ITIL4F ITIL Management Practices Practice Test 24 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Which THREE of the following are activities of Service Level Management?

Accepted Answer

Reporting service performance. Service Level Management involves negotiating SLAs, monitoring service performance, and reporting results. Defining service metrics is part of service design, not a direct activity of SLA management.

Answer

Managing supplier contracts

Answer

Defining service metrics

Question 2

Which TWO of the following are roles involved in Change Enablement?

Accepted Answer

Change Authority. Change Enablement involves a Change Authority (who approves changes) and a Change Manager (who oversees the process). The Service Desk Manager is not necessarily involved.

Answer

Service Desk Manager

Answer

Problem Manager

Answer

Supplier Manager

Question 3

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the Incident Management practice?

Accepted Answer

To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations. The primary purpose of Incident Management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations. This practice focuses on resolving incidents (unplanned interruptions or reductions in quality) to return the service to its agreed service level, rather than analyzing root causes or handling routine requests.

Answer

To identify the root cause of incidents and prevent recurrence

Answer

To handle predefined, pre-approved service requests from users

Answer

To assess, authorize, and schedule changes to IT services

Question 4

Which of the following is a key activity in the Problem Management practice?

Accepted Answer

Documenting known errors and workarounds in the Known Error Database. Problem Management includes error control, which involves documenting known errors and workarounds in the Known Error Database (KEDB). Therefore, option D is correct. Option A pertains to Change Enablement. Option B is a Service Request. Option C describes Incident Management.

Answer

Authorizing and scheduling emergency changes

Answer

Fulfilling a password reset request from a user

Answer

Restoring service as quickly as possible using a workaround

Question 5

What is the main difference between a standard change and a normal change?

Accepted Answer

A standard change is pre-approved and follows a defined procedure, while a normal change requires approval from a change authority. Standard changes are pre-approved and follow a defined procedure, making them low risk and routine. Normal changes, on the other hand, require approval from a change authority (such as a CAB) because they are not pre-approved and may involve higher risk. Option A is incorrect because standard changes can be scheduled; Option B is incorrect because standard changes are not only for emergencies; Option D is incorrect because standard changes have a defined procedure.

Answer

A standard change cannot be scheduled, while a normal change can be scheduled

Answer

A standard change is only used for emergency fixes, while a normal change is for planned improvements

Answer

A standard change has no defined procedure, while a normal change has a defined procedure

Question 6

A user contacts the service desk to request a new laptop because their current one is outdated. According to ITIL 4, what type of record should be raised?

Accepted Answer

Service request. A request for a new laptop is a pre-approved, standard request that follows a defined procedure, making it a service request. Option C is correct. Option A is incorrect because a problem record is used to investigate the root cause of one or more incidents, not to fulfill a routine request. Option B is incorrect because a change request is for altering existing services, not for providing standard items. Option D is incorrect because an incident record is for unplanned interruptions or reductions in service quality, not for fulfilling a standard request.

Answer

Problem record

Answer

Change request

Answer

Incident record

Question 7

An organization wants to improve its first call resolution rate. Which practice is most directly responsible for this metric?

Accepted Answer

Service Desk. First call resolution rate is a key performance indicator for the Service Desk. The Service Desk practice is responsible for handling incidents and service requests on first contact, making FCR a direct measure of its effectiveness. Incident Management (A) focuses on restoring service, but FCR is specifically a Service Desk metric. Problem Management (B) deals with root causes, and Change Enablement (C) manages changes, neither of which is directly measured by FCR.

Answer

Incident Management

Answer

Problem Management

Answer

Change Enablement

Question 8

A monitoring tool detects that a server's CPU usage has exceeded 90% for 10 minutes. According to ITIL 4, this event is classified as which type?

Accepted Answer

Warning. According to ITIL 4, events are classified as informational, warning, or exception. A warning event indicates that a threshold, such as CPU usage over 90%, has been exceeded and may require action. Therefore, Option D is correct. Option A (Exception) refers to events that indicate a failure or significant deviation, not just a threshold breach. Option B (Critical) is not a standard ITIL event classification. Option C (Informational) describes routine events that do not require action.

