MS-102 Timed Practice Test 5 — 10 Questions

Question 1

A security administrator wants to prevent Microsoft Office applications (Word, Excel, PowerPoint) from creating child processes, which is a common technique used by malware to execute malicious code. Which attack surface reduction (ASR) rule should be enabled?

Accepted Answer

Block all Office applications from creating child processes. Option A is correct because the ASR rule 'Block all Office applications from creating child processes' (GUID: D4F940AB-401B-4EFC-AADC-AD5F3C50688A) specifically prevents Word, Excel, and PowerPoint from spawning child processes such as cmd.exe, PowerShell, or wscript.exe. This directly mitigates a common malware technique where Office macros or exploits launch malicious executables. The rule is part of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint's attack surface reduction capabilities and is designed to stop process injection and lateral movement without blocking legitimate Office functionality.

Answer

Block executable files from running unless they meet a prevalence, age, or trusted list criteria

Answer

Block Office applications from creating executable content

Answer

Block Win32 API calls from Office macros

Question 2

A compliance officer needs to retain all email messages in a user's Exchange Online mailbox for 7 years after the message is sent or received, and then automatically delete them. The retention must be enforced regardless of user actions. Which Microsoft Purview solution should be used?

Accepted Answer

Retention policy with Exchange location. A retention policy with the Exchange location in Microsoft Purview allows you to define a retention period (e.g., 7 years) and then automatically delete messages after that period. It enforces the retention regardless of user actions because it operates at the service level, not relying on user cooperation. This meets the compliance officer's requirement for mandatory, time-based retention and deletion.

Answer

Litigation hold

Answer

Classification policy

Answer

In-place eDiscovery hold

Question 3

A security analyst has identified a new malware sample with a specific SHA256 hash. The analyst needs to immediately block this file from executing on any managed endpoint across the organization, including prevention of future execution. Which Microsoft Defender for Endpoint capability should the analyst use?

Accepted Answer

Indicators (IoCs) for file hashes. Option B is correct because Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) for file hashes in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint allow an analyst to create a block indicator for a specific SHA256 hash. This action immediately prevents the file from executing on any managed endpoint and persists across reboots, effectively blocking future execution attempts. Unlike other capabilities, IoCs provide a direct, hash-based block that is enforced by the Microsoft Defender Antivirus engine at the point of execution.

Answer

Attack surface reduction (ASR) rules

Answer

Custom detection rules via advanced hunting

Answer

Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management

Question 4

A company wants to require approval for any activation of the Global Administrator role in Privileged Identity Management (PIM). The approvers are predefined as members of a security group named 'GA-Approvers'. Activations must require a business justification and expire after 4 hours. Which PIM configuration should the administrator modify to meet these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Edit the role settings of the Global Administrator role in PIM.. Option A is correct because the requirement to require approval, enforce a business justification, and set a 4-hour expiration for Global Administrator activations is configured in the role settings of the Global Administrator role within Privileged Identity Management (PIM). These settings control activation parameters such as approval requirements, justification, and maximum activation duration, which directly map to the stated needs.

Answer

Create an access review for the Global Administrator role.

Answer

Configure Azure AD Identity Protection to require MFA for Global Administrator.

Answer

Assign the Global Administrator role directly to the users temporarily.

Question 5

A security administrator wants to prevent attackers from stealing credentials by blocking access to the Local Security Authority Subsystem Service (LSASS) from untrusted processes. Which Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rule should the administrator enable to meet this requirement?

Accepted Answer

Block credential stealing from the Windows local security authority subsystem (lsass.exe).. The ASR rule 'Block credential stealing from the Windows local security authority subsystem (lsass.exe)' (GUID: 9e6c4e1f-7d60-472f-ba1a-a39ef669e4b2) directly prevents untrusted processes from accessing LSASS memory, which is a common technique used by attackers to dump credentials via tools like Mimikatz. This rule blocks attempts to open lsass.exe with specific access rights (e.g., PROCESS_VM_READ) from non-trusted processes, thereby protecting credential material stored in LSASS.

Answer

Block executable files from running unless they meet a prevalence, age, or trusted list criterion.

Answer

Block Office applications from creating child processes.

Answer

Block persistence through Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) event subscription.

Question 6

A legal department needs to preserve all communications related to an ongoing lawsuit. They identify specific users and require that their mailbox items and OneDrive files are not altered or deleted. Which Microsoft Purview feature should be used?

Accepted Answer

Litigation Hold. Litigation Hold is the correct feature because it preserves all mailbox items and OneDrive files for specific users in their current state, preventing any alteration or deletion by users or automated processes. This is essential for legal holds where data must be immutable for eDiscovery purposes, and it applies at the user level rather than broadly across the organization.

Answer

Retention Policy

Answer

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Answer

eDiscovery

Question 7

A compliance officer needs to retain all documents in a SharePoint Online site associated with the Finance department for 7 years, and after that automatically delete them. During the retention period, users must not be able to edit or delete the documents. Which solution should they use?

Accepted Answer

Create a retention label with 'Retain as regulatory records' and publish it to the site, then use auto-apply based on site location. Option B is correct because a retention label with 'Retain as regulatory records' locks the document against editing or deletion during the retention period, and auto-applying the label based on site location ensures all documents in the Finance site inherit the 7-year retention and automatic deletion. This meets the compliance officer's requirement for immutable retention and automatic disposal without manual user intervention.

Answer

Create a retention policy scoped to the site with 'Retain as records' action

Answer

Create a sensitivity label with 'Retain as records' and apply it manually

Answer

Create a litigation hold for the site

Question 8

An organization with Microsoft Entra ID P2 licenses wants to require multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all users but allow them to register their authentication methods before being forced to use MFA. Which configuration should they implement?

Accepted Answer

Conditional Access policy with MFA grant and a registration campaign. Conditional Access policies can include a registration campaign for combined security info registration, allowing users to preregister MFA methods before the policy requiring MFA is enforced. This provides a smooth user experience. Security defaults enforce MFA immediately without a pre-registration period. Per-user MFA requires enabling MFA per user and does not include a registration campaign. Identity Protection user risk policy triggers MFA based on risk, not a blanket requirement.

Answer

Security defaults

Answer

Per-user MFA

Answer

Identity Protection user risk policy

Question 9

An administrator needs to allow external users from a partner company to sign up for access to a SharePoint Online site using their own Azure AD accounts. Which configuration should the administrator enable?

Accepted Answer

Enable 'External identities' > 'Self-service sign-up' in Azure AD. Option B is correct because enabling 'Self-service sign-up' in Azure AD External Identities allows external users to sign up for access to applications (including SharePoint Online sites) using their own Azure AD accounts without manual admin intervention. This feature creates guest user objects automatically when the external user completes the sign-up flow, which satisfies the requirement for partner users to sign up using their existing Azure AD credentials.

Answer

Enable 'Email one-time passcode authentication' for guests

Answer

Configure a cross-tenant access policy for the partner tenant

Answer

Create guest user accounts manually in Azure AD

Question 10

An organization has multiple Microsoft Entra ID tenants and wants to allow partner users to access internal applications using their own corporate credentials. Which feature should be used to enable this?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration. Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration is the correct feature because it allows partner users to access internal applications using their own corporate credentials (their home tenant identity) without requiring any external accounts or local user management. B2B collaboration uses cross-tenant trust relationships, enabling seamless single sign-on (SSO) via SAML/WS-Fed or OIDC protocols, which aligns with the requirement to use existing partner credentials.

Answer

Microsoft Entra B2C

Answer

Azure AD Connect

Answer

Tenant-to-tenant migration