condition is not met, which would cause write failures rather than resolving conflicts by keeping the latest write.

231
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An architect is troubleshooting an EC2 instance that is not responding to health checks from an Application Load Balancer. The instance is in the 'running' state. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.The security group is blocking the health check traffic.
B.The instance is in a stopped state.
C.The instance is impaired due to an AWS issue.
D.The instance has exhausted its CPU credits.
AnswerA

A misconfigured security group can block health checks even if the instance is running.

Why this answer

The most likely cause for a running EC2 instance not responding to ALB health checks is that the security group associated with the instance is not allowing incoming health check traffic from the ALB. Option B is incorrect because the instance is in the 'running' state, not stopped. Option C is incorrect because if the instance were impaired due to an AWS issue, its status checks would fail, but the instance is running.

Option D is incorrect because CPU credits affect performance but do not prevent the instance from responding to health checks; the instance would still respond even with low CPU credits.

232
MCQeasy

A company wants to store application logs in Amazon S3 with a lifecycle policy that moves objects to S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval after 30 days and deletes them after 1 year. The logs are accessed frequently in the first 30 days but rarely after. Which storage class should the company use for the first 30 days?

A.S3 Standard
B.S3 Standard-IA
C.S3 One Zone-IA
D.S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
AnswerA

S3 Standard is appropriate for frequently accessed data. It has no retrieval fees, making it cost-effective for logs accessed multiple times in the first 30 days. The lifecycle transition to Glacier Instant Retrieval after 30 days is seamless.

Why this answer

S3 Standard is the correct choice because the logs are accessed frequently during the first 30 days. Standard provides low-latency access with no retrieval fees, and the lifecycle policy can transition objects to S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval after 30 days. For data that is accessed multiple times within a short retention period, Standard is more cost-effective than Standard-IA, which incurs retrieval fees and a 30-day minimum storage charge.

Exam trap

The common trap is selecting S3 Standard-IA (Option B) due to its lower storage cost, but failing to account for retrieval fees and the 30-day minimum charge. For frequently accessed data with short retention, S3 Standard is more cost-effective.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (S3 Standard) is wrong because it is designed for frequently accessed data with no cost savings for infrequent access patterns; using it for the first 30 days would incur higher storage costs than necessary since the logs are not accessed constantly. Option C (S3 One Zone-IA) is wrong because it stores data in a single Availability Zone, which does not provide the durability and availability required for application logs that may need to be recovered after a zone failure; the question does not indicate tolerance for such risk. Option D (S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval) is wrong because it is intended for long-term archival with retrieval times ranging from minutes to hours, not for data that is accessed frequently within the first 30 days; it would introduce unacceptable latency for the initial frequent access pattern.

233
MCQhard

A company is building a high-performance computing (HPC) cluster on AWS for genomics research. The compute nodes require low-latency inter-node communication. Which networking solution should be used?

A.Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA)
B.Enhanced Networking (ENA)
C.VPC Peering
D.AWS Direct Connect
AnswerA

EFA provides low-latency, high-throughput inter-node communication for HPC.

Why this answer

Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA) is a network interface that enables HPC and machine learning applications to achieve low-latency inter-node communication by bypassing the operating system kernel and providing OS-bypass capabilities via the Libfabric library. This is essential for tightly coupled HPC workloads like genomics research, where MPI (Message Passing Interface) jobs require microsecond-level latency and high throughput between compute nodes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Enhanced Networking (ENA) with Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA), assuming both provide similar low-latency benefits, but only EFA offers OS-bypass for HPC inter-node communication, while ENA still relies on kernel processing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Enhanced Networking with ENA) is wrong because while it provides higher bandwidth and lower jitter than standard networking, it still operates through the kernel network stack and does not support OS-bypass, so it cannot achieve the ultra-low latency required for tightly coupled HPC inter-node communication. Option C (VPC Peering) is wrong because it is a logical connection between VPCs used for routing traffic, not a physical network adapter or interface; it does not reduce latency or provide OS-bypass for compute nodes within the same cluster. Option D (AWS Direct Connect) is wrong because it establishes a dedicated network connection from on-premises to AWS, not between compute nodes within a VPC; it is irrelevant to inter-node communication latency inside an HPC cluster.

234
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a disaster recovery solution for a critical application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances in a single AWS Region. The application uses an Amazon RDS for MySQL database. The recovery time objective (RTO) is 1 hour and the recovery point objective (RPO) is 15 minutes. Which combination of steps should the company take to meet these requirements? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Use Amazon Route 53 health checks to monitor the primary application and configure DNS failover to the secondary Region.
B.Configure a Multi-AZ deployment for the RDS database in the primary Region.
C.Deploy the application on Amazon Aurora Global Database.
D.Create an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) of the EC2 instances and copy it to the secondary Region. Use an Auto Scaling group to launch instances from the AMI.
E.Create a cross-Region read replica of the RDS MySQL database in the secondary Region.
AnswersA, D, E

Route 53 health checks and failover route traffic to the secondary Region when the primary fails.

Why this answer

Route 53 health checks can monitor the primary application's endpoint, and DNS failover to a secondary Region enables automatic traffic redirection within minutes, aligning with the 1-hour RTO. This approach provides a simple, stateless failover mechanism without requiring complex routing changes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Multi-AZ deployments (which provide high availability within a Region) with cross-Region disaster recovery, failing to recognize that Multi-AZ does not protect against a full Region outage.

235
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that will run on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The application must handle sudden spikes in traffic without manual intervention. Which scaling strategy should be used?

A.Manual scaling by operations team
B.Simple scaling with a cooldown period
C.Scheduled scaling based on historical data
D.Target tracking scaling policy
AnswerD

Target tracking dynamically adjusts capacity to maintain a metric target.

Why this answer

Target tracking scaling policy is the correct choice because it automatically adjusts the number of EC2 instances to maintain a specified target metric (e.g., average CPU utilization or request count per target) without manual intervention. This policy uses a built-in metric and dynamically calculates the required capacity to handle sudden traffic spikes, aligning with the requirement for automatic scaling under unpredictable load.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'scheduled scaling' (which works for predictable patterns) with 'dynamic scaling' (which handles unpredictable spikes), and may overlook that target tracking is the only fully automated policy that continuously adjusts capacity based on a real-time metric without manual cooldown tuning.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because manual scaling requires human intervention to add or remove instances, which cannot respond to sudden spikes in real time. Option B is wrong because simple scaling with a cooldown period uses a single step adjustment and then locks scaling actions during the cooldown, which can delay response to rapid traffic changes and cause under- or over-provisioning. Option C is wrong because scheduled scaling relies on predictable patterns from historical data and cannot react to unexpected spikes that deviate from the schedule.

236
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new application that will process streaming data from IoT devices. The data must be ingested in real-time and stored in Amazon S3 for long-term analytics. Which AWS service should be used to ingest the streaming data?

A.Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)
B.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
C.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
D.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
AnswerD

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams is purpose-built for real-time data streaming and can directly integrate with Amazon S3 for storage.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams is designed for real-time data ingestion and can stream data directly to Amazon S3. Option A is wrong because SNS is a pub/sub messaging service, not intended for real-time data ingestion. Option B is wrong because SQS is a message queue service, not optimized for streaming ingestion.

Option C is wrong because AWS DMS is used for database migration, not for ingesting streaming data.

237
MCQhard

A company is designing a new system that will ingest and process real-time streaming data from thousands of IoT devices. Each device sends data every second. The data must be processed with low latency (under 1 second) and then stored in Amazon S3 for long-term analytics. The company also needs to be able to reprocess data in case of processing errors. Which solution should the architect recommend?

A.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest data, AWS Lambda to process, and store in S3
B.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to ingest data, transform with Lambda, and store in S3
C.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) to ingest data into Amazon S3
D.Use Amazon SQS to buffer data, and an EC2 Auto Scaling group to process and store in S3
AnswerA

Kinesis Data Streams provides sub-second ingestion, Lambda can process in real-time, and data retention allows reprocessing.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams provides sub-second ingestion latency, which meets the under-1-second processing requirement. AWS Lambda can process each record with low latency and store the results directly in Amazon S3. Kinesis Data Streams also supports data replay for up to 365 days (default 24 hours), enabling reprocessing in case of errors.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Kinesis Data Firehose (which has higher latency due to buffering) with Kinesis Data Streams (which offers sub-second latency), leading them to choose Firehose for low-latency requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose has a minimum buffering interval of 60 seconds, which cannot achieve the required sub-second latency. Option C is wrong because AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) is designed for database migration and change data capture, not for real-time streaming ingestion from IoT devices. Option D is wrong because Amazon SQS does not support sub-second latency for streaming data and requires polling, which adds overhead; EC2 Auto Scaling adds management complexity and cannot guarantee the same low-latency processing as Lambda.

238
MCQeasy

A company wants to provide temporary, limited-privilege credentials to its application running on an EC2 instance so that the application can access an S3 bucket. What is the BEST practice for achieving this?

A.Use an S3 bucket policy to allow access from the EC2 instance's public IP
B.Create an IAM user and store the credentials in the EC2 instance user data
C.Store AWS access keys in the application code
D.Create an IAM role with the necessary permissions and attach it to the EC2 instance
AnswerD

An IAM role provides temporary credentials that are automatically rotated, which is secure and best practice.

Why this answer

The best practice is to use an IAM role, which provides temporary security credentials via the EC2 instance metadata service (IMDS). The application automatically retrieves these credentials without hardcoding secrets, and the credentials are rotated automatically by AWS. This approach follows the principle of least privilege and eliminates the security risks of long-term access keys.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think storing credentials in user data or code is acceptable for automation, but AWS explicitly prohibits this in favor of IAM roles for EC2 to avoid long-term credential exposure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because restricting access by EC2 instance public IP is not secure (IPs can change, and other AWS services or instances could share the same IP) and does not provide temporary credentials. Option B is wrong because storing IAM user credentials in EC2 user data exposes long-term access keys, which can be compromised and require manual rotation. Option C is wrong because hardcoding AWS access keys in application code is a severe security risk, as the keys are static, can be exposed in version control, and violate the principle of least privilege.

239
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will store sensitive customer data in Amazon S3. The data must be encrypted at rest. The company wants to use an encryption solution that provides an audit trail of when keys are used and by whom. The company also wants to rotate the encryption keys automatically every year. Which two options meet these requirements? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use server-side encryption with S3 managed keys (SSE-S3)
B.Use client-side encryption with an AWS KMS managed key
C.Use server-side encryption with customer-provided keys (SSE-C)
D.Use client-side encryption with a master key stored in AWS Secrets Manager
E.Use server-side encryption with AWS KMS managed keys (SSE-KMS)
AnswersB, E

Client-side encryption with KMS also provides audit trail and key rotation.

Why this answer

Client-side encryption with an AWS KMS managed key allows the application to encrypt data before uploading to S3, providing full control over key usage and an audit trail via AWS CloudTrail for every KMS API call (e.g., Encrypt, Decrypt). Option E is correct because SSE-KMS uses AWS KMS to manage the encryption keys, automatically rotates them annually (when using a KMS key with automatic rotation enabled), and logs all key usage in CloudTrail, meeting the audit trail requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume SSE-S3 (Option A) provides an audit trail because it encrypts data at rest, but they overlook that SSE-S3 does not log key usage in CloudTrail, making it unsuitable for the audit requirement, while SSE-KMS (Option E) is the only server-side option that meets both audit and rotation needs.

240
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new web application that will be deployed on Amazon ECS with Fargate. They need to store session state for the application. Which TWO services can they use for this purpose?

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon EFS
B.Amazon RDS
C.Amazon S3
D.Amazon ElastiCache for Redis
E.Amazon DynamoDB
AnswersD, E

Redis is commonly used for session state.

Why this answer

Amazon ElastiCache for Redis (option D) is commonly used for session state due to its low latency and in-memory data store capabilities. Amazon DynamoDB (option E) is also suitable for session state as it provides low-latency, scalable, and fully managed NoSQL database. Option A (Amazon EFS) is a file storage service, not ideal for session state.

Option B (Amazon RDS) is a relational database, which can be used but is not optimal for high-performance session state. Option C (Amazon S3) is an object store with higher latency, making it unsuitable for real-time session management.

