ITIL4F ITIL Management Practices Practice Test 12 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is maintained by which practice?

Accepted Answer

Service Configuration Management. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is the central repository for storing and managing configuration records (CIs) and their relationships. This is the core responsibility of the Service Configuration Management practice, which ensures that accurate and reliable information about CIs is available to support other service management processes.

Answer

Monitoring and Event Management

Answer

Service Desk

Answer

IT Asset Management

Question 2

Which THREE of the following are purposes of the Service Level Management practice?

Accepted Answer

Monitor and report on service levels. Option A is correct because Service Level Management (SLM) continuously monitors and reports on achieved service levels against agreed targets, typically through SLAs, OLAs, and service level reports reviewed in service review meetings. Option C is correct because SLM ensures customer engagement and feedback by capturing customer requirements, expectations, and satisfaction, and using that input to shape and improve services. Option E is correct because negotiating, agreeing, and maintaining SLAs with customers is a core SLM activity, along with ensuring they remain relevant and achievable. Option B is not an SLM purpose because resolving incidents within agreed times is the responsibility of the Incident Management practice, although SLM may define the targets. Option D is not an SLM purpose because managing relationships with suppliers belongs to Supplier Management, even though SLM may rely on underpinning contracts and OLAs.

Answer

Resolve incidents within agreed times

Answer

Manage relationships with suppliers

Question 3

Which TWO of the following are examples of utility in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

The system supports automated billing. Utility in ITIL 4 refers to the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a specific user need. Option C is correct because automated billing directly fulfills a business requirement by performing a specific function, which is the essence of utility. Option D is correct because report generation is a functional capability that enables users to achieve a desired outcome.

Answer

The system processes transactions within 2 seconds

Answer

The system is available 99.9% of the time

Answer

The system is secure and compliant

Question 4

Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an incident and a service request?

Accepted Answer

Incidents are unplanned disruptions; service requests are routine, pre-approved requests. The ITIL 4 definition clearly distinguishes incidents as unplanned interruptions or reductions in service quality, while service requests are pre-defined, standardized, and pre-approved requests from users for information, advice, or access. This aligns with the ITIL 4 Foundation syllabus, which separates the two based on the nature of the trigger—unplanned vs. planned—not on resolution time, workaround necessity, or assignment team.

Answer

Incidents require a workaround; service requests do not

Answer

Incidents are always resolved within 24 hours; service requests have no time limit

Answer

Incidents are handled by the service desk; service requests are handled by change enablement

Question 5

A change request to upgrade an application is classified as 'normal'. What is the correct sequence of activities for this type of change?

Accepted Answer

Request, assess, authorize, plan, implement, review. ITIL 4 defines the normal change sequence as: request, assess, authorize, plan, implement, and review. This ensures that all normal changes are properly evaluated for risk and impact before authorization, then planned and implemented, followed by a review to confirm success and capture lessons learned.

Answer

Request, implement, review, close

Answer

Plan, authorize, implement, review, close

Answer

Assess, authorize, implement, close

Question 6

What is the purpose of the Service Desk practice?

Accepted Answer

To provide a single point of contact for users. The Service Desk practice provides a single point of contact (SPOC) for users to report incidents, submit service requests, and receive updates. This ensures that all user interactions are logged, tracked, and managed consistently, aligning with the ITIL 4 guiding principle of 'Focus on Value' by reducing user confusion and improving resolution times.

Answer

To monitor and control IT events

Answer

To manage the lifecycle of all IT assets

Answer

To negotiate service level agreements

Question 7

In which phase of Problem Management are known errors created and managed?

Accepted Answer

Error control. Known errors are created and managed during the Error Control phase of Problem Management. This phase focuses on documenting known errors in the Known Error Database (KEDB) after root cause analysis is complete, and managing them through their lifecycle until a permanent resolution (e.g., a change via RFC) is implemented. Error Control ensures that workarounds are available and that the known error is tracked for future resolution.

Answer

Incident management

Answer

Problem control (root cause analysis)

Answer

Problem identification

Question 8

An organization wants to ensure that its IT services are available according to agreed levels. Which practice is PRIMARILY responsible for negotiating and monitoring these levels?

Accepted Answer

Service Level Management. Service Level Management (SLM) is the ITIL practice responsible for negotiating, agreeing, and documenting service level targets with customers, and then monitoring and reporting on actual service performance against those targets. It ensures that IT services are delivered at the agreed levels by managing service level agreements (SLAs), operational level agreements (OLAs), and underpinning contracts.

