EC-Council · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026
78real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.
8% of exam · 6 sample questions below
A security analyst runs the following Nmap command: nmap -sS -sV -O -p 22,80,443,3389 192.168.1.0/24. Which of the following BEST describes what this scan will accomplish?
Perform a full TCP connect scan with UDP service detection on all ports
Perform a TCP SYN scan on four ports, detect service versions, and attempt OS fingerprinting
-sS = SYN/stealth scan, -sV = version detection, -O = OS fingerprinting, -p 22,80,443,3389 = scan only these four ports. This is a targeted reconnaissance scan.
Perform an aggressive scan of all open ports and enumerate SMB shares
Perform a UDP scan on the four specified ports and identify running services
During a passive reconnaissance phase, a penetration tester uses a tool to gather email addresses, subdomains, and employee names associated with a target domain without directly interacting with the target's systems. Which tool is BEST suited for this purpose?
theHarvester
theHarvester is a passive OSINT tool that collects emails, subdomains, IPs, and names from public sources like Google, Bing, and LinkedIn.
Nmap
Netcat
Wireshark
A security analyst notices unusual outbound traffic from an internal server to a known malicious IP address on port 4444. The server is running a web application that was recently scanned using a vulnerability scanner. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
The server is performing a DNS lookup to resolve the malicious IP address
The web application is sending log data to a SIEM system for analysis
A vulnerability discovered during the scan was exploited, establishing a reverse shell connection to the attacker
Port 4444 is commonly used for reverse shells. Outbound traffic to a malicious IP on this port indicates successful exploitation and a backdoor connection.
The vulnerability scan caused a false positive and triggered a legitimate backup process
During a penetration test, you execute the following command: dnsrecon -d example.com -t axfr. The output shows 'AXFR record received' followed by a list of all DNS records. What does this indicate about the target's DNS configuration?
The DNS server is using DNSSEC to secure zone transfers
The DNS server is vulnerable to zone transfer attacks, allowing unauthorized users to retrieve the entire zone file
A successful AXFR to an unauthenticated client indicates a misconfiguration that exposes internal network details.
The DNS server is properly configured and only allows zone transfers to authorized secondary servers
The target uses a split-DNS configuration with internal and external views
Which Google dork would a penetration tester use to find login pages of websites that have 'admin' in the URL?
site:admin login
filetype:pdf admin login
intitle:"login" inurl:admin
inurl:"admin" inurl:"login"
This dork effectively leverages the `inurl:` operator, which specifically restricts search results to pages where the specified keyword appears within the URL string. By combining `inurl:"admin"` and `inurl:"login"`, the search precisely targets web pages that contain both "admin" and "login" within their URL paths. This combination is highly effective for identifying administrative login interfaces, as these keywords frequently appear together in the URLs of such sensitive portals.
A security team wants to identify all live hosts on a large, Class B private IP network (172.16.0.0/16) as quickly as possible while minimizing network load. Which tool and technique should they use?
Masscan with --ping to send ICMP echo requests across the /16 range
Masscan is specifically engineered for high-speed network scanning, capable of transmitting millions of packets per second. Utilizing the `--ping` option directs Masscan to send ICMP echo request packets across the entire /16 range, efficiently identifying live hosts. Its asynchronous design allows it to discover active devices across 65,536 IP addresses in a fraction of the time compared to traditional scanners, making it the optimal tool for rapid, large-scale host discovery.
Use theHarvester to query DNS records for the domain
Nmap with -sn (ping sweep) on all 65536 IPs
hping3 with --icmp on each IP sequentially
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A security analyst wants to enumerate NetBIOS names on a Windows network. Which built-in Windows command-line tool should they use?
nslookup
netstat
nbtstat
nbtstat is the correct command for NetBIOS name resolution and enumeration.
net view
A security analyst observes a suspicious SUID binary /usr/bin/evil in a Linux system. Which type of vulnerability does this indicate, and what is the MOST likely objective of an attacker who placed it?
Information disclosure; read sensitive files
Privilege escalation; gain root access
A SUID (Set User ID) bit on an executable allows it to run with the permissions of its owner, regardless of the user executing it. If a binary is owned by the root user and has the SUID bit set, any user executing it will temporarily gain root privileges for the duration of that execution. This mechanism is specifically designed for privilege escalation, enabling a low-privileged user to perform actions typically reserved for root, such as gaining a root shell or modifying system configurations.
Denial of service; crash the system
Buffer overflow; execute arbitrary code
A penetration tester runs the following command against a target Linux server: smbclient -L 192.168.1.10 -N. The output lists several shares including 'Admin$', 'C$', and 'IPC$'. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step for further enumeration?
Use enum4linux -a 192.168.1.10 to enumerate users and policies
After discovering open SMB shares, the next logical step in a penetration test is to enumerate specific details about the SMB service. enum4linux is a specialized tool designed for this purpose, leveraging various SMB/Samba enumeration techniques. The -a flag instructs enum4linux to perform all available enumeration options, including listing users, groups, shares, and security policies, which provides critical information for subsequent exploitation attempts. This comprehensive enumeration helps identify valid usernames, potential weak policies, and further attack vectors.
Attempt to crack the administrator password using a dictionary attack
Perform a port scan to check for open ports
Run snmpwalk to retrieve SNMP community strings
An attacker uses the VRFY command on an SMTP server to check the existence of email addresses. The server responds with '250 OK' for 'admin@company.com' and '550 No such user' for 'fake@company.com'. Which SMTP enumeration technique is being used?
EXPN enumeration
SMTP banner grabbing
RCPT TO enumeration
VRFY enumeration
The VRFY command verifies whether a mailbox exists, and the response codes confirm this technique.
A security analyst finds multiple failed login attempts in the system logs, followed by a successful login from an unusual IP address. The attacker then deleted the log entries for that session. Which step of the system hacking methodology (CHPSET) does the log deletion represent?
Spying
Executing applications
Cracking passwords
Erasing tracks
Erasing tracks, also known as anti-forensics or covering one's tracks, is a critical post-exploitation phase where an attacker attempts to remove or alter evidence of their presence and activities on a compromised system. This often involves deleting or modifying system logs, clearing command history, manipulating timestamps, or using secure deletion tools to prevent forensic analysis and maintain stealth. The goal is to avoid detection and hinder incident response efforts by making it difficult to reconstruct the attack chain.
Which of the following tools is specifically designed to perform password cracking using rainbow tables?