241
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new web application that requires a scalable, low-latency key-value store for session state. The application runs on EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. Which solution is the MOST cost-effective and scalable?

A.Store session state on the local instance store of each EC2 instance.
B.Use Amazon ElastiCache for Redis.
C.Store session state in Amazon DynamoDB.
D.Store session state in Amazon RDS for MySQL.
AnswerB

ElastiCache Redis is optimized for low-latency key-value storage and is cost-effective.

Why this answer

Amazon ElastiCache for Redis provides a fully managed, in-memory key-value store that delivers ultra-low latency (sub-millisecond) for session state access. It is highly scalable, supports replication and clustering, and is more cost-effective than DynamoDB for high-throughput session workloads because it avoids per-request read/write costs and provides automatic failover for high availability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose DynamoDB (Option C) because it is serverless and scalable, but they overlook that for session state, an in-memory cache like Redis is more cost-effective and provides lower latency, while DynamoDB's per-request costs and higher latency make it less optimal for this specific use case.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because storing session state on the local instance store of each EC2 instance is not scalable (state is lost on instance termination or replacement) and cannot be shared across instances in an Auto Scaling group, leading to session loss during scaling events. Option C is wrong because Amazon DynamoDB, while scalable and durable, is not the most cost-effective for session state due to its per-request pricing and higher latency compared to an in-memory cache like Redis, especially for high-frequency read/write workloads. Option D is wrong because Amazon RDS for MySQL is a relational database with higher latency and cost for key-value session storage, and it lacks the in-memory performance and simple key-value access patterns needed for low-latency session state.

242
MCQhard

A company is designing a new cloud-native application that uses Amazon API Gateway, AWS Lambda, and Amazon DynamoDB. The application handles user authentication using Amazon Cognito User Pools. During a stress test, the team notices that some requests are failing with HTTP 503 (Service Unavailable) errors. The CloudWatch logs show that Lambda functions are being throttled, and the DynamoDB table is experiencing high write throttling. The team needs to resolve these issues while maintaining low latency. Which solution is the MOST effective?

A.Set Lambda reserved concurrency to a value that covers peak load and enable DynamoDB auto scaling with a target utilization of 70%.
B.Use Amazon SQS to buffer requests to Lambda and configure a DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) cluster for caching.
C.Increase the DynamoDB write capacity units to the maximum expected peak and configure Lambda provisioned concurrency.
D.Replace AWS Lambda with Amazon ECS on Fargate and use an Application Auto Scaling target tracking policy.
AnswerA

Reserved concurrency guarantees Lambda capacity; DynamoDB auto scaling adjusts capacity automatically.

Why this answer

Setting Lambda reserved concurrency ensures that the function always has capacity available to handle peak load without being throttled by the account-level concurrency limit, while DynamoDB auto scaling with a target utilization of 70% dynamically adjusts write capacity to match traffic patterns, preventing write throttling. This combination directly addresses both throttling issues without introducing additional latency from buffering or caching layers.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume buffering with SQS or caching with DAX will solve throttling, but these add latency or only address reads, not writes, while the correct solution directly manages concurrency and write capacity scaling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because using Amazon SQS to buffer requests to Lambda introduces additional latency and does not resolve the root cause of Lambda throttling or DynamoDB write throttling; DAX caches reads, not writes, so it does not help with write throttling. Option C is wrong because increasing DynamoDB write capacity units to the maximum expected peak is cost-inefficient and does not adapt to variable traffic, while Lambda provisioned concurrency is a valid approach but the option lacks the complementary DynamoDB scaling strategy needed for write throttling. Option D is wrong because replacing Lambda with Amazon ECS on Fargate adds operational complexity and does not directly address the throttling issues; Application Auto Scaling for ECS does not solve DynamoDB write throttling, and the migration is unnecessary for a serverless application.

243
MCQhard

A company is migrating a monolithic application to a serverless architecture using AWS Lambda. The application reads and writes to an Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL database. The database connection pool is exhausted during peak traffic. Which design change should a solutions architect recommend to avoid connection exhaustion?

A.Use Amazon SQS to buffer write requests to the database.
B.Use DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) as a caching layer.
C.Use Amazon RDS Proxy to pool and share database connections.
D.Increase the max_connections parameter in the RDS parameter group.
AnswerC

RDS Proxy manages connection pooling, reducing connection exhaustion from Lambda.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS Proxy sits between the Lambda function and the RDS database, managing a pool of database connections and reusing them across multiple invocations. This prevents the Lambda function from exhausting the database connection pool during traffic spikes, as each Lambda instance does not need to open its own connection. RDS Proxy also handles connection multiplexing and reduces the overhead of establishing new connections.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often think increasing max_connections or using a queue (SQS) is sufficient, but they overlook that Lambda's concurrent execution model requires connection pooling at the database layer, which RDS Proxy uniquely provides.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon SQS buffers write requests but does not address the root cause of connection exhaustion; it only decouples the write path, leaving read operations and other direct database interactions still vulnerable to connection pool exhaustion. Option B is wrong because DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) is an in-memory cache for DynamoDB, not for Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL, and it cannot pool or manage database connections. Option D is wrong because increasing the max_connections parameter only raises the limit, but does not prevent Lambda from opening too many connections; it can lead to resource contention and still exhaust database resources under high concurrency.

244
MCQeasy

A company is designing a serverless application using AWS Lambda that processes images uploaded to an S3 bucket. The processing time varies but typically completes within 5 minutes. The Lambda function needs to access a VPC-hosted database. What is the BEST way to configure the Lambda function to access the database while minimizing cold start latency?

A.Place the Lambda function outside the VPC and use a NAT gateway to reach the database
B.Place the Lambda function inside the VPC with a security group allowing access to the database
C.Use Amazon RDS Proxy to manage connections and keep Lambda outside the VPC
D.Use an Amazon VPC interface endpoint for Lambda and keep the function outside the VPC
AnswerD

Interface endpoints allow VPC access without placing Lambda in the VPC, reducing cold starts.

Why this answer

Using an Amazon VPC interface endpoint for Lambda allows the function to remain outside the VPC while securely accessing resources inside the VPC via AWS PrivateLink. This avoids the cold start latency penalty (often 10+ seconds) incurred when attaching a Lambda function to a VPC, which requires Elastic Network Interface (ENI) creation. The function can directly invoke the database through the interface endpoint without traversing the public internet or needing a NAT gateway.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Lambda must be placed inside the VPC to access VPC resources, overlooking that VPC interface endpoints (PrivateLink) allow secure, low-latency access without the cold start penalty of VPC attachment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because placing the Lambda function outside the VPC and using a NAT gateway would still require the function to traverse the internet to reach the database, introducing latency and security risks; moreover, NAT gateways are not designed for Lambda-to-VPC database access without VPC attachment. Option B is wrong because placing the Lambda function inside the VPC introduces significant cold start latency (often 10–30 seconds) due to the need to create and attach an ENI to the function's execution environment, which is especially problematic for a 5-minute timeout workload. Option C is wrong because Amazon RDS Proxy manages database connections but does not eliminate the need for the Lambda function to be inside the VPC or use a VPC endpoint; keeping Lambda outside the VPC without a VPC endpoint would still require public internet access or a NAT gateway, defeating the purpose of RDS Proxy's connection pooling.

245
MCQmedium

A company plans to migrate a relational database to Amazon RDS for MySQL. They need to minimize downtime during the migration. The source database is running on-premises. Which strategy should they use?

A.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) with ongoing replication.
B.Use AWS Snowball to transfer the data.
C.Use mysqldump to export the database and import into RDS.
D.Create a read replica of the on-premises database in RDS.
AnswerA

DMS supports continuous replication with minimal downtime.

Why this answer

AWS DMS with ongoing replication allows the source database to remain operational during migration, minimizing downtime. Option B is incorrect because AWS Snowball is designed for large-scale offline data transfer, not for ongoing replication to minimize downtime. Option C is incorrect because mysqldump requires taking a backup which causes downtime during the export/import process.

Option D is incorrect because a read replica can only be created from a source that is already in RDS, not from an on-premises database.

246
MCQeasy

A company is deploying a web application on AWS that must scale automatically based on CPU utilization. The application runs on Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. Which configuration is required for the Auto Scaling group to scale based on CPU?

A.Create a scheduled scaling action to add instances at peak times.
B.Create a simple scaling policy that adds one instance when CPU exceeds 50%.
C.Create a step scaling policy based on a CloudWatch alarm for CPU utilization.
D.Configure the ALB health check to mark instances unhealthy if CPU is high.
AnswerC

Step scaling adjusts capacity based on alarm thresholds.

Why this answer

A step scaling policy allows the Auto Scaling group to adjust capacity in increments based on the severity of a CloudWatch alarm, such as one monitoring CPU utilization. This provides more granular and responsive scaling than simple policies, as it can add or remove instances in steps (e.g., add 2 instances when CPU > 70%, add 1 when CPU > 50%) and supports cooldown and warm-up logic to avoid thrashing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse simple scaling policies with step scaling policies, assuming any policy based on a CloudWatch alarm is sufficient, but simple scaling lacks the multi-step responsiveness needed for dynamic CPU-based scaling and can lead to under-provisioning during rapid load changes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because scheduled scaling actions are time-based and do not respond to real-time CPU utilization; they are used for predictable traffic patterns, not dynamic scaling. Option B is wrong because a simple scaling policy can only perform a single adjustment (e.g., add one instance) when a CloudWatch alarm triggers, and it requires waiting for the entire cooldown period before responding to another alarm, making it less responsive and prone to oscillation. Option D is wrong because ALB health checks are designed to determine instance health based on application-level responses (e.g., HTTP 200), not CPU utilization; marking instances unhealthy based on CPU would cause the ALB to stop routing traffic, potentially dropping valid requests, and is not a supported mechanism for Auto Scaling.

247
MCQeasy

A company needs to provide a global content delivery solution with low latency. Which AWS service should they use?

A.Amazon S3
B.Amazon EC2
C.Amazon Route 53
D.Amazon CloudFront
AnswerD

CloudFront is a CDN for low-latency delivery.

Why this answer

Amazon CloudFront is a global content delivery network (CDN) that caches content at edge locations worldwide, reducing latency by serving data from the nearest edge to the user. It integrates with origins like S3, EC2, or on-premises servers and supports both static and dynamic content acceleration, making it the correct choice for low-latency global delivery.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon S3's static website hosting or Route 53's latency-based routing with actual content delivery, but neither provides the edge caching and global distribution that CloudFront offers for low-latency delivery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon S3 is an object storage service, not a content delivery network; it stores data in a single region and does not provide global edge caching or low-latency distribution on its own. Option B is wrong because Amazon EC2 is a compute service that runs virtual servers in specific regions; it lacks built-in global edge caching and would require manual scaling and additional services to achieve low-latency delivery worldwide. Option C is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is a DNS and traffic management service; it resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not cache or deliver content, so it cannot reduce latency for content delivery.

248
MCQhard

A company is designing a disaster recovery solution for a critical application that runs on EC2 instances in a single AWS Region. The application uses a custom AMI that is updated weekly. The recovery point objective (RPO) is 15 minutes, and the recovery time objective (RTO) is 4 hours. The solution must minimize cost while meeting these objectives. Which approach should be used?

A.Use EC2 Image Builder to create an updated AMI weekly and replicate it to another Region, then launch instances from the replicated AMI in the DR Region.
B.Use Amazon S3 cross-region replication to copy the application data to a bucket in another Region.
C.Use AWS CloudEndure Disaster Recovery for continuous replication of the entire server.
D.Manually create an AMI of the instance every week and copy it to another region using the AWS Management Console.
AnswerA

EC2 Image Builder automates AMI creation and replication, meeting RPO with scheduled builds and RTO by launching instances from the replicated AMI.

Why this answer

EC2 Image Builder automates weekly AMI creation and replication to another Region, ensuring a recent AMI is available for quick instance launch (meeting the 4-hour RTO). For the 15-minute RPO, the DR strategy relies on complementary data replication mechanisms (e.g., database or storage replication) which are more cost-effective than full server replication. Option A is the most efficient approach for the AMI component, while Options C and B are either unnecessarily costly or misaligned, and Option D is manual and error-prone.