Answer

Exception

Answer

Critical

Answer

Informational

Question 9

Which practice ensures that the performance of a service is measured and analyzed to meet current and future demand?

Accepted Answer

Capacity and Performance Management. Capacity and Performance Management ensures that services meet agreed and expected performance levels to satisfy current and future demand. Option C is correct because it directly focuses on measuring and analyzing service performance. Option A (IT Asset Management) manages the lifecycle of assets, not performance. Option B (Availability Management) focuses on ensuring services are available when required, not specifically on performance measurement and analysis. Option D (Service Configuration Management) maintains information about configuration items, not performance.

Answer

IT Asset Management

Answer

Availability Management

Answer

Service Configuration Management

Question 10

During a major incident, the IT team implements a workaround to restore service. Later, they discover the root cause and submit a permanent fix as an emergency change. Which ITIL 4 practices are primarily involved in this sequence?

Accepted Answer

Incident Management, Problem Management, and Change Enablement. Incident Management restores service with a workaround; Problem Management identifies root cause; Change Enablement implements the fix. Option A includes all three practices. Option B lacks Change Enablement; Option C lacks Incident Management; Option D lacks Problem Management.

Answer

Incident Management and Problem Management only

Answer

Problem Management and Change Enablement only

Answer

Incident Management and Change Enablement only

Question 11

A service desk analyst resolves an incident by providing a workaround from the Known Error Database. According to ITIL 4, this activity is part of which practice?

Accepted Answer

Incident Management. According to ITIL 4, using a known error workaround during incident resolution is part of Incident Management. Incident Management aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize adverse impact. The Known Error Database (KEDB) is used in Incident Management to provide workarounds. Option A (Problem Control) is incorrect because it identifies root causes of problems. Option B (Error Control) is incorrect because it documents known errors after root cause analysis, but using the workaround during an incident is Incident Management. Option C (Service Request Management) is incorrect as service requests are standard changes, not incident resolution.

Answer

Problem Control

Answer

Error Control

Answer

Service Request Management

Question 12

Which of the following best distinguishes an output from an outcome in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

An output is a deliverable, while an outcome is the result for the stakeholder. An output is a tangible deliverable, while an outcome is the result for the stakeholder. Option A is correct. Option B reverses the definitions; Option C is about utility vs warranty; Option D is incorrect.

Answer

An output is the value created, while an outcome is the metric used

Answer

An output is the result of an activity, while an outcome is the cost of the activity

Answer

An output is what the service does, while an outcome is how it is delivered

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are types of changes defined in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

Emergency change. ITIL 4 defines three types of changes: standard, emergency, and normal. Emergency changes (Option C) are those that must be implemented as soon as possible to resolve an incident or security vulnerability, following a specific emergency change process with reduced testing and approval. Standard changes (Option D) are pre-authorized, low-risk, and follow a defined procedure, such as password resets or server patching.

Answer

Urgent change

Answer

Major change

Answer

Minor change

Question 14

Which THREE of the following are key activities of the Continual Improvement practice?

Accepted Answer

Defining improvement initiatives based on stakeholder feedback. The key activities of the Continual Improvement practice include defining improvement initiatives based on stakeholder feedback (A), maintaining an improvement register (C), and applying the ITIL continual improvement model (D). Option B (negotiating and agreeing service level targets) is a key activity of Service Level Management, not Continual Improvement. Option E (monitoring and responding to events) belongs to Monitoring and Event Management. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C, and D.

Answer

Negotiating and agreeing service level targets

Answer

Monitoring and responding to events

Question 15

Which TWO of the following statements about Service Desk and Incident Management are correct?

Accepted Answer

Incident Management may use workarounds to restore service quickly. The Service Desk is the single point of contact for incident reporting, making Option B correct. Incident Management focuses on restoring service quickly, often using workarounds, which makes Option A correct. Option C is false because finding root cause is the goal of Problem Management, not Incident Management. Option D is false because the Service Desk does not perform root cause analysis. Option E is false because service requests are not necessarily logged as incidents; they are handled by Service Request Management.

Answer

Incident Management focuses on finding the root cause of incidents

Answer

The Service Desk is responsible for root cause analysis

Answer

All service requests must be logged as incidents