ITIL4F Practice Test 20 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Which type of change follows a pre-defined, low-risk procedure and is pre-approved?

Accepted Answer

Standard change. A standard change is a pre-defined, low-risk change that follows a specific procedure and is pre-approved by change management. It does not require a new change request each time because its risk profile and implementation steps are already documented and authorized. This aligns with ITIL 4's definition of a standard change as a change that is well-understood, fully documented, and can be implemented without additional approval.

Answer

Service request

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Normal change

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Emergency change

Question 2

Which ITIL 4 concept describes the assurance that a service meets its agreed availability and capacity requirements?

Accepted Answer

Warranty. Warranty is the ITIL 4 concept that focuses on the 'assurance' that a service will meet its agreed-upon availability, capacity, continuity, and security requirements. It represents the operational guarantees that make the service fit for use, directly addressing the question's focus on availability and capacity commitments.

Answer

Risk

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Utility

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Outcome

Question 3

A service provider offers a cloud-based application with 99.9% uptime guarantee. Which aspect of service value does the uptime guarantee represent?

Accepted Answer

Warranty. The uptime guarantee of 99.9% directly relates to the service's availability, which is a key component of warranty in ITIL 4. Warranty ensures that the service will be available when needed, with sufficient capacity, continuity, and security. In this cloud-based application scenario, the guarantee assures the customer that the service will meet a defined level of operational performance, fulfilling the 'fit for use' aspect of service value.

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Output

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Utility

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Outcome

Question 4

Which THREE of the following are triggers for the Service Value System to produce value?

Accepted Answer

Demand. Demand is a correct trigger because the Service Value System (SVS) is activated when there is a need for services from customers or users. In ITIL 4, demand represents the requirement for value in the form of products or services, which initiates the entire value stream and value chain activities to produce outcomes.

Answer

Budget approval

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Incident reports

Question 5

An IT department is asked to deploy a critical security patch that must be implemented within 2 hours to address a zero-day vulnerability. The patch has been tested and approved for emergency use. According to ITIL 4, what type of change should be raised?

Accepted Answer

Emergency change. An emergency change is required because the zero-day vulnerability demands immediate deployment of a critical security patch within 2 hours to mitigate an active threat. ITIL 4 defines an emergency change as one that must be implemented as soon as possible, often to resolve a major incident or security breach, and it follows a streamlined process with pre-approved authorization (e.g., via an emergency change advisory board). The patch has been tested and approved for emergency use, confirming it meets the criteria for this change type.

Answer

Standard change

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Service request

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Normal change

Question 6

An organization wants to improve first-level resolution rates. Which practice should they focus on?

Accepted Answer

Service Desk. The Service Desk practice is the single point of contact between the provider and users, and it owns the handling of incidents and service requests at first level. Improving first-level resolution rates means empowering the Service Desk with better knowledge, scripts, and tools so more incidents are resolved without escalation.

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Problem Management

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Service Level Management

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Incident Management

Question 7

Drag and drop the steps of the service request management process into the correct order.

Accepted Answer

Receipt, then Categorization, then Fulfillment, then Verification, then Closure. Service request management starts with receipt, then categorization, fulfillment, verification, and closure.

Answer

Categorization, then Receipt, then Fulfillment, then Verification, then Closure

Answer

Receipt, then Categorization, then Verification, then Fulfillment, then Closure

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Receipt, then Fulfillment, then Categorization, then Verification, then Closure

Question 8

According to ITIL 4, which role represents the service consumer who uses the service on a daily basis?

Accepted Answer

User. In ITIL 4, the 'user' is the specific role that represents the service consumer who actually utilizes the service on a daily basis to perform their tasks. This is distinct from the 'customer' who authorizes the service or the 'sponsor' who funds it. The user interacts directly with the service's functionality, such as logging into an application or accessing a network resource.

