ITIL4F ITIL Management Practices Practice Test 28 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Which THREE are key metrics for the Service Desk practice?

Accepted Answer

First Contact Resolution (FCR). Key service desk metrics include First Contact Resolution (FCR), Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT), and average time to resolve incidents (which relates to Mean Time to Resolve). MTBF is an availability metric. Number of problems is a problem management metric.

Answer

Number of problems recorded

Answer

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

Question 2

Which TWO activities are part of the problem identification phase of Problem Management?

Accepted Answer

Trend analysis of incident records. Problem identification involves proactively identifying potential problems. The correct activities are trend analysis of incident records (option B) and analyzing incident data for patterns (option D). These help detect recurring issues. Option A (organizing workarounds into known-error records) is part of error control, not identification. Option C (root cause analysis) is part of problem control. Option E (implementing a known error) is also error control.

Answer

Organizing workarounds into known-error records

Answer

Root cause analysis

Answer

Implementing a known error

Question 3

Which THREE statements correctly describe the difference between Deployment Management and Release Management in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

Release Management decides when to deploy a release. In ITIL 4, Deployment Management is a subset of Release Management. Release Management has the authority to decide when to deploy a release and can postpone deployment if needed. Option A is correct because Release Management decides the deployment timing. Option C is correct because Release Management can postpone a deployment. Option E is correct because Deployment Management is indeed a subset of Release Management. Option B is incorrect because Release Management does not physically move components; that is the role of Deployment Management. Option D is incorrect because Deployment Management, not Release Management, is responsible for the actual deployment.

Answer

Release Management involves physically moving components to production

Answer

Release Management is responsible for the actual deployment of components

Question 4

Which TWO are components of the ITIL 4 Continual Improvement Model?

Accepted Answer

Where are we now?. The ITIL 4 Continual Improvement Model consists of seven steps: What is the vision?, Where are we now?, Where do we want to be?, How do we get there?, Take action, Did we get there?, and How do we keep the momentum going? The two correct components from the options are B ("Where are we now?") and E ("How do we get there?"). Options A, C, and D are not steps in the model.

Answer

Define improvement objectives

Answer

How do we keep momentum?

Answer

Plan the improvement

Question 5

Which TWO statements about the relationship between IT Asset Management and Service Configuration Management are correct?

Accepted Answer

Configuration management provides information about relationships between assets. Configuration management provides information about relationships between CIs, which helps understand dependencies. Option D is correct: Configuration management provides the CMDB that includes details of IT assets (CIs). Option A is incorrect because configuration management maintains the configuration baseline, not asset management. Option B is incorrect because not all assets are CIs and not all CIs are assets; they are separate but overlapping concepts. Option E is incorrect because asset management focuses on the entire lifecycle of assets, not just CIs.

Answer

Asset management maintains the configuration baseline

Answer

All assets are considered CIs, and all CIs are assets

Answer

Asset management focuses on the lifecycle of CIs

Question 6

Which THREE actions are part of Supplier Management?

Accepted Answer

Managing supplier contracts. Supplier management includes evaluating and selecting suppliers, managing contracts, and monitoring performance. Options C, D, and E are core activities. Option A (setting SLA targets for internal teams) belongs to Service Level Management, not Supplier Management. Option B (providing training to supplier staff) is not a typical supplier management activity; training is usually the supplier's own responsibility.

Answer

Setting SLA targets for internal teams

Answer

Providing training to supplier staff

Question 7

Which TWO are key activities of Capacity and Performance Management?

Accepted Answer

Forecasting future demand for services. Capacity and Performance Management focuses on ensuring that services meet agreed capacity and performance targets. Key activities include monitoring current service performance (Option E) to identify trends and issues, and forecasting future demand (Option C) to plan for capacity needs. Option A (defining service level targets) is part of Service Level Management. Option B (managing IT service desk staffing levels) is part of the Service Desk practice. Option D (managing service availability) is part of Availability Management.

Answer

Defining service level targets

Answer

Managing the IT service desk staffing levels

Answer

Managing service availability

Question 8

Which THREE are examples of unplanned downtime that Availability Management seeks to minimize?