John the Ripper
Ophcrack
RainbowCrack
RainbowCrack is a pioneering and highly specialized tool explicitly engineered for password cracking using the rainbow table technique. It not only performs efficient lookups against pre-computed rainbow tables but also includes functionalities for generating these large, memory-intensive tables for various hash algorithms. Its design is centered around the mathematical principles of rainbow tables, making it the definitive tool for both their creation and utilization in password recovery.
Hashcat
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A security analyst notices a high volume of ICMP Echo Reply packets on the network. The source IPs are varied, but the destination IP is the same. Which type of attack is MOST likely occurring?
UDP flood
Ping of Death
Smurf attack
A Smurf attack is a classic distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that leverages ICMP reflection and amplification. An attacker sends ICMP Echo Request packets with a spoofed source IP address (the victim's IP) to the IP broadcast address of a large network. All active hosts on that network then respond with ICMP Echo Reply packets to the spoofed source IP, overwhelming the victim with a massive flood of replies from numerous legitimate sources. This perfectly matches the observation of a high volume of ICMP echo replies from multiple sources.
ICMP flood
A user receives a phone call from someone claiming to be from IT support, asking for their password to troubleshoot an issue. Which social engineering technique is being used?
Phishing
Pretexting
Correct. The attacker uses a false pretext (IT support) to obtain sensitive information.
Baiting
Vishing
Which tool would a penetration tester MOST likely use to perform ARP poisoning and conduct a man-in-the-middle attack on a local network?
Wireshark
Nmap
tcpdump
Ettercap
Ettercap is a comprehensive suite for man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks on a LAN, specifically designed to intercept traffic, perform live content filtering, and establish various forms of active and passive eavesdropping. Its core functionality includes robust ARP poisoning capabilities, allowing it to redirect traffic between two hosts through the attacker's machine by sending forged ARP replies. This enables the penetration tester to intercept, modify, and inject data into network communications, making it the ideal tool for demonstrating MITM vulnerabilities.
An analyst observes the following output from Wireshark: a TCP packet with the SYN flag set, followed by a SYN-ACK, then an ACK, and then a RST. The sequence numbers show a pattern: initial seq=100, ack=300, then seq=300, ack=101. What is the MOST likely interpretation?
An attacker is performing TCP sequence prediction to hijack the session.
Correct. The sequence numbers show successful prediction, and the RST may be used to reset the connection after hijacking.
A normal TCP connection establishment followed by an immediate termination.
A man-in-the-middle attack using ARP spoofing.
A TCP SYN flood attack is in progress.
A security team discovers a file named 'svchost.exe' in a user's Temp folder. The file is signed by 'Microsoft Corporation' but the digital signature validation fails. Which analysis method should be used FIRST to determine if it's malicious?
Upload to VirusTotal
Dynamic analysis in a sandbox
Static analysis using strings and PEiD
Static analysis, particularly utilizing tools like `strings` and PEiD, is the safest and most appropriate initial step for examining a suspicious executable without execution. The `strings` utility can extract human-readable text from the binary, revealing potential commands, URLs, or error messages that often indicate malicious intent. PEiD (PE Identifier) helps analysts identify the compiler, packer, or cryptor used, which is crucial for understanding obfuscation techniques and guiding further analysis, all while minimizing risk.
Run the file on a production system to observe behavior
Which type of malware is characterized by self-replication and spreading across networks without needing a host file?
Trojan
Worm
A worm is a standalone malicious program designed to self-replicate and propagate across computer networks without requiring a host program or user intervention. Worms exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems or applications to spread autonomously, often scanning for vulnerable systems and then infecting them to continue their replication cycle. This independent self-replication and network-based propagation are their defining characteristics, allowing them to consume network bandwidth and system resources rapidly.
Ransomware
Virus
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A security analyst notices that the web application returns different response times when a valid username is submitted versus an invalid one during login. Which type of vulnerability is likely being exploited?
Time-based SQL injection
Time-based SQL injection is the correct answer because the scenario explicitly describes inferring information based on *timing differences* in the web application's response. This technique is employed when direct error messages or content changes are not visible to the attacker. Attackers inject SQL queries containing database-specific time-delay functions (e.g., SLEEP() in MySQL, WAITFOR DELAY in MS SQL Server) within a conditional statement. If the injected condition evaluates to true, the database pauses for a specified duration, causing a noticeable delay in the application's response, thereby confirming the truthfulness of the condition and allowing data exfiltration character by character.
Reflected XSS
Blind boolean-based SQL injection
CSRF
Which of the following tools is commonly used to automate the detection and exploitation of SQL injection vulnerabilities?
SQLMap
SQLMap is an open-source penetration testing tool specifically designed to automate the detection and exploitation of SQL injection flaws and database server takeovers. It supports a wide array of SQL injection techniques, including boolean-based blind, time-based blind, error-based, UNION query-based, stacked queries, and out-of-band methods. Its primary function is to identify vulnerable parameters, extract data, and even access the underlying file system or execute commands on the compromised database server, making it the definitive choice for automated SQLi.
Metasploit
Nmap
Burp Suite
A penetration tester intercepts the following request using Burp Suite: POST /change_password HTTP/1.1 Host: example.com Cookie: sessionid=abc123; SameSite=Lax Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded new_password=Hacker123 The tester successfully crafts a CSRF attack by embedding a hidden form in a malicious page. Which mitigation is most likely missing?
SameSite=Strict
HTTPOnly flag
Secure flag
CSRF token
A CSRF token is a unique, unpredictable, and secret value generated by the server and included with every state-changing request, typically embedded in hidden form fields or request headers. The server validates this token upon receiving the request, ensuring it matches the token associated with the user's session. Since a malicious attacker operating from a different origin cannot obtain or guess this secret token, they cannot craft a valid forged request that the server would accept, thereby effectively preventing CSRF attacks.
A web application allows users to upload profile pictures. An attacker uploads a file named "profile.php" containing malicious PHP code. When the attacker visits the uploaded file's URL, the code executes. Which vulnerability is being exploited?
Directory traversal
Command injection
File upload vulnerability
A file upload vulnerability arises when a web application permits users to upload files without sufficient validation of their type, content, or proper handling of their storage and execution. The ability for an attacker to upload a malicious PHP file, which is then executed by the web server, perfectly exemplifies this vulnerability. This allows for remote code execution (RCE) on the server, directly matching the described attack where a 'profile picture' turns out to be an executable script.
Stored XSS
An analyst observes the following log entry on a web server: GET /../../etc/passwd HTTP/1.1 200. Which type of attack is indicated?