249
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is designing a disaster recovery solution for an Amazon Aurora MySQL database. The database is currently in a single AWS Region. The company needs an RPO of less than 1 minute and an RTO of less than 5 minutes. Which TWO steps should the company take? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure an Aurora Global Database with a secondary cluster in another Region.
B.Create a read replica in another Region.
C.Use Amazon RDS Proxy to reduce failover time.
D.Enable Aurora Serverless auto scaling.
E.Enable Multi-AZ for the Aurora cluster.
AnswersA, C

Global Database provides cross-Region replication with low RPO.

Why this answer

Options A and C are correct. A: An Aurora Global Database with a secondary cluster in another Region provides replication with sub-minute RPO. C: Amazon RDS Proxy helps reduce failover time by managing database connections and routing traffic to the new primary during a failover, thus improving RTO.

Option B is incorrect because cross-Region read replicas in Aurora typically have higher replication lag, which does not meet the sub-minute RPO requirement; Aurora Global Database is the appropriate approach. Option D is incorrect because Aurora Serverless auto scaling does not address cross-Region disaster recovery. Option E is incorrect because Multi-AZ provides high availability within a single Region, but does not meet the cross-Region DR requirement with sub-minute RPO and sub-5-minute RTO.

250
MCQmedium

A company is designing a hybrid cloud architecture that requires low-latency connectivity between on-premises and AWS. The company has multiple branch offices connecting to a central data center. The data center must be connected to AWS with 10 Gbps throughput and high availability. Which solution should the company choose?

A.Use AWS Transit Gateway to connect multiple VPCs to on-premises via a single VPN.
B.Use a single AWS Direct Connect connection with a backup VPN over the internet.
C.Set up multiple AWS Site-to-Site VPN connections from the data center to the VPC.
D.Order two AWS Direct Connect connections from different providers and configure them in a LAG.
AnswerD

Multiple Direct Connect connections provide high availability and 10 Gbps throughput.

Why this answer

The requirement for 10 Gbps throughput and high availability mandates using two AWS Direct Connect connections from different providers, configured as a Link Aggregation Group (LAG). LAG aggregates multiple connections into a single logical interface, providing both increased bandwidth and redundancy. A single Direct Connect connection with a backup VPN (Option B) would not meet the 10 Gbps throughput requirement, as VPNs are typically limited to lower bandwidth and introduce latency.

Option A and C rely on VPNs, which cannot guarantee 10 Gbps throughput and may suffer from internet-based variability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a single Direct Connect connection with a VPN backup is sufficient for high availability, but the VPN backup cannot match the 10 Gbps throughput and introduces latency, failing the throughput requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Transit Gateway with a single VPN does not provide the required 10 Gbps throughput; VPN throughput is limited by the VPN endpoint and internet conditions, typically maxing out at 1.25 Gbps per tunnel. Option B is wrong because a single Direct Connect connection with a backup VPN does not meet the high availability requirement; the VPN backup introduces failover latency and cannot sustain 10 Gbps throughput during failover. Option C is wrong because multiple Site-to-Site VPN connections from the data center to the VPC cannot aggregate to 10 Gbps reliably; VPN throughput is per-tunnel limited (e.g., 1.25 Gbps per tunnel with ECMP), and internet-based VPNs are subject to jitter and packet loss.

251
MCQeasy

A company is troubleshooting a Lambda function that is timing out when trying to connect to an RDS database in a VPC. The Lambda function configuration is shown in the exhibit. The function has a timeout of 30 seconds and a memory size of 128 MB. The VPC has subnets in multiple Availability Zones, but the function only has one subnet configured. What change will MOST LIKELY resolve the timeout?

A.Add subnets from other Availability Zones to the VPC configuration.
B.Remove the VPC configuration to allow the function to access the internet.
C.Increase the function's memory size to 1024 MB.
D.Update the security group to allow all outbound traffic.
AnswerA

Multiple subnets improve availability and connectivity.

Why this answer

The Lambda function is timing out because it is configured with only one subnet, but the RDS database is in a VPC with subnets across multiple Availability Zones (AZs). Lambda requires at least one subnet per AZ used by the target resource to ensure network path availability; if the single subnet's AZ becomes unavailable or the RDS instance is in a different AZ, the connection fails. Adding subnets from other AZs provides redundant network paths, resolving the timeout.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume increasing memory or removing VPC configuration will fix connectivity issues, but the real problem is the lack of subnet redundancy across Availability Zones, which is a common misconfiguration in multi-AZ VPC designs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because removing the VPC configuration would disconnect the Lambda from the VPC entirely, preventing any access to the RDS database (which is inside the VPC), and would not resolve the timeout. Option C is wrong because increasing memory to 1024 MB improves CPU and network throughput but does not fix the fundamental network connectivity issue caused by missing subnets; the timeout is due to network path failure, not resource constraints. Option D is wrong because security group rules control inbound/outbound traffic, but the default security group already allows all outbound traffic; the issue is subnet misconfiguration, not firewall rules.

252
Matchingmedium

Match each AWS cost management tool to its use.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Visualize and explore cost and usage data

Set custom cost and usage budgets with alerts

Recommendations for cost optimization, performance, security

Flexible pricing model for compute savings

Recommend optimal compute resources based on usage

Why these pairings

Correct matches: Cost Explorer visualizes costs, Budgets set alerts, Trusted Advisor recommends optimizations, and CUR provides detailed data. Common confusions involve mixing tool capabilities.

253
Multi-Selecthard

A company is migrating a legacy application to AWS. The application consists of several components that communicate via TCP. The solutions architect must design a solution that minimizes operational overhead and provides high availability. Which TWO strategies should be used?

Select 2 answers
A.Use instance store volumes for data persistence.
B.Use managed services like Amazon RDS and Amazon ElastiCache to reduce operational overhead.
C.Use Spot Instances for all compute resources.
D.Use VPC Peering to connect components.
E.Use an Application Load Balancer to distribute traffic across multiple EC2 instances.
AnswersB, E

Managed services reduce overhead and provide HA out-of-the-box.

Why this answer

Using managed services like Amazon RDS and Amazon ElastiCache offloads administrative tasks such as patching, backups, and replication setup, significantly reducing operational overhead. Option E is correct because an Application Load Balancer (ALB) distributes incoming TCP traffic across multiple EC2 instances in different Availability Zones, providing high availability and fault tolerance for the application components.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse high availability with data persistence, incorrectly choosing instance store volumes (Option A) for persistence, or assume that Spot Instances (Option C) can be used for all compute resources despite their interruption risk, overlooking the need for reliable TCP communication in a production migration.

254
MCQhard

A company runs a high-traffic web application on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The application experiences intermittent latency spikes during peak hours. Analysis shows that the latency spikes correlate with high CPU utilization on the EC2 instances. The company wants to reduce latency without over-provisioning. Which solution is MOST cost-effective and scalable?

A.Add Amazon ElastiCache to cache database queries.
B.Use Spot Instances to reduce costs and scale horizontally.
C.Increase the EC2 instance size to handle peak loads.
D.Configure an Auto Scaling group with a target tracking scaling policy based on average CPU utilization.
AnswerD

This dynamically adjusts capacity to maintain target utilization, optimizing cost and performance.

Why this answer

A target tracking scaling policy based on average CPU utilization automatically adjusts the number of EC2 instances in the Auto Scaling group to maintain a target CPU utilization level. This directly addresses the latency spikes caused by high CPU utilization during peak hours by scaling out horizontally, while scaling in during low traffic to avoid over-provisioning, making it both cost-effective and scalable.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse addressing the symptom (high CPU) with vertical scaling (Option C) or cost-saving measures (Option B), rather than recognizing that horizontal auto-scaling with a target tracking policy is the most cost-effective and scalable solution for handling intermittent latency spikes caused by CPU utilization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because caching database queries with ElastiCache reduces database load and query latency, but does not directly address high CPU utilization on the EC2 instances themselves, which is the root cause of the latency spikes. Option B is wrong because Spot Instances are cost-effective but can be interrupted with a two-minute warning, making them unsuitable for a high-traffic web application that requires consistent availability and low latency during peak hours. Option C is wrong because increasing the EC2 instance size (vertical scaling) is less cost-effective and scalable than horizontal scaling, as it leads to over-provisioning during off-peak hours and has a hard limit on instance size, failing to handle unpredictable traffic spikes efficiently.

255
MCQmedium

A company is designing a serverless application using AWS Lambda. The function needs to process files uploaded to an S3 bucket and store metadata in DynamoDB. The solution must handle up to 1,000 concurrent invocations. Which configuration should be used to avoid throttling?

A.Request a concurrency limit increase from AWS Support
B.Enable provisioned concurrency
C.Use a dead-letter queue (DLQ) to retry throttled requests
D.Set reserved concurrency to 1,000
AnswerD

Setting reserved concurrency to 1,000 guarantees that the Lambda function has its own dedicated concurrency pool of 1,000, preventing throttling as long as the account's regional concurrency limit is at least 1,000 (which it is by default). This ensures capacity for up to 1,000 concurrent invocations.

Why this answer

Setting reserved concurrency to 1,000 ensures that the Lambda function has its own dedicated concurrency pool of 1,000, preventing throttling as long as the account's regional concurrency limit is at least 1,000. Option A is unnecessary since the default limit is already 1,000. Option B (provisioned concurrency) addresses cold starts, not throttling.

Option C (DLQ) handles failures after invocation, not prevention of throttling.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse reserved concurrency with concurrency limits. Reserved concurrency guarantees a specific amount of concurrency for a function, while concurrency limits are account-wide. The question asks to avoid throttling, so reserved concurrency is the correct tool.

256
MCQhard

A media company is designing a new video processing pipeline on AWS. Videos are uploaded to an S3 bucket, which triggers an AWS Lambda function to start an AWS Elemental MediaConvert job. The MediaConvert job uses a custom job template. The pipeline must handle bursty uploads of up to 50 videos simultaneously. The company has noticed that some uploads are not being processed. The Lambda function is configured with a reserved concurrency of 10. The S3 event notification is configured to send events to the Lambda function. The MediaConvert job template is configured correctly. What is the most likely reason for the missed processing?

A.The MediaConvert job template is not being applied correctly.
B.The S3 event notification is not guaranteed to deliver events.
C.The Lambda function's reserved concurrency of 10 is too low, causing throttling and missed events.
D.The Lambda function is failing due to a timeout.
AnswerC

With 50 concurrent uploads, only 10 can be processed; the rest are throttled and may be lost.

Why this answer

With reserved concurrency set to 10, only 10 Lambda invocations can happen concurrently; if more than 50 uploads occur simultaneously (burst), many events will be throttled and not processed. Option A is incorrect because the job template is configured correctly. Option B is incorrect because S3 event notifications are reliable for Lambda triggers.

Option D is incorrect because there is no evidence of timeout issues.

257
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new web application with a global user base. They need to improve latency for static content and protect against DDoS attacks. Which services should they use? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.AWS Shield
B.AWS Global Accelerator
C.Amazon Route 53
D.AWS WAF
E.Amazon CloudFront
AnswersA, D, E

DDoS protection.

Why this answer

AWS Shield (Standard, included by default) provides always-on detection and automatic inline mitigations to protect against common DDoS attacks at Layer 3 and Layer 4. For a global web application, this foundational protection is essential to maintain availability and low latency under attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often select AWS Global Accelerator or Route 53 thinking they provide caching or DDoS protection, but Global Accelerator only optimizes network path and Route 53 only handles DNS resolution—neither caches static content nor mitigates application-layer DDoS attacks like CloudFront and WAF do.

258
MCQmedium

A company is designing a serverless application using AWS Lambda. The function needs to access a VPC resource. What is the correct way to configure this?

A.Attach an Internet Gateway to the VPC
B.Assign the Lambda function to the VPC and configure a security group
C.Set up a VPC peering connection
D.Configure a NAT Gateway in the public subnet
AnswerB

Lambda in VPC requires a security group and VPC configuration.

