CISSP Exam Simulation 1 — 100 Questions

Question 1

An application authenticates users using session tokens. A security analyst finds that the application does not invalidate session tokens after logout, allowing session fixation attacks. Which secure coding practice should be implemented to mitigate this?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Regenerating session ID after successful login. Proper session management includes invalidating session tokens on logout and generating new tokens after authentication to prevent fixation.

Answer

Using short session timeouts

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Setting the secure flag on cookies

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Implementing HTTPS for all communications

Question 2

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the CIA triad in information security?

Accepted Answer

To define the core objectives of information security. The CIA triad—Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability—provides a foundational model for developing security policies and ensuring that data is protected from unauthorized access, tampering, and downtime.

Answer

To establish a framework for risk management

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To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements

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To balance security controls with usability

Question 3

Your organization is a medium-sized e-commerce company with a hybrid infrastructure: on-premises datacenter and AWS cloud. The security team recently conducted an internal vulnerability scan of the on-premises network and discovered multiple critical vulnerabilities in a legacy ERP system that cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports it. The ERP system is essential for order processing and cannot be decommissioned. The team also ran a penetration test against the cloud environment and found that an attacker with network access could leverage misconfigured security groups to move laterally between instances. The company has a risk appetite that allows for limited risk acceptance with compensating controls. As the senior security analyst, what is the BEST course of action?

Accepted Answer

Apply virtual patching via an intrusion prevention system (IPS) for the ERP vulnerabilities and implement stricter security group rules in the cloud to restrict lateral movement.. The best course of action because it applies compensating controls to reduce risk without disrupting operations. Virtual patching via an IPS mitigates the unpatched ERP vulnerabilities, while stricter security group rules limit lateral movement in the cloud. This aligns with the organization's risk appetite for limited risk acceptance with compensating controls. Option A is too disruptive, Option B would cause unacceptable operational disruption, and Option C fails to implement any controls.

Answer

Immediately isolate the legacy ERP system from the network and implement a manual workaround for order processing.

Answer

Decommission the legacy ERP system and migrate to a modern alternative, accepting a temporary disruption in operations.

Answer

Accept the risk for both findings and document them in the risk register without additional controls.

Question 4

An organization is implementing role-based access control (RBAC). Which two components are fundamental to the RBAC model? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Constraints such as separation of duties. Constraints such as separation of duties are fundamental to RBAC because they enforce organizational policies by preventing conflicts of interest (e.g., a user cannot both create and approve a purchase order). This is a core component of the RBAC model as defined in the NIST RBAC standard (ANSI INCITS 359-2004), which includes core RBAC, hierarchical RBAC, and constrained RBAC. Constraints ensure that role assignments and permissions adhere to security rules beyond simple role-user mapping.

Answer

Access control lists (ACLs)

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Subjects, objects, and operations

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Security labels and clearances

Question 5

A hospital chain collects and stores electronic health records (EHR) for millions of patients. The EHR system is hosted in a private cloud and accessed by doctors, nurses, and administrative staff from various locations. Recently, an internal audit found that several employees shared their login credentials with colleagues to expedite workflows. The hospital must comply with HIPAA and state privacy laws. The security officer wants to implement a solution that minimizes the risk of unauthorized access due to shared credentials while still allowing efficient access for patient care. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

Accepted Answer

Implement single sign-on (SSO) integrated with role-based access control (RBAC) and enforce audit logging of all access. SSO integrated with RBAC reduces the attack surface of shared credentials by centralizing authentication and enforcing least-privilege access based on job roles. Audit logging provides non-repudiation and traceability, which deters credential sharing and satisfies HIPAA's requirement to track access to ePHI. This combination directly addresses the root cause (shared credentials) while maintaining workflow efficiency through seamless authentication.