Directory traversal
Directory traversal, also known as path traversal, is an attack that exploits vulnerabilities in web server software or applications to access files and directories stored outside the intended web root directory. The '../' sequence observed in the log entry is a classic technique used to navigate up the directory hierarchy, allowing an attacker to read sensitive files like configuration files, password files, or source code that should not be publicly accessible. This specific request clearly demonstrates an attempt to traverse directories to access '/etc/passwd'.
SSRF
LFI
Command injection
During a penetration test, a tester uses the following payload in a search field: <script>alert(document.cookie)</script>. The payload is reflected in the response without sanitization. However, the tester notices that the attack only works when the payload is submitted via a POST request, not GET. Which type of XSS is this?
Stored XSS
Reflected XSS
Reflected XSS occurs when a malicious script embedded in an HTTP request (e.g., a URL parameter or form field) is immediately echoed back in the server's HTTP response without proper sanitization. The victim's browser then executes this script upon rendering the page, but the payload itself is not stored on the server for future use or delivery to other users. This type of attack typically requires an attacker to trick a victim into clicking a specially crafted malicious link that contains the payload.
DOM-based XSS
Self-XSS
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A security analyst suspects that an attacker is scanning their network. They notice a large number of TCP SYN packets being sent to various ports on a single host, but no SYN-ACK responses are returned. Which type of scan is most likely being used?
TCP connect scan
UDP scan
SYN scan
SYN scan sends SYN packets; lack of SYN-ACK indicates filtered/closed ports.
FIN scan
During a penetration test, an ethical hacker needs to evade an IDS that detects port scans based on the number of packets per second. Which technique would be most effective to avoid detection?
Use random source ports
Use a decoy scan
Slow down the scan rate
Slowing down the scan rate directly reduces the number of packets sent per second (PPS) or connections attempted per minute. This strategic reduction keeps the scanning activity below the predefined thresholds set by rate-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), which are designed to detect anomalous traffic volumes. By maintaining a low packet rate, the ethical hacker can conduct reconnaissance without triggering alerts that would otherwise flag the activity as a potential port scan or denial-of-service attempt, thus evading detection.
Use fragmented packets
A company wants to test the security of its web application by simulating attacks from an external perspective. They have no prior knowledge of the internal network or application architecture. Which type of test should they perform?
Black-box test
A black-box test simulates an external attacker with no prior knowledge of the target system's internal architecture, source code, or credentials. Testers interact with the web application solely through its public interfaces, mimicking real-world threat actors attempting to exploit vulnerabilities from the outside. This approach is ideal for assessing the effectiveness of perimeter defenses and identifying externally exploitable flaws, directly aligning with a company's goal to test its web application's security from an external perspective.
White-box test
Red team engagement
Gray-box test
Refer to the exhibit. An ethical hacker runs the shown Nmap scan against a target. Which port state indicates that the port is reachable but no service is listening?
open
closed
A 'closed' port indicates that the target host is reachable and received Nmap's probe, but no application is currently listening on that specific port. For TCP scans, the target typically responds with an RST (reset) packet, confirming the port's accessibility while explicitly stating that no service is active there. This state is crucial as it differentiates between an inactive port and one that is blocked by a firewall, accurately reflecting the scenario where the host is up but the service is not running.
filtered
unfiltered
You are an ethical hacker hired to assess the security of a mid-sized company's internal network. The company has three departments: Sales, Engineering, and HR, each on separate VLANs. The network uses a single firewall with default-deny rules, but inter-VLAN routing is allowed for specific ports (e.g., HR needs to access Sales database on TCP 1433). During reconnaissance, you discover that the Engineering VLAN has a web server running on port 80 that is accessible from all VLANs. You also find that the Sales VLAN has a file share (SMB) on port 445 that is accessible only from HR. The firewall logs show numerous failed SSH attempts from an external IP to the Engineering web server. Which action should you recommend as the most effective immediate step to reduce the attack surface?
Implement a password policy requiring complex passwords for all users.
Enable two-factor authentication on the web server.
Apply the latest security patches to the web server.
Restrict access to the Engineering web server to only the Engineering VLAN.
Restricting access to the Engineering web server solely to the Engineering VLAN directly implements the principle of least privilege at the network layer. This action significantly reduces the attack surface by ensuring the server is only reachable by authorized clients within its designated operational segment. By preventing unnecessary network connectivity from other VLANs, it drastically limits the opportunities for unauthorized reconnaissance and exploitation attempts, regardless of the server's internal security controls.
Which THREE of the following are essential phases in the ethical hacking methodology as defined by EC-Council?
Maintaining Access
Maintaining Access is a phase after gaining initial entry.
Scanning
Scanning involves active probing of the target network.
Enumeration
Reconnaissance
Reconnaissance is the first phase, involving information gathering.
Social Engineering
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During an internal penetration test, you are tasked with enumerating services on a target server. You run a full TCP port scan and find that ports 22 (SSH), 80 (HTTP), and 443 (HTTPS) are open. You then perform version detection on these ports. Which additional enumeration step would provide the most valuable information for identifying potential vulnerabilities?
Perform banner grabbing on port 22 to identify the SSH version.
Banner grabbing on port 22, typically used for SSH, is a fundamental reconnaissance technique. By connecting to the port and observing the initial response, an attacker can identify the specific SSH server software and its version number. This version information is crucial for cross-referencing against public vulnerability databases (e.g., CVEs) to discover known exploits, potentially leading to unauthorized access or privilege escalation if an outdated or misconfigured version is in use.
Perform SNMP enumeration to gather system information.
Attempt a DNS zone transfer from the server.
Enumerate NetBIOS names using `nbtstat`.
A network administrator needs to identify all devices on a large corporate network that are running a specific vulnerable version of OpenSSH. The administrator has network access and can use scanning tools. However, scanning the entire network might disrupt operations. Which approach minimizes disruption while accurately identifying the vulnerable hosts?
Conduct a full TCP port scan of the entire network using SYN scan.
Run a TCP SYN scan on port 22 only, with version detection enabled, across the target IP range.
This approach is highly efficient and targeted for identifying devices running a specific service. A TCP SYN scan on port 22 (SSH) across the target IP range quickly identifies hosts listening on this port without establishing a full connection, thus minimizing network overhead and remaining relatively stealthy. Enabling version detection simultaneously gathers crucial information about the SSH service's software version, which is essential for identifying potential vulnerabilities without further extensive scanning.