Answer

IT Asset Management

Answer

Availability Management

Answer

Monitoring and Event Management

Question 9

A service desk measures the percentage of calls resolved on first contact. Which metric is this?

Accepted Answer

First Contact Resolution (FCR). First Contact Resolution (FCR) is the correct metric because it specifically measures the percentage of calls resolved during the initial contact with the service desk, without requiring a callback, escalation, or follow-up. This aligns directly with the question's definition, as FCR is a key performance indicator (KPI) in ITIL 4 for evaluating service desk efficiency and user satisfaction.

Answer

Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)

Answer

Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR)

Answer

Service Level Achievement

Question 10

Which ITIL practice is responsible for managing the lifecycle of all IT assets, including financial aspects?

Accepted Answer

IT Asset Management. IT Asset Management (ITAM) is the correct practice because it is specifically defined in ITIL 4 to manage the lifecycle of all IT assets, including their financial aspects such as procurement, depreciation, and disposal. This practice ensures that assets are accounted for, controlled, and optimized from acquisition to retirement, directly covering financial management of hardware, software, and licenses.

Answer

Service Configuration Management

Answer

Service Level Management

Answer

Supplier Management

Question 11

Which of the following is an example of an output, as defined in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

A monthly performance report generated by the IT system. An output, as defined in ITIL 4, is a tangible, deliverable result produced by an activity or process. A monthly performance report is a concrete, measurable artifact generated by the IT system, which aligns with the ITIL 4 definition of an output as something that is directly produced, not an outcome or benefit.

Answer

Reduction in average incident resolution time

Answer

Improved user satisfaction after a system upgrade

Answer

Increased revenue from a new service

Question 12

Which type of change follows a pre-defined, low-risk procedure and is pre-approved?

Accepted Answer

Standard change. A standard change is a pre-defined, low-risk change that follows a specific procedure and is pre-approved by change management. It does not require a new change request each time because its risk profile and implementation steps are already documented and authorized. This aligns with ITIL 4's definition of a standard change as a change that is well-understood, fully documented, and can be implemented without additional approval.

Answer

Service request

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Normal change

Answer

Emergency change

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are elements of the ITIL 4 Service Value System (SVS)?

Accepted Answer

Governance. The ITIL 4 Service Value System (SVS) is composed of five core components: Guiding Principles, Governance, the Service Value Chain, Practices, and Continual Improvement. Option A (Governance) is correct because governance is one of these five central components, directing how the organization is run and controlled within the SVS. Option D (Guiding Principles) is correct because the guiding principles are also one of the five core components, providing recommendations that guide an organization in all circumstances. Option B (Products and Services) is incorrect because products and services are the outputs delivered to consumers, not a structural element of the SVS itself. Option C (Opportunity/Demand) is incorrect because opportunity and demand are the inputs that enter the SVS from outside, feeding into the service value chain rather than being a component of the SVS. Option E (Outcome) is incorrect because outcomes are the results of service delivery for stakeholders, not one of the SVS's constituent elements.

Answer

Products and Services

Answer

Opportunity/Demand

Answer

Outcome

Question 14

Which THREE of the following are key activities of the Problem Management practice?

Accepted Answer

Problem identification. Problem identification (A) is a core Problem Management activity because it detects and logs problems — often by analyzing incident trends and recurring patterns — so their root causes can be investigated. Error control (B) is correct because it covers managing known errors throughout their lifecycle, including recording them in the known error database, assessing workarounds, and tracking them until a permanent fix is implemented. Problem control (D) is correct because it is the activity of investigating and analyzing problems to determine root causes and identify permanent solutions. Change authorization (C) belongs to Change Enablement (change control), which assesses and authorizes changes, not to Problem Management. Incident resolution (E) belongs to Incident Management, whose goal is to restore service quickly, whereas Problem Management focuses on eliminating the underlying causes of incidents.

Answer

Change authorization

Answer

Incident resolution

Question 15

A user requests a new laptop because their current one is failing frequently. The service desk analyst determines that the user is eligible for a replacement under the existing policy. What type of record should the analyst create?

Accepted Answer

Service request. The user is requesting a standard, pre-approved service (a laptop replacement under an existing policy), which is a classic service request. Service requests are defined in ITIL 4 as the formal request from a user for something to be provided – such as a new device – and follow a standard, low-risk procedure. This is not an incident (a failure) or a problem (a root cause), and it does not require a change request because the replacement is already authorized by policy.

Answer

Problem record

Answer

Incident record

Answer

Change request