Why this answer

Lambda functions must be attached to a VPC and assigned a security group to access resources within the VPC, such as an RDS database or an Elasticache cluster. This configuration creates an elastic network interface (ENI) in the VPC, allowing the function to communicate with VPC resources via private IP addresses. The security group acts as a virtual firewall to control inbound and outbound traffic for the Lambda function.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse external connectivity (Internet Gateway, NAT Gateway) with internal VPC access, mistakenly thinking those components are required for a Lambda function to reach resources within the same VPC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an Internet Gateway enables communication between a VPC and the internet, not direct access to VPC resources from a Lambda function; Lambda already uses a VPC-attached ENI for private connectivity. Option C is wrong because VPC peering connects two separate VPCs, but the Lambda function needs to be directly attached to the target VPC, not rely on a peering connection. Option D is wrong because a NAT Gateway allows outbound internet access from private subnets, but it does not enable a Lambda function to access VPC resources; the function must be attached to the VPC with appropriate security group rules.

259
MCQmedium

A company is designing a microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with Fargate. The services need to communicate with each other. Which approach provides the BEST security and performance?

A.Use AWS App Mesh for service-to-service communication with mutual TLS
B.Use VPC peering between the services' VPCs
C.Use an internet-facing Application Load Balancer for each service
D.Use an internal Network Load Balancer for each service
AnswerA

App Mesh provides a service mesh with mTLS, traffic control, and observability, improving security and performance within the mesh.

Why this answer

AWS App Mesh provides a service mesh that enables secure, encrypted service-to-service communication using mutual TLS (mTLS), which authenticates both sides of the connection and encrypts traffic in transit. It also offers observability, traffic control, and retry logic at the application layer, making it the best choice for microservices on ECS Fargate where security and performance are critical.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a network-level solution (like VPC peering or NLB) is sufficient for security, but the exam specifically tests the need for application-layer authentication (mTLS) and observability in a microservices architecture, which only a service mesh like App Mesh provides.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because VPC peering connects entire VPCs at the network layer, but it does not provide application-layer security (like mTLS), traffic shaping, or observability for microservices; it also adds complexity and does not scale well with many services. Option C is wrong because an internet-facing Application Load Balancer exposes services to the public internet, which is unnecessary and insecure for internal service-to-service communication, and it adds latency and cost. Option D is wrong because an internal Network Load Balancer operates at Layer 4 and cannot perform mTLS, application-layer routing, or provide the fine-grained traffic management needed for microservices; it also lacks built-in observability and retry logic.

260
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that processes sensitive healthcare data. The application runs on Amazon ECS with Fargate and uses an Application Load Balancer. The company must ensure that all data in transit is encrypted. Which step should be taken?

A.Configure the target group to use HTTP protocol.
B.Configure the security group to only allow inbound traffic from approved IPs.
C.Use HTTP on port 80 and rely on VPC network ACLs.
D.Configure the ALB listener to use HTTPS (port 443) with an SSL certificate.
AnswerD

HTTPS encrypts traffic between client and ALB.

Why this answer

To encrypt data in transit between clients and the Application Load Balancer (ALB), you must configure the ALB listener to use HTTPS (port 443) with an SSL/TLS certificate. This ensures that all traffic between the client and the load balancer is encrypted using TLS, meeting the requirement for encrypted data in transit for sensitive healthcare data.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse network-level controls (security groups, NACLs) with encryption, or assume that using HTTP on the backend is sufficient, forgetting that the client-to-ALB leg must also be encrypted to satisfy 'data in transit' requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because configuring the target group to use HTTP protocol does not encrypt traffic between the client and the ALB; it only affects the backend connection, and the client-to-ALB leg remains unencrypted if the listener is HTTP. Option B is wrong because restricting inbound traffic to approved IPs controls network access but does not encrypt the data in transit; encryption requires TLS/SSL, not IP filtering. Option C is wrong because using HTTP on port 80 and relying on VPC network ACLs provides no encryption; network ACLs are stateless packet filters and do not provide any cryptographic protection for data in transit.

261
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An IAM policy is attached to a user. When the user tries to upload an object to the S3 bucket 'my-bucket' using the AWS CLI without specifying server-side encryption, the upload fails. What is the MOST likely reason?

A.The bucket policy denies all uploads without encryption.
B.The policy requires server-side encryption with AES256, but the request did not include the encryption header.
C.The user is not the bucket owner.
D.The user does not have permission to call s3:PutObject.
AnswerB

The condition enforces encryption.

Why this answer

The IAM policy explicitly requires the `s3:x-amz-server-side-encryption` condition with a value of `AES256`. When the user uploads an object via the AWS CLI without specifying the `--server-side-encryption AES256` flag, the request lacks the required encryption header, causing the condition in the policy to fail and the upload to be denied. The policy does not deny all uploads without encryption—it only denies those that fail to meet the specific encryption requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume the failure is due to missing `s3:PutObject` permission (Option D) or a blanket bucket policy (Option A), but the real issue is the conditional `Deny` that enforces encryption headers, which is a subtle but critical distinction in IAM policy evaluation logic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the bucket policy is not mentioned in the exhibit; the attached IAM policy uses a `Deny` effect with a condition, not a blanket denial of all uploads without encryption. Option C is wrong because bucket ownership is irrelevant to the IAM policy's encryption condition; the policy does not check ownership, and the user can upload to any bucket they have permissions for. Option D is wrong because the user does have `s3:PutObject` permission granted by the `Allow` statement; the failure is due to the `Deny` statement triggered by the missing encryption header, not a lack of the action permission.

262
MCQeasy

A company wants to share a large dataset stored in Amazon S3 with a partner who has their own AWS account. The partner needs to access the data using their own account credentials. Which approach should the company use?

A.Use S3 cross-region replication.
B.Grant the partner's AWS account access via a bucket policy.
C.Create a pre-signed URL for the partner.
D.Provide the partner with an IAM user in the company's account.
AnswerB

A bucket policy can grant cross-account access to the partner's account.

Why this answer

A bucket policy can grant cross-account access to the partner's AWS account by specifying the partner's AWS account ID as the principal. This allows the partner's IAM users or roles to access the S3 bucket directly using their own credentials, without needing to share access keys or create users in the company's account. The bucket policy must explicitly allow the necessary actions (e.g., s3:GetObject) and the partner must also have an IAM policy that permits the same actions.

Exam trap

The SAP-C02 exam often tests the misconception that pre-signed URLs are the only way to grant temporary access, but the question explicitly requires the partner to use their own account credentials, which only a bucket policy (or an S3 access point with a policy) can achieve.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because S3 cross-region replication is used to automatically replicate objects to a different AWS region for data redundancy or compliance, not to grant cross-account access to a partner. Option C is wrong because a pre-signed URL grants temporary access to a specific object using a URL that embeds credentials, but it does not allow the partner to use their own AWS account credentials; it also expires and is not suitable for ongoing or large-scale access. Option D is wrong because providing an IAM user in the company's account would require the partner to use that user's credentials (access key and secret key) instead of their own account credentials, violating the requirement that the partner uses their own account credentials.

263
MCQhard

A financial services company is designing a solution to process real-time stock trade data. The data is ingested via Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a shard count of 10. Each shard receives 500 records per second, each record is 1 KB. The company needs to archive all raw data to Amazon S3 within 5 minutes of receipt and also run a Lambda function to enrich each record. What is the most cost-effective and scalable approach?

A.Configure Kinesis Data Firehose to read from the stream and deliver to S3, and use a Lambda function for enrichment.
B.Use Kinesis Data Analytics to archive data to S3.
C.Use the Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to process records and write to S3.
D.Use a Lambda function to read from the stream and write to S3.
AnswerA

Firehose handles buffering and delivery to S3; Lambda enriches records.

Why this answer

Kinesis Data Firehose can directly subscribe to a Kinesis Data Stream as its source, automatically reading all records from the stream and delivering them to S3 with a configurable buffer interval (e.g., 60 seconds), easily meeting the 5-minute requirement. For enrichment, Firehose can invoke a Lambda function on each incoming record before delivery, making this a fully managed, serverless pipeline that scales without manual shard management or custom code.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume Lambda is the simplest way to process Kinesis streams, but they overlook Firehose's built-in Lambda integration and its ability to handle high-throughput archiving without custom scaling logic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Kinesis Data Analytics is designed for real-time SQL or Apache Flink analytics on streaming data, not for archiving raw data to S3; it lacks native S3 delivery and would require additional services to archive. Option C is wrong because using the Kinesis Client Library (KCL) requires you to run custom application code (e.g., on EC2 or ECS) to process records and write to S3, adding operational overhead and cost compared to a fully managed Firehose solution. Option D is wrong because a single Lambda function reading directly from a Kinesis stream cannot scale to handle 5,000 records per second (10 shards × 500 records/s) without complex parallel processing logic, and Lambda's maximum concurrency and 15-minute timeout make it inefficient for sustained high-throughput archiving.

264
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO strategies can be used to reduce the cost of Amazon DynamoDB tables for a new application with unpredictable traffic patterns? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use DynamoDB auto scaling with provisioned capacity.
B.Use DynamoDB Streams to reduce write capacity.
C.Use DynamoDB global tables for multi-region replication.
D.Use DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) to reduce read capacity.
E.Use DynamoDB on-demand capacity mode.
AnswersA, E

Auto scaling adjusts capacity based on usage, preventing over-provisioning.

Why this answer

DynamoDB auto scaling with provisioned capacity automatically adjusts the read and write throughput based on actual traffic patterns, preventing over-provisioning and reducing costs during low-traffic periods. For unpredictable traffic, this avoids paying for unused capacity while still handling spikes within the configured limits.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse cost-reduction strategies with performance-enhancing features, such as DAX or global tables, which add cost rather than reduce it, or incorrectly assume DynamoDB Streams can lower write costs when they actually consume additional capacity.

265
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with the Fargate launch type. The services need to communicate securely within a VPC. The company requires that inter-service communication is encrypted and that the services can discover each other using DNS names. Which THREE steps should the company take to meet these requirements?

Select 3 answers
A.Deploy an Application Load Balancer in front of each service for inter-service communication.
B.Create a VPC peering connection between the services' subnets.
C.Enable AWS Cloud Map for service discovery.
D.Configure the ECS task definitions to use the awsvpc network mode.
E.Create VPC endpoints for Amazon ECR and Amazon S3 to allow Fargate tasks to pull images.
AnswersC, D, E

Cloud Map allows services to register and discover each other via DNS.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is a cloud resource discovery service that allows microservices to dynamically discover each other using DNS names or API calls. By integrating Cloud Map with ECS service discovery, tasks can register themselves with a namespace, enabling other services to resolve their IP addresses via DNS queries, which satisfies the requirement for DNS-based discovery.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse VPC peering or load balancers as solutions for service discovery, but AWS specifically tests that Cloud Map with awsvpc network mode is the correct combination for DNS-based discovery and secure inter-service communication within a VPC.

266
MCQeasy

A company is designing a microservices architecture on Amazon ECS with Fargate. They want to ensure that services can communicate with each other but are isolated from the internet. What is the MOST secure way to achieve this?

A.Use VPC peering to connect the subnets of each service.
B.Use AWS PrivateLink to create VPC endpoints for each service.
C.Place services in public subnets and use security groups to restrict inbound traffic.
D.Place all ECS services in private subnets and use AWS Cloud Map for service discovery.
AnswerD

Private subnets ensure no internet exposure; Cloud Map provides DNS-based service discovery.

Why this answer

Placing ECS services in private subnets ensures they have no direct internet access, while AWS Cloud Map provides a secure, DNS-based service discovery mechanism that allows services to communicate internally using private IP addresses. This design eliminates exposure to the internet and leverages AWS's native service discovery for dynamic microservices.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse VPC peering or PrivateLink as solutions for internal service communication, but these are designed for cross-VPC or external service access, not for secure, internet-isolated inter-service discovery within a single VPC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VPC peering connects entire VPCs, not individual subnets, and does not inherently isolate services from the internet; it also adds complexity and transitive routing limitations. Option B is wrong because AWS PrivateLink creates VPC endpoints for accessing specific AWS services or your own services via NLB, but it is not designed for inter-service communication within the same VPC and introduces unnecessary cost and latency. Option C is wrong because placing services in public subnets exposes them to the internet even with restrictive security groups, as public subnets have a route to an internet gateway, violating the isolation requirement.

