ITIL4F ITIL Management Practices Practice Test 10 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Which document defines the agreed level of service between an IT provider and a customer?

Accepted Answer

Service Level Agreement (SLA). The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the formal document that specifies the agreed level of service between an IT provider and a customer, including metrics such as availability, response times, and resolution targets. In ITIL 4, the SLA is a key output of the service level management practice, defining measurable targets that the provider commits to meet. It is distinct from other agreements because it directly represents the customer-facing promise of service quality.

Answer

Underpinning Contract (UC)

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Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

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Continual Improvement Register (CIR)

Question 2

Which practice includes the 'ITIL continual improvement model' with seven steps?

Accepted Answer

Continual Improvement. The ITIL continual improvement model is a structured seven-step process (What is the vision?, Where are we now?, Where do we want to be?, How do we get there?, Take action, Did we get there?, How do we keep the momentum going?) that is explicitly defined within the Continual Improvement practice. This practice is the owner of the model, providing the framework for identifying and executing improvements across all other ITIL practices.

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Change Enablement

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Service Level Management

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Problem Management

Question 3

An organization has identified that a recurring incident is caused by a specific software bug. The bug has been documented, and a workaround is known. What phase of Problem Management is this?

Accepted Answer

Error Control. Error Control. In ITIL 4, once a problem has been identified and analyzed (Problem Control), and a known error (the documented bug with a workaround) is created, the lifecycle moves to Error Control. This phase manages known errors through their lifecycle, focusing on finding a permanent resolution (e.g., a software patch) while the workaround is used in the interim. The question explicitly states the bug is documented and a workaround exists, which are the hallmarks of a known error under Error Control.

Answer

Problem Identification

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Problem Control

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Incident Management

Question 4

What is the primary measure of success for Incident Management?

Accepted Answer

Mean Time to Restore Service (MTTR). Incident Management's primary measure of success is Mean Time to Restore Service (MTTR), because it directly reflects how quickly the service is restored to normal operation after an incident. While other metrics like FCR or CSAT are important, MTTR is the core indicator of the efficiency and effectiveness of the incident resolution process, as defined in ITIL 4.

Answer

First Call Resolution (FCR)

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Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)

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Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

Question 5

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. What should they do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Log and categorize the incident. According to ITIL 4, the first step when a user reports an inability to access a service (like a CRM system) is to log and categorize the incident. This ensures the issue is formally recorded, prioritized, and routed to the appropriate support team for diagnosis and resolution. Without logging, no structured response or escalation can occur, and the service desk cannot track the incident's lifecycle.

Answer

Raise a service request for access

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Start a root cause analysis

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Change the firewall rules

Question 6

Which type of change is pre-approved and follows a defined procedure with minimal risk?

Accepted Answer

Standard change. A standard change is pre-approved by the change authority and follows a defined, low-risk procedure. It does not require a separate change advisory board (CAB) meeting for each occurrence, as its risk is well-understood and the implementation steps are documented and repeatable.

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Normal change

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Urgent change

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Emergency change

Question 7

What is the purpose of the Continual Improvement practice?

Accepted Answer

To align services with changing business needs through ongoing improvements. The Continual Improvement practice ensures that IT services and processes remain aligned with evolving business needs by identifying and implementing ongoing enhancements. Unlike reactive practices like incident management, Continual Improvement is proactive and iterative, focusing on closing gaps between current and desired service performance through the ITIL continual improvement model.

Answer

To implement new technologies

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To monitor and report on service performance

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To manage the lifecycle of all incidents

Question 8

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Problem Management practice?

Accepted Answer

Workarounds. Problem Management practice outputs include known errors and workarounds, which are documented during the error control phase. Option A (Workarounds) and Option D (Known errors) are correct. Option B (Improvement actions) is an output of Continual Improvement. Option C (Change requests) are often initiated by Problem Management to implement permanent solutions, but their formal management and processing are handled by the Change Enablement practice. Option E (Incident resolutions) is an output of Incident Management.

Answer

Improvement actions

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Change requests

Answer

Incident resolutions

Question 9

Which TWO of the following are components of the ITIL 4 Service Value System?

Accepted Answer

Guiding Principles. The ITIL 4 Service Value System (SVS) consists of five components: guiding principles, governance, service value chain, practices, and continual improvement. From the options, Guiding Principles (A), Service Value Chain (C), and Governance (D) are all components of the SVS. Option B (Service Desk) and Option E (Incident Management) are ITIL practices, not SVS components.

Answer

Service Desk

Answer

Incident Management

Question 10

A company implements a new monitoring system that sends alerts when server CPU usage exceeds 90%. Which ITIL 4 practice is primarily involved?

Accepted Answer

Monitoring and Event Management. The monitoring system that sends alerts when CPU usage exceeds 90% directly involves detecting and responding to operational events. This is the core function of the Monitoring and Event Management practice, which defines how events (such as threshold breaches) are captured, analyzed, and acted upon. The alert itself is an 'event' in ITIL 4 terms, making this practice primarily responsible.

Answer

Service Desk

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Incident Management

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Capacity and Performance Management

Question 11

A known error has been documented for a recurring application crash. According to ITIL 4, in which phase of Problem Management is this known error created?

Accepted Answer

Problem control. Problem Control is the phase where problems are analyzed, root causes are identified, and known errors are documented. Error Control focuses on managing these known errors, finding permanent solutions, and implementing them.

Answer

Problem identification

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Error control

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Incident Management

Question 12

Which ITIL 4 practice is responsible for maintaining the CMDB and ensuring configuration items are accurate?

Accepted Answer

Service Configuration Management. Service Configuration Management (C) is the ITIL 4 practice responsible for maintaining the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) and ensuring that Configuration Items (CIs) are accurate, up-to-date, and under controlled management. This practice focuses on defining, recording, and controlling CIs and their relationships, directly supporting the integrity of the CMDB.

Answer

Service Desk

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IT Asset Management

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Change Enablement

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are key components of the Service Desk practice?

Accepted Answer

Single point of contact (SPOC). The Service Desk practice is defined in ITIL 4 as the single point of contact (SPOC) between the service provider and users for all operational interactions. This ensures that users have a clear, consistent entry point for reporting incidents, submitting service requests, and seeking guidance. Omnichannel communication is also a key component because modern service desks must support multiple channels (phone, email, chat, portal) while maintaining a unified interaction history and consistent service quality.

Answer

Root cause analysis

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Configuration baseline

Answer

Shift-left

Question 14

Which of the following BEST distinguishes an incident from a problem in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

Incidents are unplanned service disruptions, while problems are the root causes of incidents. In ITIL 4, an incident is defined as an unplanned interruption or reduction in quality of an IT service, while a problem is the underlying cause of one or more incidents. Option A correctly captures this distinction: incidents are the visible disruptions, and problems are the root causes that need to be identified and resolved to prevent recurrence.

Answer

Incidents are always reported by users, while problems are identified by technical staff

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Incidents have a defined resolution time in the SLA, while problems do not

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Incidents are managed by the service desk, while problems are managed by problem management

Question 15

An IT team identifies that repeated application crashes are caused by a memory leak. According to ITIL 4, at which stage of Problem Management is the memory leak documented as a Known Error?

Accepted Answer

Problem control. According to ITIL 4, a Known Error is created and documented during the 'Problem control' phase, after the root cause analysis has been completed and a workaround has been identified. 'Error control' focuses on finding permanent solutions for already identified Known Errors.

Answer

Problem identification

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Error control

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Incident management