Answer

Service provider

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Customer

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Sponsor

Question 9

An IT team is reviewing the configuration baseline of a service to understand what has changed since the last release. Which practice is primarily involved?

Accepted Answer

Service Configuration Management. The configuration baseline is a snapshot of the service's configuration at a specific point in time, used as a reference for comparison. Service Configuration Management (SCM) is the practice responsible for maintaining configuration baselines and tracking all changes to Configuration Items (CIs) within the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). Therefore, when the team needs to understand what has changed since the last release, SCM is the primary practice involved, as it provides the historical records and comparison capabilities.

Answer

Change Enablement

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Deployment Management

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Release Management

Question 10

Which THREE of the following are considered events in the Monitoring and Event Management practice?

Accepted Answer

A server CPU utilization exceeding a threshold. In the Monitoring and Event Management practice, an event is any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or configuration item. Option C is correct because a server CPU utilization exceeding a threshold is a predefined condition that triggers an event, often an 'alert' or 'warning' event, which is automatically detected by monitoring tools (e.g., SNMP traps, Prometheus alerts) and requires attention or automated response.

Answer

A user requesting a password reset

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A user reporting an application crash

Question 11

According to ITIL 4, which guiding principle advises that ‘if in doubt, leave it out’?

Accepted Answer

Keep it simple and practical. The guiding principle 'Keep it simple and practical' directly advises that if a process, service, or improvement step adds unnecessary complexity without clear value, it should be omitted. The phrase 'if in doubt, leave it out' is a well-known ITIL 4 mantra for this principle, emphasizing that simplicity reduces waste, risk, and overhead in service management.

Answer

Optimise and automate

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Focus on value

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Start where you are

Question 12

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the 'Plan' activity in the ITIL 4 service value chain?

Accepted Answer

To ensure a shared understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction for all products and services. The 'Plan' activity in the ITIL 4 service value chain ensures alignment of strategy, vision, and current status across all products and services. It creates a shared understanding that guides subsequent value chain activities, making option B the correct primary purpose.

Answer

To provide a good understanding of stakeholder needs and transparency

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To ensure that services are delivered according to agreed specifications

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To coordinate and prioritize improvement opportunities

Question 13

Which statement correctly distinguishes output from outcome in ITIL 4?

Accepted Answer

An output is a tangible or intangible deliverable; an outcome is a result for a stakeholder.. ITIL 4 defines an output as a tangible or intangible deliverable produced by an activity, while an outcome is the result for a stakeholder that demonstrates value or achievement of a goal. This distinction is fundamental to the service value system (SVS), where outputs (e.g., a report) must lead to outcomes (e.g., improved decision-making) to deliver value.

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An output assures that a service will meet agreed requirements; an outcome ensures fitness for purpose.

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An output is the functionality offered by a service; an outcome is the assurance of performance.

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An output is the result for a stakeholder; an outcome is the deliverable from an activity.

Question 14

Drag and drop the steps of the IT asset management process into the correct order.

Accepted Answer

Strategy, then Acquisition, then Tracking, then Maintenance, then Disposal. IT asset management starts with strategy, then acquisition, tracking, maintenance, and disposal.

Answer

Strategy, then Maintenance, then Acquisition, then Tracking, then Disposal

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Strategy, then Acquisition, then Maintenance, then Tracking, then Disposal

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Tracking, then Strategy, then Acquisition, then Maintenance, then Disposal

Question 15

When a change is classified as ‘normal’ in ITIL, what does that mean?

Accepted Answer

It is a change that is not pre-approved and needs assessment by a change authority. In ITIL 4, a 'normal' change is the default category for changes that are not pre-approved (standard) or emergency. These changes require assessment by a change authority before implementation, as they do not follow a pre-defined, low-risk procedure. Option C correctly captures this requirement for evaluation and approval.

Answer

It is a low-risk change that follows a pre-approved procedure

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It is a change that does not require any approval

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It is an emergency change that must be implemented quickly