267
MCQhard

A healthcare startup is building a HIPAA-compliant application on AWS. The application uses Amazon RDS for MySQL to store patient data. The compliance team requires that all database changes be audited, including SELECT statements. The current solution enables general query logs on the RDS instance, but the logs are stored locally and are lost when the instance is rebooted. Additionally, the logs are consuming significant storage on the instance. The startup needs a durable, scalable, and cost-effective solution for storing and querying database audit logs. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.Enable audit logs on RDS and use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream logs to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena to query the logs.
B.Configure RDS to publish audit logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs, then export logs to Amazon S3 using a subscription filter and Lambda. Use Athena to query the logs in S3.
C.Enable the general query log on RDS and set the log_output to TABLE. Write a scheduled script to copy the log table to Amazon S3.
D.Enable audit logs on RDS and stream them to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Use CloudWatch Logs Insights to query logs.
AnswerB

This solution is correct. RDS for MySQL can publish audit logs to CloudWatch Logs. A subscription filter and Lambda function can export those logs to S3. Athena provides a cost-effective, serverless query service for the S3 data, meeting durability, scalability, and cost requirements.

Why this answer

The most suitable solution. RDS for MySQL supports publishing audit logs to CloudWatch Logs. From there, you can set up a subscription filter to a Lambda function that exports logs to Amazon S3 for durable storage. Athena can then be used to query the logs cost-effectively. This approach is durable, scalable, and cost-effective, meeting the compliance requirement for auditing changes including SELECT statements.

Option A: While Kinesis Data Firehose can stream to S3, enabling audit logs on RDS for MySQL does not directly integrate with Kinesis; this option is more complex and unnecessary. Option C: Storing logs in a table on RDS consumes instance storage and does not provide durable, scalable storage; logs are still lost on reboot. Option D: CloudWatch Logs Insights is not cost-effective for long-term querying of large volumes and does not offer the same query flexibility as Athena on S3.

268
MCQhard

A company is designing a new application that requires low-latency access to a shared dataset across multiple EC2 instances in the same AWS Region. The dataset is updated frequently. Which storage solution should the company use?

A.Amazon S3
B.Amazon EBS with Provisioned IOPS
C.Amazon S3 Glacier
D.Amazon EFS
AnswerD

EFS is a scalable file system that can be mounted on multiple EC2 instances.

Why this answer

Amazon EFS provides a fully managed, NFS-based shared file system that can be mounted concurrently by multiple EC2 instances across different Availability Zones within the same AWS Region. It offers low-latency access and supports frequent updates through its standard storage class, making it ideal for shared datasets that require consistent, low-latency performance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse block storage (EBS) with shared file storage, assuming EBS can be attached to multiple instances simultaneously, or they overlook the latency and protocol differences between object storage (S3) and file storage (EFS) for shared, low-latency workloads.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon S3 is an object storage service accessed via HTTP/S APIs, not a file system; it introduces higher latency and does not support low-latency file-level locking or concurrent NFS-style access required by multiple EC2 instances. Option B is wrong because Amazon EBS volumes are block-level storage that can only be attached to a single EC2 instance at a time (except for multi-attach EBS, which is limited to specific instance types and is not designed for shared, frequently updated datasets across many instances). Option C is wrong because Amazon S3 Glacier is designed for archival and long-term backup with retrieval times ranging from minutes to hours, making it completely unsuitable for low-latency, frequently updated access.

269
MCQmedium

A data analytics company is building a real-time streaming pipeline using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. The data is consumed by multiple consumer applications, each with different processing requirements. The company wants to ensure that each consumer can process records independently without affecting others and can reprocess data from a specific point in time. Which feature should the company use?

A.Use Enhanced Fan-Out with a timestamp to start reading.
B.Increase the data retention period to 365 days.
C.Use resharding to increase the number of shards.
D.Use the Kinesis Client Library (KCL) with checkpointing.
AnswerA

Enhanced Fan-Out provides dedicated throughput per consumer and supports starting from a specific timestamp.

Why this answer

Enhanced Fan-Out (EFO) provides each consumer with a dedicated 2 MB/second read throughput per shard, ensuring independent processing without contention. By using the SubscribeToShard API with a starting position specified via a timestamp, consumers can reprocess data from a specific point in time, meeting the requirement exactly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse checkpointing (which manages consumer state but not throughput isolation) with Enhanced Fan-Out (which provides dedicated throughput and independent consumption), leading them to select the KCL with checkpointing option instead.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because increasing the data retention period to 365 days (the maximum) only extends how long records are stored in the stream; it does not provide dedicated throughput per consumer or enable independent reprocessing from a specific timestamp. Option C is wrong because resharding increases the number of shards to scale write/read capacity, but it does not give each consumer a dedicated connection or the ability to reprocess from a chosen point without affecting other consumers. Option D is wrong because the Kinesis Client Library (KCL) with checkpointing allows consumers to track their progress and resume from a checkpoint, but it still shares the 2 MB/second per shard among all consumers using the same shard, causing contention and lacking the independent, low-latency delivery that Enhanced Fan-Out provides.

270
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new solution to host a static website with global low latency. The website content is stored in an S3 bucket and must be secured with HTTPS. Which three services or features should be used together to meet these requirements?

Select 3 answers
A.Application Load Balancer
B.S3 bucket configured as an origin with Origin Access Control (OAC)
C.Amazon Route 53
D.AWS Certificate Manager (ACM) to provision a custom SSL certificate
E.Amazon CloudFront
AnswersB, D, E

Restricts direct access to S3, ensuring content is served only through CloudFront.

Why this answer

Origin Access Control (OAC) allows CloudFront to securely access the S3 bucket without making the bucket public, enforcing that all requests come through CloudFront. This is the modern replacement for Origin Access Identity (OAI) and supports HTTPS between CloudFront and S3.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often think an Application Load Balancer is needed for HTTPS termination, but CloudFront handles HTTPS natively with ACM, and ALB is unnecessary for static S3 content.

271
MCQhard

A company is designing a new hybrid cloud solution that requires low-latency access to on-premises data from AWS. The connection must be highly available and encrypted. The company has multiple VPCs and on-premises locations. Which combination of services meets these requirements?

A.AWS Site-to-Site VPN and VPC Endpoints
B.AWS Transit Gateway and AWS Direct Connect with VPN backup
C.VPC Peering and AWS Site-to-Site VPN
D.AWS Client VPN and VPC Peering
AnswerB

Transit Gateway provides a hub-and-spoke model for multiple VPCs and on-premises networks. Direct Connect offers dedicated low-latency connections with encryption, and VPN provides a backup.

Why this answer

AWS Transit Gateway acts as a central hub to interconnect multiple VPCs and on-premises networks, simplifying the hybrid architecture. AWS Direct Connect provides a private, low-latency, and consistent network path, while a Site-to-Site VPN over the Direct Connect link (or as a separate backup) adds encryption and high availability. This combination meets all requirements: low latency (Direct Connect), encryption (VPN), high availability (dual connections or failover), and support for multiple VPCs and on-premises locations (Transit Gateway).

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a single VPN or Direct Connect alone is sufficient, but the question requires both low latency (Direct Connect) and encryption (VPN) across multiple VPCs and on-premises sites, which only Transit Gateway with Direct Connect and VPN backup fully satisfies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VPC Endpoints are used for private access to AWS services (e.g., S3, DynamoDB) and do not provide connectivity to on-premises data centers; they also do not offer encryption or high availability for hybrid connectivity. Option C is wrong because VPC Peering does not support transitive routing (it is a one-to-one connection) and cannot connect multiple VPCs to multiple on-premises locations without a hub; additionally, it does not inherently provide encryption or low-latency guarantees for hybrid links. Option D is wrong because AWS Client VPN is a remote access VPN for individual clients (not site-to-site) and VPC Peering again lacks transitive routing and cannot aggregate multiple on-premises connections.

272
MCQeasy

A company wants to decouple a front-end web application from a backend processing service to improve scalability. Which AWS service should be used to send tasks from the web tier to the processing tier?

A.Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)
B.Amazon EventBridge
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
D.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
AnswerD

SQS is a message queue that decouples components and allows asynchronous processing.

Why this answer

Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) is the correct choice because it provides a fully managed message queue that decouples the front-end web application from the backend processing service. The web tier can send tasks (messages) to an SQS queue, and the processing tier can poll and consume those messages asynchronously, enabling independent scaling of each tier. This pattern is a classic example of a producer-consumer architecture where SQS acts as the buffer between components.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SNS (push-based) with SQS (pull-based) and assume SNS can decouple components, but SNS lacks message persistence and consumer-driven polling, making it unsuitable for reliable task queuing where the consumer may be temporarily unavailable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS) is a pub/sub messaging service that pushes notifications to subscribers (e.g., HTTP endpoints, Lambda, SQS), but it does not provide a durable queue for decoupling; tasks sent via SNS are not stored for later retrieval if the consumer is unavailable. Option B is wrong because Amazon EventBridge is an event bus service designed for routing events between AWS services and SaaS applications, not for building a point-to-point task queue between a web front-end and a processing tier; it lacks the built-in message retention and polling mechanics of a queue. Option C is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Streams is optimized for real-time streaming of large volumes of data (e.g., log ingestion, clickstreams) and requires consumers to manage shard-level processing, which is overkill and more complex than a simple task queue for decoupling web requests.

273
MCQhard

A company is designing a disaster recovery solution for a critical application running on Amazon EC2. The application uses an Amazon RDS for MySQL database. The recovery time objective (RTO) is 15 minutes, and the recovery point objective (RPO) is 1 hour. The primary region is us-east-1, and the secondary region is us-west-2. Which solution meets the requirements with the LOWEST cost?

A.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) for continuous replication to us-west-2
B.Use a cross-region read replica in us-west-2 with MySQL asynchronous replication
C.Use automated backups and restore to us-west-2 when needed
D.Use a Multi-AZ deployment in us-east-1 and failover to a standby instance
AnswerB

Read replica provides near real-time replication and fast promotion.

Why this answer

A cross-region read replica in us-west-2 with MySQL asynchronous replication meets the RPO of 1 hour and RTO of 15 minutes at the lowest cost. Asynchronous replication provides near-real-time data transfer with minimal overhead, and the read replica can be promoted to a standalone primary instance in minutes, satisfying the RTO. This approach avoids the continuous data transfer costs of DMS and the storage costs of Multi-AZ, while automated backups alone cannot meet the RPO.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose Multi-AZ (Option D) thinking it provides cross-region DR, but Multi-AZ is a single-region HA feature with synchronous replication, not a cross-region DR solution, and it cannot meet the requirement for a secondary region.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS DMS for continuous replication incurs ongoing replication instance costs and data transfer charges, making it more expensive than a cross-region read replica for this RPO/RTO requirement. Option C is wrong because automated backups and restore to us-west-2 when needed cannot achieve an RPO of 1 hour, as backups are typically taken once per day and restore times exceed 15 minutes. Option D is wrong because a Multi-AZ deployment in us-east-1 provides high availability within a single region, not disaster recovery across regions, and fails to meet the requirement for a secondary region in us-west-2.

274
MCQeasy

A company wants to design a cost-effective solution to store infrequently accessed log files for 7 years. The logs are generated daily and must be available for retrieval within 24 hours. Which Amazon S3 storage class should be used?

A.S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access
B.S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C.S3 Glacier Deep Archive
D.S3 Standard
AnswerC

Lowest cost with 12-24 hour retrieval.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive is the most cost-effective storage class for infrequently accessed data that must be retained for 7 years, with retrieval times of up to 12 hours (within the 24-hour requirement). It offers the lowest storage cost among S3 classes, making it ideal for long-term archival of log files that are rarely accessed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse retrieval time requirements with access frequency, assuming that any 'Infrequent Access' class (like S3 One Zone-IA or S3 Standard-IA) is the best choice for archival, when in fact S3 Glacier Deep Archive is designed specifically for long-term, cost-effective archival with retrieval times that still meet the 24-hour window.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access is designed for data that is accessed infrequently but requires rapid retrieval (milliseconds), and it stores data in a single Availability Zone, which does not provide the durability needed for a 7-year retention period; its cost is higher than Glacier Deep Archive for long-term archival. Option B is wrong because S3 Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves data between access tiers based on usage patterns, but it is not optimized for purely archival data that will almost never be accessed; it incurs monitoring and automation fees that make it less cost-effective than Glacier Deep Archive for data that will be stored for 7 years with infrequent access. Option D is wrong because S3 Standard is designed for frequently accessed data with millisecond retrieval and is the most expensive storage class, making it unsuitable for cost-effective long-term archival of infrequently accessed logs.