Use a ping sweep to identify live hosts, then perform a version scan on each.
Perform an ARP scan of the entire subnet and then check each host manually.
You are conducting a security assessment and need to map the network topology and identify routers, firewalls, and other network devices. Which technique is specifically designed to discover the path packets take to reach a destination and can reveal intermediate devices?
Traceroute
Traceroute is a fundamental network diagnostic tool that maps the path a packet takes to reach a destination by strategically manipulating the IP packet's Time To Live (TTL) field. It sends a series of packets, starting with a TTL of 1 and incrementing it, causing intermediate routers to decrement the TTL to zero and respond with an ICMP Time Exceeded message. Each ICMP response reveals an intermediate router (hop), effectively tracing the full network path hop-by-hop and identifying the sequence of devices. This method is precisely designed for network topology discovery.
Banner grabbing
DNS enumeration
SNMP walk
Which TWO types of information can be obtained through SNMP enumeration on a target device if the community string is 'public'? (Choose two.)
List of running processes
SNMP agents can provide a comprehensive list of running processes on a managed device. This information is typically found within the Host Resources MIB (RFC 2790), specifically by querying objects like `hrSWRunTable`. This table contains details such as process ID, name, path, and current status, which is crucial for system monitoring and troubleshooting.
Captured network packets
User account passwords
Modify network interface settings
Routing table entries
SNMP agents can readily provide detailed routing table entries from a managed network device. This critical network information is typically exposed through the `ipRouteTable` object within the IP-MIB (RFC 4293), which contains entries for all active routes, including destination, next hop, interface, and metric. Obtaining this data is fundamental for network topology mapping and performance analysis.
Which THREE Nmap options are commonly used to evade firewall detection during a scan? (Choose three.)
-f (fragment packets)
The -f option instructs Nmap to fragment the IP packets into smaller, non-standard-sized pieces. This technique can bypass stateless firewalls or Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) that only inspect the initial fragments, as critical header information (like TCP flags or port numbers) might be split across multiple segments. When the fragmented packets reach the target, the operating system reassembles them before processing, potentially allowing the scan to proceed undetected by intermediate network devices.
-T0 (paranoid timing)
The -T0 option sets the scan timing template to "paranoid," which is the slowest and most stealthy timing profile available in Nmap. This extremely slow pace, sending probes at irregular and infrequent intervals, is designed to evade rate-based detection mechanisms and anomaly-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) that might flag rapid, consecutive scans as malicious. While significantly increasing scan duration, it minimizes the likelihood of triggering alarms by mimicking legitimate, sporadic network traffic.
-D (decoy)
The -D option allows Nmap to send scan packets from multiple decoy source IP addresses in addition to the real scanning machine's IP. By interspersing legitimate scan packets with those originating from spoofed decoy IPs, this technique aims to confuse firewalls, IDS, and network administrators by making it difficult to pinpoint the actual source of the scan. This obfuscation complicates forensic analysis and attribution, distributing the "blame" across several non-existent or innocent hosts.
-sT (TCP connect scan)
-sV (version detection)
Refer to the exhibit. An Nmap scan shows that port 80 is 'filtered' while ports 22 and 443 are 'open'. What does the 'filtered' state indicate?
The port is closed and the target sent a RST packet.
The port is open but the service is not responding to the scan.
The port is open but Nmap cannot determine the service.
A firewall, router rule, or host-based firewall is blocking the probes.
When Nmap reports a port as 'filtered', it signifies that the TCP or UDP probes sent to that port did not elicit any response from the target host. This behavior is characteristic of network security devices, such as firewalls (both network-based and host-based) or routers configured with Access Control Lists (ACLs), which are designed to silently drop incoming packets that do not match allowed rules. The probes are effectively absorbed into a "black hole," preventing Nmap from determining the true state of the port.
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A penetration tester discovers that a target Windows system has port 445 open and responds to SMB requests. Which tool should the tester use to enumerate users, shares, and OS information from this system?
Nikto
Hydra
Nmap
enum4linux
enum4linux is a dedicated command-line tool specifically designed for enumerating information from Windows and Samba hosts using NetBIOS and SMB protocols. It effectively leverages null sessions and other SMB/RPC queries to extract a wealth of data, including user lists, group memberships, share names, OS version, service pack level, and even password policies. This makes it an ideal choice for detailed reconnaissance against Windows systems to uncover potential vulnerabilities and gather intelligence.
During a penetration test, a tester gains access to a Linux system and needs to escalate privileges. The tester finds that the user has sudo privileges to run /usr/bin/less as root without a password. Which technique should the tester use to escalate privileges?
Exploit a kernel vulnerability using a local exploit
Run /usr/bin/less with sudo, then type !/bin/bash to spawn a root shell
This method correctly leverages a common sudo misconfiguration where a user is permitted to execute /usr/bin/less with root privileges. Inside less, typing '!' allows the execution of arbitrary shell commands. Since less is running as root via sudo, any command executed through '!', such as !/bin/bash, will also inherit root privileges, effectively spawning a root shell.
Use the find command with -exec to execute a shell
Check for world-writable scripts in cron jobs
A security analyst runs a vulnerability scan and finds that a server is vulnerable to CVE-2021-44228 (Log4j). Which of the following is the best immediate remediation step?
Update Log4j to version 2.17.1 or later
Updating Log4j to version 2.17.1 or later directly addresses the Log4Shell vulnerabilities (CVE-2021-44228, CVE-2021-45046, CVE-2021-45105) by completely disabling JNDI lookups by default. This version ensures that untrusted input can no longer trigger remote code execution (RCE) via LDAP, RMI, or other JNDI-enabled services. Applying this patch is the most comprehensive and recommended solution, as it eliminates the underlying flaw rather than merely mitigating symptoms. It ensures the application's logging functionality remains secure and fully operational.
Remove the JndiLookup class from the Log4j jar
Disable JDBC appender in Log4j configuration
Block outbound traffic from the server to the internet
An ethical hacker is testing a web application that uses cookies for session management. The tester notices that the session cookie does not have the HttpOnly or Secure flags set. Which attack is most likely to succeed due to this misconfiguration?
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
Session hijacking via cross-site scripting (XSS)
Session hijacking via Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) occurs when an attacker injects malicious client-side scripts into a web page viewed by other users. If the session cookie lacks the HttpOnly flag, the injected script can access document.cookie to read and exfiltrate the victim's session identifier. With the stolen session cookie, the attacker can then impersonate the victim, gaining unauthorized access to their authenticated session without needing their credentials. This directly targets the client-side session token.