Answer

Enforce a policy requiring password changes every 30 days and complexity requirements

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Replace passwords with biometric authentication (fingerprint and iris scans) for all users

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Disable remote access to the EHR system and require all access to occur only from within the hospital's LAN

Question 6

An organization's security policy requires that privileged accounts have their passwords changed every 30 days and be monitored. Which solution effectively manages these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution. A Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution is specifically designed to manage privileged accounts, enforce password rotation policies (e.g., every 30 days), and provide detailed monitoring and auditing of privileged sessions. It automates password changes, vaults credentials, and logs all access, directly meeting the policy requirements for privileged accounts.

Answer

Role-based access control

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Enterprise password manager

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Single sign-on for administrators

Question 7

A network architect is designing a secure connection between two data centers across an untrusted WAN. The requirement is to encrypt all traffic and authenticate both endpoints. Which protocol should be used?

Accepted Answer

IPsec tunnel mode. IPsec tunnel mode is the correct choice because it encrypts the entire IP packet, including the original IP header, and encapsulates it within a new IP header for secure transport across an untrusted WAN. It also provides mutual authentication of both endpoints using IKE (Internet Key Exchange) with pre-shared keys or certificates, satisfying the requirement for encrypting all traffic and authenticating both data centers.

Answer

SSH

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MPLS

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SSL/TLS

Question 8

An organization is developing a business continuity plan (BCP). The IT department has identified a critical application that must be restored within 4 hours of a disruption. Which metric defines the maximum acceptable time that the application can be unavailable?

Accepted Answer

Recovery Time Objective (RTO). The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) defines the maximum acceptable downtime for a critical application after a disruption. In this scenario, the IT department has specified that the application must be restored within 4 hours, which directly aligns with the RTO metric. RTO is a key BCP parameter that drives resource allocation and recovery strategy design.

Answer

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

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Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

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Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

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Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Question 9

A company wants to ensure that its security policy is effectively enforced across all departments. Currently, the policy is published on the intranet and included in the employee handbook. However, the security team notices that many employees are not following the policy, leading to security incidents. Which of the following would be the most effective way to improve policy enforcement?

Accepted Answer

Require annual signed acknowledgment of the policy. Requiring annual signed acknowledgment ensures that employees are aware of and agree to comply with the policy. This creates a record of acceptance and can be used in disciplinary actions. Publishing on intranet or handbook alone does not guarantee reading or acceptance. Random audits with penalties may enforce compliance but without awareness, employees may not know what is expected.

Answer

Include the policy in the employee handbook

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Conduct random audits and penalize non-compliance

Answer

Publish the policy on the intranet only

Question 10

A network analyst suspects a host on the internal network is sending abnormal amounts of traffic. Which tool should be used to capture and analyze the packets?

Accepted Answer

Wireshark. Wireshark is the correct tool because it is a packet analyzer that captures live network traffic and provides deep inspection of individual packets, including headers and payloads. This allows the analyst to examine the abnormal traffic patterns, identify source/destination IPs, protocols, and payload content to diagnose the issue.

Answer

Nmap

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Netstat

Answer

Traceroute

Question 11

A security architect is designing a zero-trust network. Which principle is fundamental to a zero-trust architecture (ZTA) such as BeyondCorp?

Accepted Answer

Never trust, always verify. In a zero-trust architecture (ZTA) like Google's BeyondCorp, the foundational principle is 'never trust, always verify.' This means no entity—user, device, or network—is trusted by default, regardless of its location (inside or outside the corporate perimeter). Every access request must be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated before granting access to resources, eliminating implicit trust based on network location.

Answer

Trust but verify

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Trust internal users implicitly

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Trust network location as a primary factor

Question 12

Which THREE of the following are valid considerations when implementing data loss prevention (DLP) controls to protect sensitive data? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

User training to reduce false positives and increase acceptance. User training is a critical component of a successful DLP implementation. Without proper training, users may inadvertently trigger false positives by mishandling data or may attempt to bypass controls they perceive as overly restrictive. Training helps users understand classification labels and proper data handling procedures, reducing the operational burden on security teams and increasing overall acceptance of DLP policies.