275
MCQeasy

A company is designing a solution to capture changes from an Amazon RDS database and stream them to a data lake. Which AWS service should be used to capture database changes in real time?

A.AWS Glue with streaming ETL
B.AWS Lambda with database polling
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a custom producer
D.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) with change data capture (CDC)
AnswerD

DMS can capture ongoing changes from RDS.

Why this answer

AWS DMS with change data capture (CDC) is the correct service because it is specifically designed to capture ongoing changes from source databases (including Amazon RDS) in near real time and replicate them to targets like Amazon S3 (data lake). DMS reads the database transaction logs (e.g., MySQL binlog, PostgreSQL WAL) to capture inserts, updates, and deletes without requiring application-level polling or custom code, making it the most appropriate managed solution for streaming database changes to a data lake.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS DMS with other streaming services like Kinesis or Glue, not realizing that DMS is the only AWS service that natively captures database transaction log changes without requiring custom code or polling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Glue with streaming ETL is designed for processing streaming data from sources like Amazon Kinesis or Kafka, not for capturing changes directly from an RDS database; it lacks native CDC capabilities to read database transaction logs. Option B is wrong because AWS Lambda with database polling requires custom code to repeatedly query the database for changes, which introduces latency, increased load on the database, and is not a real-time streaming solution; it also does not capture deletes or changes efficiently without additional logic. Option C is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a custom producer requires you to build and manage your own application to poll the RDS database and push changes to Kinesis, adding operational overhead and complexity; it does not provide native CDC integration with database transaction logs.

276
MCQhard

A company is designing a new microservices platform on AWS. The platform consists of 50 microservices, each running in its own Amazon ECS service on AWS Fargate. The services communicate via REST APIs. The company wants to implement a service mesh to handle traffic routing, observability, and security (mTLS). They also need to meet compliance requirements that all traffic between services must be encrypted and logged. The solution must be fully managed and reduce operational overhead. After implementing the service mesh, the operations team notices that latency between services has increased by 20%, and some services are experiencing connection timeouts. The team has enabled mTLS and distributed tracing. Which course of action should the team take to diagnose and resolve the latency issues?

A.Check the Envoy proxy resource limits in the App Mesh configuration and increase the CPU and memory allocated to the sidecar proxies.
B.Use AWS Cloud Map for service discovery instead of App Mesh.
C.Replace the service mesh with VPC peering and security groups, and use direct HTTP calls.
D.Convert the microservices to AWS Lambda functions and use API Gateway.
AnswerA

Under-provisioned sidecars can cause latency and timeouts.

Why this answer

AWS App Mesh can inject Envoy sidecar proxies, and increasing the proxy resources can reduce latency caused by insufficient CPU or memory. Option B (using AWS Cloud Map for service discovery) does not address the latency issues; Cloud Map is a service discovery mechanism, not a replacement for the service mesh. Option C (replacing the service mesh with VPC peering and security groups) removes the service mesh benefits like mTLS and observability, and is not a direct solution to proxy resource constraints.

Option D (converting to Lambda and API Gateway) is a major redesign and not necessary for diagnosing the latency problem.

277
MCQhard

An organization has deployed the above CloudFormation template. They want to ensure that all uploads to the bucket are encrypted in transit. However, users are still able to upload objects over unencrypted HTTP. What is the MOST likely reason?

A.The condition operator should be 'BoolIfExists' instead of 'Bool' to handle cases where the 'aws:SecureTransport' key is not present in the request.
B.The 'aws:SecureTransport' condition key is misspelled; it should be 'aws:SecureTransport' with a capital T.
C.The bucket policy is missing an 'Allow' statement for HTTPS requests.
D.The resource ARN should be 'arn:aws:s3:::my-unique-bucket-123' without the '/*' to cover PutObject actions.
AnswerA

Using 'BoolIfExists' ensures the policy is evaluated even if the condition key is missing, while 'Bool' may not evaluate correctly in all scenarios.

Why this answer

The condition key 'aws:SecureTransport' may not be present in all requests (e.g., anonymous requests or certain SDK versions). Using 'Bool' will cause the policy to evaluate to false when the key is missing, allowing unencrypted uploads. 'BoolIfExists' returns true if the key does not exist, effectively blocking requests without the key, which enforces encryption in transit more robustly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume 'Bool' works identically to 'BoolIfExists' for condition keys that may be absent, leading them to overlook the subtle difference in how missing keys are handled in IAM policy evaluation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'aws:SecureTransport' is correctly spelled with a capital 'T' in the condition key; the spelling in the template is accurate. Option C is wrong because the bucket policy already has an explicit 'Deny' effect for requests without 'aws:SecureTransport', so adding an 'Allow' statement for HTTPS is unnecessary and would not fix the issue of HTTP uploads being allowed. Option D is wrong because the resource ARN 'arn:aws:s3:::my-unique-bucket-123/*' is correct for covering object-level actions like PutObject; omitting '/*' would only cover bucket-level actions, not object uploads.

278
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new solution to store and analyze large amounts of log data from multiple sources. The logs must be retained for 90 days for recent analysis, and then archived to a more cost-effective storage class for an additional 5 years. The solution must support SQL-based queries. Which combination of AWS services should the company use?

A.Amazon Redshift with data sharing to retain logs for 5 years.
B.Amazon S3 with lifecycle policies to transition objects to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 90 days, and Amazon Athena for SQL queries.
C.Amazon OpenSearch Service with UltraWarm storage to archive logs after 90 days.
D.Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL with automated backups to retain logs for 5 years.
AnswerB

S3 is cost-effective, lifecycle policies automate archival, Athena allows SQL queries.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 with lifecycle policies can automatically transition log objects from S3 Standard to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 90 days, meeting the 90-day retention for recent analysis and the 5-year archival requirement at the lowest cost. Amazon Athena allows SQL-based queries directly on the log data stored in S3, without needing to load data into a separate database, making it a serverless and cost-effective solution for ad-hoc analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon OpenSearch Service's UltraWarm storage as a long-term archival solution, but it is actually a warm tier for less-frequently accessed data within the same cluster, not a cost-effective cold archive like S3 Glacier Deep Archive, and it does not support SQL queries natively.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon Redshift is a data warehouse optimized for structured, frequently queried data, not for storing large volumes of raw log data over long periods; using data sharing does not provide a cost-effective archival tier like S3 Glacier Deep Archive, and retaining logs for 5 years in Redshift would be prohibitively expensive. Option C is wrong because Amazon OpenSearch Service with UltraWarm storage is designed for near-real-time search and analytics on log data, but it does not support SQL-based queries natively (it uses its own query DSL) and UltraWarm is not a long-term archival tier; it also lacks the cost efficiency of S3 Glacier Deep Archive for 5-year retention. Option D is wrong because Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL is a relational database service intended for transactional workloads, not for storing and analyzing large volumes of log data; automated backups are for point-in-time recovery, not for long-term archival, and storing logs for 5 years in RDS would incur high storage costs and performance issues.

279
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new data processing pipeline that uses AWS Glue to run ETL jobs. The pipeline must process data from multiple sources with varying schemas and load the results into Amazon Redshift. The data must be partitioned by date and encrypted at rest. Which TWO AWS services or features should the company use to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon S3 server-side encryption
B.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics
D.Amazon Athena
E.AWS Glue Data Catalog
AnswersA, E

S3 SSE provides encryption at rest for data stored in S3.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 server-side encryption (SSE) is correct because it provides at-rest encryption for data stored in S3, which is the intermediate storage for AWS Glue ETL jobs. This ensures that all data processed by Glue and loaded into Redshift is encrypted at rest, meeting the security requirement without additional application-level changes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates might confuse AWS Glue Data Catalog with a storage service or think that Athena or Kinesis can replace Glue for batch ETL, but the Data Catalog is essential for schema management and partitioning, while Athena and Kinesis serve different purposes.

280
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a data lake on S3 with sensitive data that must be encrypted at rest and audited. Which TWO services should be used? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.S3 Server-Side Encryption (SSE-S3)
B.Amazon Macie
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.AWS KMS
E.Amazon GuardDuty
AnswersC, D

CloudTrail logs API calls to S3 for auditing.

Why this answer

To meet the requirements of encrypting data at rest and auditing access, two services are needed. AWS KMS (Key Management Service) provides centralized control over encryption keys and can be used with S3 Server-Side Encryption (SSE-KMS) to encrypt sensitive data at rest. AWS CloudTrail records all API calls made to S3, enabling auditing of who accessed or modified the data.

Together, KMS and CloudTrail satisfy both the encryption and auditing requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus solely on either encryption or auditing, failing to recognize that both are required: encryption (KMS) to meet the 'encrypted at rest' requirement and auditing (CloudTrail) to meet the 'audited' requirement.

281
MCQhard

A Solutions Architect is reviewing the IAM policy shown in the exhibit. The policy is attached to an IAM user. Which of the following is true about this policy?

A.The policy allows s3:GetObject on example-bucket only from the specified IP range.
B.The policy denies access if the source IP is not in the specified range.
C.The policy is invalid because the Resource is not specific enough.
D.The policy allows all S3 actions on all buckets.
AnswerA

The condition restricts access to the specified IP range.

Why this answer

The IAM policy uses a `Condition` block with `IpAddress` to restrict the `s3:GetObject` action on `example-bucket` to requests originating from the specified IP range. The `Effect` is `Allow`, so the policy grants the `s3:GetObject` permission only when the source IP matches the condition, effectively limiting access to that range.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse an `Allow` with a condition for an implicit `Deny`—they incorrectly assume the policy explicitly denies access from outside the IP range, when in fact it simply does not grant permission, and an explicit deny would require a separate `Deny` statement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the policy does not include a `Deny` effect; it uses an `Allow` effect with a condition, which does not explicitly deny access from other IPs—it simply does not grant permission for those IPs, and an explicit deny would be needed to block them. Option C is wrong because the `Resource` is specific enough: it targets `arn:aws:s3:::example-bucket/*`, which precisely identifies objects within the named bucket, and IAM policies require an ARN format that is valid and specific. Option D is wrong because the policy only allows `s3:GetObject` (not all S3 actions) and only on `example-bucket` (not all buckets), as clearly specified in the `Action` and `Resource` fields.

282
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will be hosted on AWS. The application must be highly available across multiple Availability Zones. Which of the following services provide built-in high availability across AZs? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon RDS Multi-AZ
B.Amazon EBS volumes
C.Amazon EC2 instances
D.Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)
E.Amazon S3
AnswersA, D

Amazon RDS Multi-AZ provides built-in high availability by automatically provisioning and maintaining a synchronous standby replica in a different AZ, enabling automatic failover without manual intervention.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS Multi-AZ provides built-in high availability across Availability Zones by automatically provisioning a synchronous standby replica in a different AZ, with automatic failover. Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) is inherently highly available across AZs; it distributes traffic to healthy targets in multiple AZs and automatically fails over if an AZ becomes unavailable. While Amazon S3 also stores objects redundantly across multiple AZs, the question specifically asks for services that provide built-in HA across AZs in the context of application design, and the two most directly relevant services are RDS Multi-AZ and ELB.

Amazon EBS volumes and EC2 instances are AZ-scoped and do not provide built-in cross-AZ HA.

Exam trap

Candidates may mistakenly include Amazon S3 because it stores data redundantly across AZs. However, the question asks about services providing built-in high availability for application components, and S3's availability is a property of the storage service itself, not something that the application architecture needs to configure. The trap is confusing durability/availability of storage with the high availability features provided by services like RDS Multi-AZ and ELB.

283
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new application that will run on Amazon EKS. The development team wants to deploy containers in a way that minimizes operational overhead. Which compute option should the company choose?

A.AWS Fargate
B.Amazon EKS managed node groups
C.Amazon EC2 instances
D.Self-managed EC2 nodes
AnswerA

Fargate is serverless and eliminates node management.