Clickjacking
Which THREE of the following are common indicators of a buffer overflow vulnerability?
Unexpected program crashes or segmentation faults
A buffer overflow writes data beyond the intended buffer's boundaries, corrupting adjacent memory. This corruption can overwrite critical program data, function pointers, or the stack frame itself. When the program attempts to access or execute corrupted instructions or data, it leads to an illegal memory access, triggering a segmentation fault or an unexpected program termination.
Access violation errors when writing to memory
Buffer overflows specifically involve writing data past the allocated size of a buffer. When this write operation attempts to access memory pages that are not mapped to the process or are marked as read-only, the operating system's memory management unit detects an unauthorized access attempt. This triggers an access violation error, indicating a critical memory integrity issue.
Use of return-oriented programming (ROP)
High CPU usage
Overwritten adjacent memory regions
The fundamental mechanism of a buffer overflow is writing more data into a buffer than it was designed to hold. This excess data spills over into contiguous memory locations immediately following the buffer. This overwriting can corrupt other variables, data structures, or even critical control flow information like return addresses on the stack, directly demonstrating the overflow condition.
You are a penetration tester hired by a medium-sized financial company. The company has a network consisting of 50 Windows workstations (Windows 10 Pro) and 5 Windows Server 2019 servers (domain controller, file server, web server, database server, and mail server). The network is segmented into three VLANs: User VLAN (192.168.1.0/24), Server VLAN (192.168.2.0/24), and DMZ (192.168.3.0/24). The web server is in the DMZ and hosts a public-facing e-commerce application built on ASP.NET with a SQL Server backend. The database server is in the Server VLAN and is not directly accessible from the internet. You are given a standard user account on a workstation in the User VLAN. After initial reconnaissance, you discover that the web server is running an outdated version of IIS (7.5) and is vulnerable to a known privilege escalation vulnerability (CVE-2020-0613) that allows local privilege escalation if an attacker has already gained initial access. You also find that the web application has a SQL injection vulnerability in the login page. You successfully exploit the SQL injection to extract the password hash of the web application's service account, which is 'web_svc'. You crack the hash offline and obtain the plaintext password. The 'web_svc' account has local administrative privileges on the web server. Using these credentials, you authenticate to the web server via RDP. From there, you want to pivot to the database server to extract credit card information stored in the database. The database server only allows connections from the web server on port 1433 (SQL Server). Using the 'web_svc' account, you are able to connect to the database server using SQL Server Management Studio. However, you find that the 'web_svc' account has only 'public' and 'guest' database roles, which do not allow reading any sensitive tables. You need to escalate privileges on the database server. What is the most effective next step?
Use the web_svc account to create a new SQL Server login with sysadmin privileges via the SQL Server Management Studio
Exploit the privilege escalation vulnerability on the web server to gain SYSTEM access, then dump the SQL Server service account credentials (e.g., from the SQL Server error logs or registry) and use them to log into the database server with sysadmin privileges
Exploiting a local privilege escalation vulnerability on the web server to gain SYSTEM access provides full control over the underlying operating system. With SYSTEM privileges, an attacker can access memory, registry hives, or log files where the SQL Server service account credentials are often stored or cached. Since the SQL Server service account typically holds sysadmin privileges on its own instance to perform its functions, these credentials can then be used to log into the database with the highest level of access.
Perform a brute-force attack against the 'sa' account on the database server using a wordlist
Try to use the web_svc account to directly query the credit card table using a SQL injection payload on the web application
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A security analyst captures a large number of unique initialization vectors (IVs) from a wireless network using airodump-ng. Which attack are they MOST likely preparing to execute?
WPS PIN brute-force attack
Evil twin AP deployment
WEP key recovery using aircrack-ng
WEP key recovery using tools like aircrack-ng is the correct answer because WEP's fundamental cryptographic weakness stems from its inefficient use of Initialization Vectors (IVs) with the RC4 stream cipher. Attackers exploit the small 24-bit IV space and the plaintext transmission of IVs, leading to frequent IV reuse with the same WEP key. By collecting a large number of unique IVs, often hundreds of thousands to millions, statistical analysis can be performed to deduce the WEP key by observing patterns in the keystream generated from the IV and the key.
WPA handshake capture
During a penetration test, an analyst runs the following command: 'reaver -i wlan0mon -b 00:11:22:33:44:55 -vv'. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this command?
Perform a de-authentication attack on the target AP
Capture the 4-way handshake for WPA cracking
Brute-force the WPS PIN to recover the Wi-Fi passphrase
Reaver is a specialized tool engineered to exploit a design flaw in the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) protocol. It systematically attempts to guess the 8-digit WPS PIN by brute-forcing the first four digits, then the next three, and finally the checksum digit. This method leverages the fact that WPS validates the PIN in two halves, significantly reducing the number of possible combinations and allowing Reaver to recover the Wi-Fi passphrase.
Scan for nearby access points and their BSSIDs
A cloud security engineer discovers that an S3 bucket named 'acme-backups' is accessible to anyone with the bucket URL. The bucket contains sensitive customer data. Which AWS shared responsibility model component does this misconfiguration primarily violate?
AWS is responsible for physical security of data centers
The customer is responsible for patching the S3 service
The customer is responsible for configuring access controls and permissions
This statement is correct because, within the AWS shared responsibility model, the customer is solely responsible for the "security in the cloud." For S3, this explicitly includes defining and implementing appropriate access controls and permissions. This involves configuring S3 bucket policies, Access Control Lists (ACLs), and AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies to restrict who can access, modify, or delete data within their S3 buckets. A misconfiguration in these controls directly leads to data exposure.
AWS is responsible for network infrastructure; the customer for data classification
An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without any authentication or encryption. An attacker on the same network subscribes to all topics on the MQTT broker. Which of the following is the MOST effective immediate countermeasure?
Disable the MQTT broker entirely and switch to HTTP
Implement client authentication and enable TLS encryption
Implementing client authentication ensures that only authorized IoT devices can connect to the MQTT broker, preventing unauthorized actors from publishing or subscribing to sensitive data streams. Concurrently, enabling TLS encryption secures the communication channel itself, protecting all data transmitted between devices and the broker from eavesdropping, tampering, and man-in-the-middle attacks. This combination establishes robust confidentiality, integrity, and access control for MQTT communications, directly addressing the core security vulnerabilities.