Accepted Answer

Hardware failure. Availability management focuses on minimizing unplanned downtime. Option B (hardware failure), Option C (cyberattack causing service disruption), and Option E (software bug causing service outage) are all examples of unplanned downtime. Options A (scheduled maintenance) and D (planned upgrade of a server) are planned downtime and therefore not the focus of availability management.

Answer

Scheduled maintenance

Answer

Planned upgrade of a server

Question 9

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. According to ITIL 4, what should they do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Log an incident and attempt to restore service as quickly as possible. The correct first action according to ITIL 4 Incident Management is to log the incident and attempt to restore service as quickly as possible. Option C is correct because restoring normal service operation is the primary objective of Incident Management. Option A (notifying the service level manager) is a Service Level Management activity, not the immediate priority. Option B (submitting a change request) is part of Change Enablement, which occurs after the incident is resolved and a permanent fix is identified. Option D (initiating a problem record) is a Problem Management activity that focuses on root cause analysis, which is separate from immediate incident response.

Answer

Notify the service level manager of a potential SLA breach

Answer

Submit a change request to implement a permanent fix

Answer

Initiate a problem record to identify the root cause

Question 10

Which ITIL 4 practice has the PRIMARY purpose of restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing the adverse impact on business operations?

Accepted Answer

Incident Management. Incident Management is the correct practice, as its primary purpose is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize adverse impact on business operations. Problem Management focuses on identifying root causes of incidents, Service Request Management handles pre-defined service requests, and Change Enablement controls changes to services. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Incident Management.

Answer

Problem Management

Answer

Service Request Management

Answer

Change Enablement

Question 11

An organization wants to improve the user experience for password reset requests. Currently, users call the service desk for each password reset, resulting in high call volume. According to ITIL 4, which practice should be applied to streamline this process?

Accepted Answer

Service Request Management, by offering a self-service password reset option through the service catalogue. Password resets are typically pre-approved, routine requests best handled as service requests via self-service. Option D is correct. Option A (Incident Management) is for unplanned disruptions; Option B (Problem Management) is for finding root causes; Option C (Change Enablement) is for managing changes.

Answer

Incident Management, because password reset is a disruption

Answer

Problem Management, to find the root cause of forgotten passwords

Answer

Change Enablement, because resetting a password changes the user account

Question 12

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a Standard Change?

Accepted Answer

Low risk and well-understood. Standard changes are pre-approved, low risk, follow a defined procedure, and do not require individual approval each time. Options B (low risk and well-understood) and E (pre-approved by change authority) correctly describe standard changes. Options A (urgent implementation) describes emergency changes; Option C (requires individual approval each time) describes normal changes; Option D (requires a CAB meeting) is typically for normal or emergency changes, not standard changes.

Answer

Requires urgent implementation

Answer

Requires individual approval each time

Answer

Requires a change advisory board (CAB) meeting

Question 13

Which THREE of the following are purposes or activities of the Problem Management practice?

Accepted Answer

Identify the root cause of incidents. Problem Management includes problem identification, root cause analysis, and known error management. Options A, B, and C are correct. Option D is Change Enablement; Option E is Incident Management.

Answer

Assess and authorize changes to resolve known errors

Answer

Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

Question 14

Which TWO of the following are key metrics used to measure the performance of the Service Desk?

Accepted Answer

First Contact Resolution (FCR). First Contact Resolution (FCR) is a key Service Desk metric because it measures the percentage of incidents resolved during the initial contact without escalation or follow-up. A high FCR directly indicates efficiency, reduces operational costs, and improves user satisfaction by minimizing repeat interactions. ITIL 4 identifies FCR as a critical performance indicator for the Service Desk practice.

Answer

Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR)

Answer

Availability percentage

Answer

Capacity utilization

Question 15

Which TWO of the following are types of events in the Monitoring and Event Management practice?

Accepted Answer

Warning event. Events are classified into three types: informational, warning, and exception. Options C (Warning event) and E (Informational event) are correct types. Option A (Known error) is a type of problem, not an event. Option B (Standard change) is a type of change request. Option D (Service request) is a type of request, not an event.

Answer

Known error

Answer

Standard change

Answer

Service request