Answer

Integration with all third-party applications

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Blocking all data transfers to external devices

Question 13

Which THREE of the following are valid risk response strategies?

Accepted Answer

Transfer. Common risk responses include Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, and Accept.

Answer

Eliminate

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Ignore

Question 14

An organization is acquiring a third-party software product. Which THREE of the following should be included in the security assessment of the vendor?

Accepted Answer

Vulnerability scanning of dependencies. Reviewing the SBOM, vulnerability scanning of dependencies, and vendor security assessments are key elements of third-party security evaluation. Code signing is a deployment control, not assessment; license compliance is legal but not security-specific.

Answer

Verifying software license compliance

Answer

Ensuring code signing is used in the vendor's development process

Question 15

A security administrator is configuring a system that requires users to provide a password and a one-time code from a hardware token. Which authentication method is being implemented?

Accepted Answer

Multi-factor authentication. Using two different factor types (password and hardware token) constitutes multi-factor authentication (MFA).

Answer

Biometric authentication

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Step-up authentication

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Single-factor authentication

Question 16

A multinational company must comply with the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) for processing personal data of EU citizens. The company's data protection officer (DPO) has been appointed but reports to the Chief Marketing Officer (CMO). Which compliance issue is most critical?

Accepted Answer

The DPO must report directly to the board of directors or CEO. Under the GDPR, the Data Protection Officer (DPO) must report directly to the highest level of management, typically the board of directors or CEO, to ensure independence and authority. Reporting to the Chief Marketing Officer (CMO) creates a conflict of interest because the CMO oversees marketing activities that often involve extensive personal data processing, compromising the DPO's ability to provide unbiased oversight. This structural subordination is the most critical compliance issue as it directly undermines the DPO's statutory role under Article 38(3) of the GDPR.

Answer

The DPO should not hold any other role within the organization

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The DPO must be a lawyer certified in data protection

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The DPO must be located in the EU

Question 17

In a public key infrastructure (PKI), which component is responsible for issuing and revoking digital certificates?

Accepted Answer

Certificate Authority (CA). The Certificate Authority (CA) is the trusted entity in a PKI that issues digital certificates by signing them with its private key, and it also revokes certificates by publishing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs) or using the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP). The CA is the authoritative source for certificate lifecycle management, including issuance, renewal, and revocation.

Answer

Registration Authority (RA)

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Certificate Revocation List (CRL)

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Validation Authority (VA)

Question 18

After a recent security audit, a network administrator discovers that an attacker has been intercepting traffic by associating with a legitimate access point's MAC address and broadcasting a stronger signal. Which type of attack has occurred?

Accepted Answer

Evil twin attack. Evil twin attack. This attack involves an attacker setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate access point by spoofing its MAC address (BSSID) and broadcasting a stronger signal, causing clients to associate with the attacker's device instead of the legitimate AP. The key distinction is the active impersonation of a specific legitimate AP, not just the presence of an unauthorized AP.

Answer

Rogue access point

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Karma attack

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ARP spoofing

Question 19

A forensic investigator arrives at a crime scene involving a compromised server. The server is still running. According to the order of volatility, which of the following should the investigator capture FIRST?

Accepted Answer

CPU registers. CPU registers are the most volatile and must be captured first to preserve critical evidence.

Answer

RAM contents

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Hard disk contents

Answer

Network connections

Question 20

A company recently suffered a data breach where an attacker was able to intercept network traffic and read sensitive data. Which network security control should be implemented to prevent this type of attack?

Accepted Answer

Encryption at the network layer (e.g., IPsec). IPsec operates at the network layer (Layer 3) and provides encryption of the entire IP packet, including the payload, ensuring that even if an attacker intercepts the traffic, the data remains unreadable. This directly addresses the scenario where an attacker reads sensitive data from intercepted network traffic, as IPsec can be configured in transport mode for end-to-end encryption or tunnel mode for VPNs.

Answer

Network segmentation

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Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

Answer

Strong password policies