Change the default topic names to obfuscated strings
Use a VPN for all IoT device communication
Which cryptographic algorithm is classified as symmetric and uses a block cipher with a fixed block size of 128 bits, supporting key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits?
RC4
3DES
AES
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is the correct answer because it is a symmetric block cipher that processes data in fixed-size blocks of 128 bits. AES supports various key sizes, including 128, 192, and 256 bits, providing strong security. Its design as a robust and efficient block cipher has established it as the global standard for symmetric encryption, fulfilling both the symmetric classification and the 128-bit block size requirement.
RSA
A security analyst observes the following log entry on a web server: 'GET /?url=http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/ HTTP/1.1'. This request appears to originate from a compromised web application. Which cloud attack technique is being attempted?
Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) occurs when a web server is tricked into making requests to an arbitrary domain specified by an attacker. The log entry showing a request to `http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/` is a classic example targeting a cloud instance metadata service. This allows the attacker to obtain sensitive information, such as temporary IAM credentials, which can then be used to escalate privileges within the cloud environment.
SQL Injection
Container escape
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
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During the reconnaissance phase, a tester discovers that the target company's email server is configured to automatically respond to delivery status notifications (DSNs). Which type of attack could this information facilitate?
DNS cache poisoning
Email enumeration
Email enumeration is a reconnaissance technique used to discover valid email addresses within an organization. When an email is sent to a non-existent address, the mail server often returns a Delivery Status Notification (DSN) or Non-Delivery Report (NDR) indicating the address was invalid. Conversely, the *absence* of such a bounce, or a specific DSN indicating a deferred delivery rather than an immediate rejection, can confirm the validity of an email address, making DSN responses a valuable tool for identifying active accounts.
Man-in-the-middle attack
Phishing attack
A security analyst is tasked with performing passive reconnaissance on a target organization. Which of the following is the BEST approach to gather information about the target's technology stack without directly interacting with the target's systems?
Engage in social engineering via phone calls
Use Shodan to search for target infrastructure
Utilizing Shodan for target infrastructure searches is a quintessential passive reconnaissance technique because it relies entirely on pre-collected, publicly available data. Shodan continuously scans the internet and indexes information about internet-connected devices, services, and their configurations, storing this data in its own databases. An analyst querying Shodan does not send any direct network traffic to the target's systems, thereby avoiding detection and remaining completely non-intrusive.
Initiate a DNS zone transfer request
Perform a port scan with Nmap
An ethical hacker wants to discover subdomains of a target domain using only public information. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective?
Run a traceroute to the main domain
Check the WHOIS record for the domain
Use the site: operator in search engines
The `site:` operator in search engines like Google restricts search results to a specific domain, including all its indexed subdomains. By querying `site:target.com`, an ethical hacker can leverage the vast indexing capabilities of search engines to passively discover publicly accessible subdomains that have been crawled and cataloged. This provides a quick and effective method for initial reconnaissance without directly interacting with the target's servers.
Perform a reverse DNS lookup on the target IP range
Which TWO of the following are examples of passive footprinting techniques? (Select exactly 2.)
Performing a ping sweep on the target network
Conducting a port scan with Nmap
Using Google dorking to find exposed documents
Using Google dorking involves leveraging advanced search operators to query Google's pre-existing index for publicly available information about a target, such as exposed documents or misconfigured servers. The interaction occurs solely with Google's search engine, not directly with the target's systems. This method is passive because it relies on information already indexed by a third party, leaving no direct trace on the target's network.
Examining job postings for technology clues
Examining publicly available job postings is a passive footprinting technique because it involves gathering information that the target organization has voluntarily published for recruitment purposes. This method does not involve any direct network interaction or queries against the target's infrastructure. It simply observes publicly accessible data to infer technology stacks, organizational structure, and potential vulnerabilities without leaving any digital trace on the target.
Brute forcing subdomains via DNS queries
Which THREE of the following are valid pieces of information that can be gathered from a properly configured Netcraft site report? (Select exactly 3.)
Internal IP addresses of the servers
Hosting provider and country
Netcraft is highly effective at identifying a website's hosting provider and geographical location. It achieves this by performing comprehensive DNS queries, correlating IP address ranges with registered Autonomous System Numbers (ASNs), and cross-referencing this data with known internet service providers and their physical infrastructure locations. This capability provides critical intelligence regarding the operational footprint and jurisdictional context of a target.
Site's first seen date and uptime history
Netcraft maintains an extensive historical database of websites it has continuously monitored over many years. Through persistent scanning and archiving of website status and configuration changes, it can accurately report the exact date a site was first observed online. Furthermore, it tracks and aggregates uptime and downtime events, providing a detailed history of the site's operational reliability and availability over time.
Web server software and version
Netcraft actively employs various fingerprinting techniques to identify the web server software and its specific version running on a target domain. This involves analyzing HTTP response headers (e.g., the 'Server' header), examining error page signatures, and observing other unique characteristics of the server's behavior. This information is crucial for identifying potential vulnerabilities associated with known software versions.
Employee email addresses
An ethical hacker runs the command shown in the exhibit. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the output?
The domain has two mail exchange servers
When a DNS lookup tool, such as `nslookup`, is used to query for Mail Exchange (MX) records, the response lists the servers designated to receive email for that domain. The presence of two distinct MX records in the output explicitly indicates that the domain has two separate mail exchange servers configured. Each record points to a specific host responsible for handling incoming mail, often with a preference value to guide delivery order.
The DNS server is configured to block zone transfers
Mail is automatically forwarded to a backup server
The domain has an SPF record configured
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During a penetration test, you notice that a web application accepts user input and displays it directly in the browser without sanitization. Which attack is most likely to succeed?
SQL Injection
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) occurs when a web application incorporates untrusted data into a web page without proper validation or encoding, allowing attackers to inject client-side scripts. In the case of reflected XSS, the malicious script is immediately returned by the web server in its response and executed by the user's browser, directly impacting the content displayed to the user. This vulnerability directly manifests as unsanitized input being rendered in the browser.
Command Injection
As a network defender, you notice an unusually high number of incomplete TCP three-way handshakes from a single external IP to multiple internal hosts. What is the most likely attack taking place?
UDP flood
SYN flood
SYN flood sends many SYN packets without completing handshake.
ARP spoofing
ICMP flood
You are performing a web application security assessment and discover that the application uses a hidden form field named 'price' to store the product price. The price is submitted with the form and used to process payments. Which attack would allow you to purchase an item for a lower price?