Why this answer

AWS Fargate is the correct compute option because it is a serverless compute engine for containers that eliminates the need to provision, configure, or manage the underlying EC2 instances. By using Fargate with Amazon EKS, the development team can deploy containers without worrying about node scaling, patching, or cluster capacity, thereby minimizing operational overhead.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'managed node groups' with 'serverless' and assume they eliminate all operational overhead, but managed node groups still require you to manage EC2 instances, whereas Fargate truly removes the need to manage any underlying compute infrastructure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Amazon EKS managed node groups) is wrong because, while it reduces some operational burden by automating node provisioning and updates, it still requires you to manage EC2 instances (e.g., instance types, scaling policies, and patching), which adds operational overhead compared to Fargate. Option C (Amazon EC2 instances) is wrong because it requires full manual management of the underlying virtual machines, including OS patching, security updates, and scaling, which contradicts the goal of minimizing operational overhead. Option D (Self-managed EC2 nodes) is wrong because it places the entire burden of node lifecycle management (provisioning, patching, scaling, and troubleshooting) on the development team, resulting in the highest operational overhead.

284
MCQhard

A company is building a microservices architecture on Amazon ECS. Services need to communicate with each other and with external SaaS applications. The architect must ensure that service discovery is dynamic and that traffic to external services is routed through a single egress point for security and monitoring. Which combination of services should the architect use?

A.AWS Cloud Map for service discovery and a NAT gateway for egress
B.Amazon Route 53 for service discovery and an Application Load Balancer for egress
C.AWS Cloud Map for service discovery and an Internet Gateway for egress
D.Amazon Route 53 for service discovery and VPC endpoints for egress
AnswerA

Cloud Map registers services; NAT gateway provides egress for tasks in private subnets.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is the correct choice for dynamic service discovery in Amazon ECS because it allows services to register themselves with a logical service name and be discovered via DNS or API calls, which is ideal for microservices that scale and change frequently. A NAT gateway provides a single, controlled egress point for outbound traffic to external SaaS applications, enabling centralized security monitoring and consistent IP address management, unlike an Internet Gateway which would expose instances directly.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the roles of an Internet Gateway (which allows direct bidirectional internet access) with a NAT gateway (which provides controlled outbound-only egress), and assuming Route 53 can handle dynamic service discovery when it lacks the necessary registration and health-check integration for ephemeral containers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is designed for static DNS resolution and does not natively support dynamic service registration and health checking for ephemeral ECS tasks, making it unsuitable for dynamic service discovery in a microservices architecture; additionally, an Application Load Balancer is an ingress point for incoming traffic, not an egress point for outbound traffic to external services. Option C is wrong because while AWS Cloud Map is correct for service discovery, an Internet Gateway is used for bidirectional communication between a VPC and the internet, not as a single egress point—it would allow direct outbound access from all resources, bypassing centralized security and monitoring. Option D is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is not designed for dynamic service discovery in ECS, and VPC endpoints are used for private connectivity to AWS services, not for routing traffic to external SaaS applications over the internet.

285
MCQeasy

A company is designing a serverless application that processes images uploaded to an S3 bucket. The processing must be asynchronous and can take up to 15 minutes per image. Which AWS service should be used to trigger the processing?

A.Configure S3 Event Notifications to send an event to an Amazon SQS queue, which is polled by an AWS Lambda function
B.Configure S3 Event Notifications to publish a message to an Amazon SNS topic, which triggers an AWS Lambda function
C.Configure S3 Event Notifications to invoke an AWS Lambda function synchronously
D.Use Amazon EventBridge to capture S3 events and trigger an AWS Step Functions workflow
AnswerA

S3 event to SQS decouples the upload from processing. Lambda polls SQS and can process messages asynchronously; Lambda can run up to 15 minutes.

Why this answer

S3 Event Notifications can asynchronously deliver events to an SQS queue, and an AWS Lambda function can poll that queue. This decouples the processing from the S3 upload, allowing the Lambda function to handle the 15-minute processing limit asynchronously without timing out, since Lambda's maximum execution time is 15 minutes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Lambda's synchronous invocation (Option C) is suitable because it can run up to 15 minutes, but they overlook that S3 synchronous invocation is not designed for asynchronous workloads and can cause timeouts or lost events if the processing takes the full duration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SNS triggers Lambda synchronously via a push mechanism, which would cause the S3 event to be lost if the Lambda function times out or fails, and SNS does not provide a buffer for retries or backpressure. Option C is wrong because S3 synchronous invocation of Lambda has a 15-minute timeout limit that matches the requirement, but synchronous invocation would block the S3 event and could lead to throttling or failures if the processing takes the full 15 minutes; moreover, S3 synchronous invocation is not designed for long-running asynchronous tasks. Option D is wrong because EventBridge can capture S3 events and trigger Step Functions, but Step Functions itself does not directly handle the 15-minute processing; it would still need to invoke a Lambda function or another service, and the question asks for the service to trigger the processing, not orchestrate it.

286
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a web application that must support millions of concurrent users. The application uses a RESTful API frontend and a relational database backend. Which TWO strategies should be implemented to improve scalability?

Select 2 answers
A.Use Amazon SQS to queue database write requests.
B.Use sticky sessions (session affinity) on the load balancer.
C.Implement read replicas for the database.
D.Implement a caching layer such as ElastiCache.
E.Use a single large EC2 instance for the database.
AnswersC, D

Read replicas offload read traffic from the primary database.

Why this answer

Read replicas (Option C) offload read traffic from the primary database instance, allowing the relational database to handle a higher volume of concurrent read queries without degrading write performance. This directly improves scalability for read-heavy workloads common in web applications.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse queuing (SQS) with database scalability, but SQS does not increase database throughput—it only buffers requests, which can lead to backpressure and eventual inconsistency if not carefully designed.

287
MCQhard

A company is designing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for a critical application running on Amazon EC2 instances in a single AWS Region. The DR site will be in a different Region. The application data is stored in an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with Multi-AZ enabled. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is 15 minutes, and the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is 2 hours. Which strategy meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A.Take daily automated snapshots of the RDS DB instance and copy them to the DR Region. In the DR Region, restore the DB instance from the latest snapshot.
B.Use Amazon Aurora Global Database to replicate data across Regions.
C.Use AWS Backup to copy backups to the DR Region and set up EC2 Image Builder for application recovery.
D.Configure a cross-Region read replica for the RDS MySQL DB instance. In the DR event, promote the read replica to a standalone instance.
AnswerD

Cross-Region read replicas provide low RPO (seconds) and fast RTO (minutes).

Why this answer

The most cost-effective strategy because a cross-Region read replica for RDS MySQL allows continuous replication with minimal overhead, achieving an RPO of seconds to minutes and an RTO of minutes (promotion time). It avoids the cost of a full Aurora Global Database or the RPO gap from daily snapshots, meeting the 15-minute RPO and 2-hour RTO requirements at lower cost.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may over-engineer the solution by choosing Aurora Global Database (Option B) for its managed replication, overlooking that a cross-Region read replica for RDS MySQL is sufficient and more cost-effective for the given RPO/RTO, or they may underestimate the RPO gap of snapshot-based approaches (Options A and C).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because daily automated snapshots cannot achieve a 15-minute RPO; the RPO would be up to 24 hours, and restoring from a snapshot in the DR Region takes longer than 2 hours for RTO. Option B is wrong because Amazon Aurora Global Database is more expensive than a cross-Region read replica for RDS MySQL, and the question specifies RDS for MySQL, not Aurora; using Aurora would require migrating the database, adding cost and complexity. Option C is wrong because AWS Backup copying backups to the DR Region still relies on snapshot schedules (typically daily), failing the 15-minute RPO, and EC2 Image Builder addresses application recovery but not the database RPO/RTO requirements.

288
MCQhard

An IAM policy is attached to an IAM user. The policy allows the `s3:PutObject` action on the resource `arn:aws:s3:::my-bucket/uploads/*` with a condition that the request must come from IP address `10.0.1.5`. The user is testing from an IP address `10.0.1.5`. What is the effect of the policy?

A.Allow all actions on the bucket
B.Allow PutObject in uploads/ only
C.Allow GetObject because the second statement overrides
D.Deny all actions because of IP mismatch
AnswerB

The second statement allows PutObject without IP condition.

Why this answer

The attached IAM policy grants permission to perform PutObject on the 'uploads/' prefix, and the IP address condition matches the user's test IP (10.0.1.5). Therefore, the effect is to allow PutObject specifically on objects within the 'uploads/' folder.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may misinterpret the IP condition as a Deny when it actually allows the action only if the condition is met, leading them to incorrectly select Option D.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the policy only allows s3:PutObject, not all actions on the bucket. Option C is wrong because there is no second statement; the policy has a single statement with an Allow effect, and GetObject is not included. Option D is wrong because the IP address matches the condition (10.0.1.5), so the Allow effect applies, not a Deny.

289
MCQeasy

A company is designing a multi-tier web application on AWS. The application requires high availability across multiple Availability Zones. Which AWS service should be used to distribute incoming traffic across multiple EC2 instances in different Availability Zones?

A.AWS Global Accelerator
B.Application Load Balancer
C.AWS Direct Connect
D.Amazon Route 53
AnswerB

An Application Load Balancer automatically distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as EC2 instances, in multiple Availability Zones, ensuring high availability.

Why this answer

The Application Load Balancer (ALB) operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model and is designed to distribute incoming HTTP/HTTPS traffic across multiple targets, such as EC2 instances, in different Availability Zones. By registering instances in multiple AZs and enabling cross-zone load balancing, the ALB provides high availability and fault tolerance for the multi-tier web application.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse DNS-based routing (Route 53) with actual load balancing, but Route 53 only provides DNS resolution and does not actively distribute traffic across instances or perform health checks at the application layer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Global Accelerator improves performance by directing traffic to the optimal endpoint based on health and geography, but it does not distribute traffic across EC2 instances within a region; it uses anycast IPs and routes to Application Load Balancers or Network Load Balancers. Option C is wrong because AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection from on-premises to AWS, not for distributing traffic across EC2 instances in multiple AZs. Option D is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is a DNS service that resolves domain names to IP addresses and can route traffic to multiple endpoints using policies like weighted or latency routing, but it does not perform load balancing at the application layer or distribute traffic across instances in real time.

290
MCQhard

A financial services company needs to design a solution for storing sensitive customer data that must be encrypted at rest using a customer-managed key stored in AWS Key Management Service (KMS). The data will be accessed by multiple EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The company needs to rotate the key every 90 days and ensure that old encrypted data can still be decrypted. Which key strategy should they use?

A.Use AWS CloudHSM to generate a key and store it in a hardware security module.
B.Use an AWS managed key for S3 and enable automatic rotation.
C.Use a customer-managed CMK and enable automatic key rotation.
D.Use a customer-managed CMK and generate a new key every 90 days, re-encrypting all data.
AnswerD

Correct. A customer-managed CMK with manual rotation every 90 days meets the specific requirement. Old keys are retained to allow decryption of historical data, and the new key is used for new encryptions.

Why this answer

It uses a customer-managed CMK with manual rotation every 90 days, which meets the specific rotation requirement. By generating a new key and keeping the old key enabled, old encrypted data remains decryptable. Option C is incorrect because automatic rotation in AWS KMS has a fixed interval of 365 days, which does not satisfy the 90-day rotation requirement.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates may assume AWS KMS automatic key rotation can be customized to any frequency (e.g., 90 days), but it is fixed at 365 days. They might incorrectly select option C because it satisfies the 'old data decryptable' requirement, while overlooking the explicit 90-day rotation requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS CloudHSM provides a hardware security module for key generation and storage, but it does not integrate with KMS for automatic key rotation; managing rotation manually would be complex and error-prone, and the question specifically requires a KMS-based solution. Option B is wrong because an AWS managed key for S3 cannot be used with EC2 instances directly (it is tied to S3), and the key is managed by AWS, not the customer, violating the customer-managed key requirement. Option D is wrong because generating a new key every 90 days and re-encrypting all data is unnecessary overhead; KMS automatic rotation (every 365 days) already preserves old backing keys for decryption, and manual rotation with re-encryption violates the principle of least effort and could introduce data availability risks.