Directory traversal
Parameter tampering
Parameter tampering involves an attacker manipulating parameters exchanged between a client and server to alter application behavior or data. This can include modifying values in URL query strings, HTTP headers, cookies, or hidden form fields, such as changing a product's price from $100 to $10 before submission. The goal is to bypass authorization, gain unauthorized access, or manipulate transaction details by altering the data the application expects.
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
A network administrator wants to prevent an attacker from using a network sniffer to capture traffic between a client and a web server. Which protocol should be enforced to encrypt all communication?
SNMP
FTP
HTTPS
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is the secure version of HTTP, utilizing Transport Layer Security (TLS), or its deprecated predecessor SSL, to encrypt communication between a web browser and a server. This encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged, including sensitive information like login credentials, financial transactions, and personal data, by preventing unauthorized eavesdropping and tampering. HTTPS ensures that an attacker cannot easily intercept and read the web traffic, thereby securing user interactions and preventing data compromise.
HTTP
Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst captured the HTTP request and response shown. What type of vulnerability is present?
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
SQL Injection
Reflected Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Reflected Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) occurs when a malicious script, often embedded within a URL parameter or form input, is immediately and unsafely echoed back in the web server's HTTP response. The victim's browser then interprets and executes this injected script as part of the legitimate webpage content. The exhibit clearly shows user input containing script tags being directly reflected into the HTML response without proper sanitization, leading to client-side script execution, which is the hallmark of a reflected XSS vulnerability.
Directory Traversal
You are the lead security engineer for a financial technology company that hosts a critical web application on three load-balanced servers behind a reverse proxy. The application uses a REST API to process transactions. Recently, the company has experienced intermittent service outages during peak hours. Upon reviewing logs, you find that the reverse proxy is returning HTTP 503 errors for legitimate API requests, and the application servers show high CPU usage but normal memory. The network team reports no bandwidth issues. The application team claims no code changes were made. You suspect a specific type of attack is causing the outages. Which action should you take first to confirm the attack type?
Configure the firewall to block all incoming traffic from the IPs that appear most frequently in logs.
Analyze the incoming request patterns in the reverse proxy logs to identify if there is a high volume of requests to a specific API endpoint.
Analyzing reverse proxy logs (e.g., NGINX, HAProxy) is crucial because they capture detailed information about incoming HTTP/HTTPS requests, including source IPs, user agents, request methods, and target URLs/API endpoints. Identifying a sudden, high volume of requests directed at a specific API endpoint, especially with diverse source IPs or suspicious user agents, strongly indicates a Layer 7 (application-layer) DDoS attack. This diagnostic step directly confirms the attack type and pinpoints the targeted service, enabling highly focused and effective countermeasures.
Increase the number of application servers to handle the load.
Run a SQL injection scanner on the application.
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A security analyst discovers that an IoT device in a smart building is periodically sending small DNS queries to an external domain known for command-and-control activity. Which security control should be implemented to detect and block such traffic without disrupting legitimate operations?
Install a host-based firewall on the IoT device to restrict outbound traffic.
Deploy an intrusion detection system (IDS) on the network to alert on suspicious DNS queries.
Configure egress filtering on the firewall to block outbound connections to known malicious domains.
Configuring egress filtering on the network firewall is a highly effective and proactive measure. This technique inspects and blocks outbound traffic destined for known malicious domains or IP addresses, preventing the compromised IoT device from establishing command and control (C2) communications or exfiltrating data, thereby containing the threat at the network perimeter.
Disable DNS resolution on the IoT device to prevent any external communication.
A cloud security engineer notices that an S3 bucket containing sensitive customer data is configured with a bucket policy that allows 'Principal': '*' and 'Action': 's3:GetObject'. The bucket is not publicly accessible via the AWS Management Console, but the engineer is concerned about data exposure. What is the most likely risk?
Anyone on the internet can read objects in the bucket if they know the object URL.
This statement is correct because a misconfigured S3 bucket policy or ACL can grant `s3:GetObject` permissions to the `AllUsers` principal, effectively making the bucket publicly readable. In such cases, anyone with an internet connection can retrieve objects directly by knowing or guessing their specific URL, without requiring any AWS authentication. This represents a significant data exposure risk, as the data is accessible to unauthenticated users.
The data is encrypted at rest, so no exposure risk exists.
The bucket policy is misconfigured but only affects objects with server-side encryption.
Only authenticated AWS users can access the bucket, so the risk is limited.
During a penetration test of a corporate wireless network, you capture a WPA2 handshake and successfully recover the PSK. Later, you notice that some clients are using WPA3-Personal. Which attack could be used to downgrade a WPA3 client to WPA2 and capture its handshake?
Perform a PMKID attack on the WPA3 client to capture the handshake.
Use a WPS PIN brute-force attack against the WPA3 client.
Send deauthentication packets to the WPA3 client and capture the reconnection handshake.
Set up a rogue access point broadcasting a WPA2 network with the same SSID, forcing the client to reconnect using WPA2.
A rogue access point (AP) can be configured to mimic the legitimate network's SSID but broadcast a weaker security protocol like WPA2. Many WPA3-capable clients are configured to prefer WPA3 but will fall back to WPA2 if WPA3 is unavailable or if a stronger WPA2 signal appears more legitimate. By deauthenticating the client from the real WPA3 AP, the rogue WPA2 AP can entice the client to connect, effectively downgrading its security and allowing for WPA2-specific attacks.
A company deploys IoT sensors in a remote facility with limited bandwidth. The sensors send small data packets every few seconds. Which wireless technology is most appropriate for this application?
4G LTE
Wi-Fi 6
Bluetooth 5
LoRaWAN
LoRaWAN (Long Range Wide Area Network) is the optimal choice for IoT sensors in a remote facility with limited power because it is specifically engineered for low-power, wide-area (LPWAN) applications. It provides exceptional long-range communication capabilities, often spanning several kilometers in rural settings, combined with extremely low power consumption. This allows sensors to operate efficiently for many years on small batteries, perfectly aligning with the requirements for remote, power-constrained IoT deployments.
A security analyst detects multiple failed authentication attempts on a cloud-based SSH server from a single IP address. The analyst implements a rule to block that IP. However, the attacks continue from different IPs. Which additional control should be implemented to reduce the attack surface?
Disable password authentication and use SSH key-based authentication.
SSH key-based authentication significantly enhances security against brute-force attacks by relying on cryptographic key pairs instead of guessable passwords. The private key, stored securely on the client, is mathematically linked to a public key on the server, making it virtually impossible to guess or brute-force due to its immense length and complexity. This method eliminates the vulnerability to dictionary attacks and common password cracking techniques, providing a robust defense.