291
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO strategies can reduce the cost of storing infrequently accessed data in Amazon S3 while maintaining millisecond retrieval latency? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Transition objects to S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval after 90 days.
B.Use S3 Glacier Deep Archive for data older than 30 days.
C.Use S3 Standard-IA for data that is accessed less frequently but requires millisecond retrieval.
D.Use S3 Intelligent-Tiering to automatically move objects between access tiers.
E.Use S3 One Zone-IA for all data to reduce storage costs.
AnswersC, D

Standard-IA offers lower storage cost and same latency as Standard.

Why this answer

S3 Standard-IA (Infrequent Access) is designed for data accessed less frequently but still requires millisecond retrieval latency, making it a cost-effective choice for infrequently accessed data without sacrificing performance. Option D is correct because S3 Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves objects between access tiers (e.g., from S3 Standard to S3 Standard-IA) based on changing access patterns, optimizing costs while maintaining millisecond latency for frequently accessed data.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse storage classes with retrieval latency, assuming that any 'Glacier' or 'Archive' class can provide millisecond retrieval, when in fact only S3 Standard, S3 Standard-IA, S3 One Zone-IA, and S3 Intelligent-Tiering (with frequent/infrequent tiers) offer that latency.

292
MCQhard

A company is designing a new data lake on AWS. The data lake will store raw data in Amazon S3 and use Amazon Athena for ad-hoc queries. The company needs to ensure that only authorized users can query specific partitions based on their department. Which approach should the company use to implement fine-grained access control?

A.Use AWS Lake Formation to define data filters and grant permissions to departments at the partition level.
B.Use S3 bucket policies to restrict access to prefixes corresponding to each department.
C.Store each department's data in separate databases and use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query.
D.Create separate IAM roles for each department and attach policies that grant access to specific partitions in Athena.
AnswerA

Lake Formation provides fine-grained access control, including partition-level filtering for Athena.

Why this answer

Using AWS Lake Formation with data filters allows fine-grained access control at the partition level. Option B is incorrect because S3 bucket policies can restrict access to object prefixes but cannot control access at the partition level within Athena queries. Option C is incorrect because Redshift Spectrum is designed for querying data in Amazon Redshift, not Athena.

Option D is incorrect because while separate IAM roles can provide access to specific databases or tables, they cannot easily restrict access to specific partitions in Athena without Lake Formation.

293
MCQeasy

A startup is building a serverless photo-sharing application on AWS. Users upload photos via a web app, which stores them in Amazon S3. Each upload triggers an AWS Lambda function that creates a thumbnail and stores it in another S3 bucket. The application is expected to have unpredictable traffic patterns. The startup wants to minimize costs and operational overhead while ensuring the thumbnail generation completes reliably. Which solution should a Solutions Architect recommend?

A.Use Amazon ECS with Fargate to run a container that processes S3 events and generates thumbnails.
B.Upload to S3, send a message to an SQS queue, and have a Lambda function poll the queue to generate thumbnails.
C.Use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances to poll S3 for new uploads and generate thumbnails.
D.Configure S3 event notifications to invoke a Lambda function directly upon upload to generate thumbnails.
AnswerD

Configuring S3 event notifications to directly invoke a Lambda function upon upload is a serverless, cost-effective solution that scales automatically with traffic, minimizes operational overhead, and ensures reliable thumbnail generation (Lambda retries on failure).

Why this answer

Configuring S3 event notifications to directly invoke a Lambda function upon upload is a serverless, cost-effective solution that scales automatically with traffic, minimizes operational overhead, and ensures reliable thumbnail generation (Lambda retries on failure). Option A (ECS with Fargate) is more complex and expensive than necessary for this simple processing task. Option B (SQS queue) adds an unnecessary intermediate service, increasing latency and complexity without benefit.

Option C (Auto Scaling EC2) requires managing servers, incurs costs even when idle, and is not serverless.

294
MCQeasy

A company is deploying a serverless application using AWS Lambda, Amazon API Gateway, and Amazon DynamoDB. The company wants to secure the API by requiring authentication via a JSON Web Token (JWT). Which service should the company use to manage user authentication and issue JWTs?

A.Amazon Cognito User Pools
B.AWS Secrets Manager
C.AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D.AWS Security Token Service (STS)
AnswerA

Cognito User Pools provides authentication and JWT issuance for application users.

Why this answer

Amazon Cognito User Pools is the correct choice because it is a fully managed identity provider that handles user sign-up, sign-in, and issues JSON Web Tokens (JWTs) for authentication. It integrates directly with API Gateway Lambda authorizers to validate JWTs and control access to API endpoints without custom code.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS STS (which issues temporary AWS credentials) with a service that issues JWTs for application users, leading them to select STS instead of Cognito User Pools.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (AWS Secrets Manager) is wrong because it is designed to securely store and rotate secrets such as database credentials or API keys, not to manage user authentication or issue JWTs. Option C (AWS Identity and Access Management) is wrong because IAM is used for managing AWS resource permissions via policies and roles, not for authenticating end users or issuing JWTs; it cannot issue tokens for external user identities. Option D (AWS Security Token Service) is wrong because STS issues temporary AWS credentials (access keys, session tokens) for IAM roles or federated users, not JWTs for application-level authentication.

295
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new microservices-based application on AWS. They want to ensure that services can discover each other dynamically and that traffic can be load balanced across multiple Availability Zones. Which AWS service should they use for service discovery?

A.AWS Service Catalog
B.Amazon Route 53 private hosted zones
C.AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
D.AWS Cloud Map
AnswerD

AWS Cloud Map provides service discovery with health checks and integration with Route 53.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is a cloud resource discovery service that allows microservices to dynamically register their endpoints (IP addresses, ports) and discover each other via DNS or API calls. It integrates with Amazon Route 53 auto-naming and health checks, enabling load-balanced traffic across multiple Availability Zones by returning healthy, available endpoints. This makes it the correct choice for dynamic service discovery in a microservices architecture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Route 53 private hosted zones (which provide static DNS resolution) with a dynamic service discovery solution, overlooking that Cloud Map is specifically designed for dynamic registration and health-aware endpoint resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Service Catalog is a governance tool for creating and managing a catalog of approved IT services (e.g., pre-configured CloudFormation templates), not a service discovery mechanism. Option B is wrong because Amazon Route 53 private hosted zones provide DNS resolution within a VPC but require manual registration of records and do not support dynamic registration or health-based filtering of service instances without additional automation. Option C is wrong because AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store is a secure hierarchical store for configuration data and secrets, not a service discovery service; it lacks native DNS or API-based endpoint resolution and health checking for dynamic service instances.

296
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that will run on Amazon ECS with Fargate. The application must be able to read and write files to a shared file system that is accessible from multiple tasks simultaneously. The file system must be durable and support NFS protocol. Which storage solution should be used?

A.Amazon EBS with Multi-Attach
B.Amazon EFS
C.Amazon S3
D.Amazon FSx for Lustre
AnswerB

Amazon EFS is a fully managed NFS file system that can be mounted by multiple ECS tasks across multiple AZs, providing a shared file system.

Why this answer

Amazon EFS is the correct choice because it provides a fully managed, durable, NFS-based (Network File System) shared file system that can be mounted concurrently by multiple Amazon ECS tasks running on Fargate. EFS supports the NFSv4.1 and NFSv4.0 protocols, ensuring simultaneous read/write access across tasks, and its data is replicated across multiple Availability Zones for durability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon EBS Multi-Attach with a shared file system, but EBS Multi-Attach is block-level storage limited to a single AZ and incompatible with Fargate, whereas EFS is a fully managed NFS file system designed for multi-task, multi-AZ access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Amazon EBS with Multi-Attach) is wrong because EBS Multi-Attach only supports a maximum of 16 Nitro-based EC2 instances in a single Availability Zone, and it does not support Fargate tasks, which are serverless and cannot attach EBS volumes directly. Option C (Amazon S3) is wrong because S3 is an object storage service that does not support the NFS protocol; it uses RESTful APIs (HTTP/HTTPS) and is not a POSIX-compliant file system mountable via NFS. Option D (Amazon FSx for Lustre) is wrong because FSx for Lustre is designed for high-performance computing (HPC) workloads with a POSIX-compliant file system but does not natively support the NFS protocol; it uses the Lustre client protocol instead.

297
Matchingmedium

Match each storage class to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Frequently accessed data, low latency, high throughput

Auto-cost optimization for unknown access patterns

Lowest cost for long-term archival, retrieval in 12 hours

Infrequent access, stored in a single AZ

Archival data with retrieval minutes to hours

Why these pairings

S3 storage classes cater to different access patterns. Standard for frequent access, Intelligent-Tiering for automatic cost optimization, Standard-IA for infrequent but rapid access, One Zone-IA for lower durability infrequent access, Glacier and Deep Archive for archival with longer retrieval times.

298
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will be deployed on Amazon EKS. The application must meet PCI DSS compliance requirements. Which TWO steps should the solutions architect take to secure the cluster?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable AWS CloudTrail logging for the EKS cluster.
B.Install Calico for network policy enforcement.
C.Configure IAM roles and RBAC policies to limit access.
D.Use Bottlerocket as the node operating system.
E.Enable secret encryption using AWS KMS.
AnswersC, E

Access control is required for PCI DSS.

Why this answer

PCI DSS Requirement 7 mandates strict access controls. In Amazon EKS, combining IAM roles for cluster-level authentication with Kubernetes RBAC for namespace-level authorization ensures least-privilege access, which is a core compliance requirement. This dual-layer approach prevents unauthorized API calls and pod-level actions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse auditing (CloudTrail) with security enforcement, or assume that network policies (Calico) or OS hardening (Bottlerocket) are PCI DSS requirements, when the exam specifically tests the two mandatory controls: access management (IAM + RBAC) and encryption at rest (KMS).

299
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new serverless application using AWS Lambda. The function needs to access an Amazon RDS database. Which THREE practices should be followed to avoid connection exhaustion?

Select 3 answers
A.Store the database connection in a global variable to reuse across invocations
B.Assign a static IP address to the Lambda function
C.Use Amazon RDS Proxy to pool connections
D.Open the database connection only when needed and close it after each invocation
E.Increase the maximum number of database connections in the RDS parameter group
AnswersC, D, E

RDS Proxy manages connection pooling for Lambda.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS Proxy sits between Lambda and the database, managing a pool of established connections. It reduces the overhead of opening and closing connections per invocation and prevents Lambda from exhausting database connections during concurrent executions. This is the recommended pattern for serverless applications with relational databases.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume storing a connection in a global variable is sufficient to reuse it across invocations, but they overlook that concurrent invocations run in separate execution environments, each with its own global scope, leading to multiple connections and potential exhaustion.

300
MCQhard

A company is designing a disaster recovery solution that must recover an application in a different AWS Region within 15 minutes of a failure. The application uses an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. Which combination of strategies will meet the recovery time objective (RTO) while minimizing costs?

A.Deploy a standby Aurora cluster in the DR Region and use synchronous replication.
B.Use Aurora Global Database with a secondary cluster in the DR Region.
C.Configure an Aurora cross-Region replica in the DR Region. Use Amazon Route 53 to fail over DNS.
D.Take daily snapshots and restore them in the DR Region using cross-Region snapshot copy.
AnswerC

Cross-Region replicas provide fast failover (typically <1 minute) and are cost-effective as they only replicate data.

Why this answer

An Aurora cross-Region replica asynchronously replicates data to a DR Region with minimal performance impact, and you can promote it to a standalone cluster within minutes. Combined with Amazon Route 53 DNS failover, this achieves an RTO under 15 minutes while keeping costs low, as you only pay for the replica storage and minimal compute until failover.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Aurora Global Database (which is designed for low RTO but higher cost) with a simple cross-Region replica (which offers a slightly higher RTO but significantly lower cost), and they overlook the 15-minute RTO requirement that both can meet, making cost the deciding factor.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because synchronous replication across AWS Regions would introduce high latency and is not supported by Aurora; Aurora's synchronous replication is limited to within a single Region. Option B is wrong because Aurora Global Database uses asynchronous replication with a typical RTO of 1 minute or less, but it requires a secondary cluster that incurs ongoing compute and storage costs, making it more expensive than a cross-Region replica. Option D is wrong because daily snapshots with cross-Region copy have an RTO that can exceed 15 minutes due to the time required to copy and restore the snapshot, and they also risk data loss of up to 24 hours.

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