Install fail2ban to automatically block IPs after failures.
Implement rate-limiting on SSH connections per IP.
Change the SSH port to a non-standard port.
During a wireless penetration test, you discover that the target network uses WPA2-Enterprise with PEAP-MSCHAPv2. You capture the authentication traffic of a legitimate user. Which attack can you perform to recover the user's domain credentials?
Decrypt the traffic using the captured handshake to get the credentials.
WPS PIN brute-force to recover the PSK.
PMKID attack to crack the pre-shared key.
Set up a rogue RADIUS server to capture the challenge-response and perform an offline brute-force attack.
Setting up a rogue RADIUS server is a highly effective attack against WPA2-Enterprise networks. By impersonating the legitimate authentication server, the rogue RADIUS server can trick clients into authenticating against it. During this process, it captures the challenge-response hashes, such as NTLMv2 hashes from PEAP/MSCHAPv2, which are exchanged during the EAP authentication phase. These captured hashes can then be subjected to efficient offline dictionary or brute-force attacks to recover the actual user credentials, providing unauthorized access.
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A security analyst receives an alert about a suspicious file hash. The analyst wants to check if the file is known malware by querying an online database of malware signatures. Which tool should the analyst use?
Nmap
John the Ripper
VirusTotal
VirusTotal is a web-based service that aggregates many antivirus products and online scan engines to check for viruses and other types of malicious content. A security analyst can submit a file's cryptographic hash (e.g., MD5, SHA1, SHA256) to VirusTotal, which then queries its extensive database and provides immediate detection results from numerous security vendors. This capability directly addresses the need to determine if a suspicious file is known malware by comparing its hash against a vast repository of threat intelligence.
Wireshark
During a penetration test, an ethical hacker finds that a web application transmits sensitive data in plaintext over HTTPS. Which of the following best describes this security issue?
Weak TLS cipher suite
Lack of application-layer encryption
This is the correct answer because while HTTPS encrypts data in transit between the client and server, it does not inherently encrypt data at the application layer before it is sent or when it is stored. If sensitive fields are not encrypted by the application itself, they could be exposed in memory, logs, or databases on the server side, even if the network communication is secure. The application's failure to encrypt sensitive data before processing or storage creates a vulnerability independent of transport security.
SSL stripping attack
Man-in-the-middle attack
A company's internal PKI uses an offline root CA and an online issuing CA. A security engineer needs to revoke a compromised certificate issued by the online CA. Which CRL distribution point should the engineer update?
The CRL published by the certificate authority that signed the issuing CA's certificate
The CRL published by the intermediate CA, if any
The CRL published by the online issuing CA
The online issuing CA is directly responsible for generating, signing, and managing the lifecycle of end-entity certificates within this PKI. When an end-entity certificate needs to be revoked, it is the issuing CA that records this revocation event and publishes it in its own Certificate Revocation List (CRL). Consequently, clients validating an end-entity certificate must consult the CRL published by the online issuing CA to ascertain its current revocation status.
The CRL published by the offline root CA
A security analyst suspects that a user's machine is infected with a keylogger. Which of the following is the most effective method to detect a hardware keylogger?
Check running processes for suspicious entries
Physically inspect the connection between the keyboard and the computer
Hardware keyloggers are physical devices designed to be inconspicuous, often resembling a standard cable adapter or a small inline dongle. They are typically inserted directly between the keyboard's cable and the computer's keyboard port (e.g., USB or PS/2). A direct physical examination of this connection point is the most reliable and often the only method to visually identify and remove such a device, as it bypasses all software-based detection limitations.
Review USB device history in Event Viewer
Run an antivirus scan
An ethical hacker is analyzing a piece of malware that uses a custom encryption algorithm. The malware sample contains a hardcoded key that is 16 bytes long. The analyst observes that the encrypted data is the same length as the plaintext. Which encryption mode is most likely being used?
GCM
CFB
ECB
Electronic Codebook (ECB) mode encrypts each fixed-size block of plaintext independently using the same secret key. It does not employ any chaining mechanism between blocks, nor does it require an Initialization Vector (IV) or nonce. The only potential increase in data length results from padding the final plaintext block to meet the cipher's block size, making it the mode that introduces the absolute minimum cryptographic overhead and data expansion.
CBC
During a forensic investigation, an analyst finds that a malware sample uses a technique to detect if it is running in a sandbox by checking the number of CPU cores. The malware terminates execution if the core count is less than 2. Which anti-analysis technique is this?
Code obfuscation
Anti-debugging
Anti-VM / sandbox evasion
Anti-VM and sandbox evasion techniques are employed by malware to determine if it is executing within a virtualized environment or an automated analysis sandbox, which often have deliberately limited resources. Checking for low CPU core counts, minimal RAM, small disk sizes, or generic hardware identifiers are common heuristics used by malware to detect these environments. If such conditions are met, the malware may alter its behavior, remain dormant, or self-terminate to avoid detection and analysis, thus preserving its efficacy.
Packing
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A penetration tester is assessing an organization's physical security. The tester wants to gain unauthorized access to a secured server room that uses a biometric fingerprint scanner. Which of the following techniques would be MOST effective for bypassing the biometric scanner?
Shoulder surfing the authorized user's fingerprint pattern
Picking the lock on the server room door
Using a gelatin mold of an authorized user's fingerprint
Using a gelatin mold is a classic and often effective method for creating a spoofed fingerprint, as gelatin can accurately capture and replicate the unique ridge patterns and valleys of an authorized user's print. When pressed against a scanner, particularly older optical or capacitive types lacking advanced liveness detection, the gelatin replica can mimic the electrical or optical properties of a real finger. This allows the penetration tester to deceive the biometric system into granting access.
Tailgating behind an authorized employee
During a social engineering engagement, a tester calls the help desk posing as an employee from the IT department. The tester claims to be working on a critical system update and needs the employee's password to proceed. Which type of social engineering attack is being executed?
Quid pro quo
Baiting
Pretexting
Pretexting is a highly targeted social engineering technique where an attacker creates a fabricated scenario or 'pretext' to manipulate a victim into divulging sensitive information or performing an action. This often involves extensive research to develop a believable false identity and backstory, making the attacker appear legitimate and authoritative during direct interactions like phone calls. The tester's action of calling with a false identity to extract information perfectly aligns with this method's characteristics.
Phishing
Which of the following is the BEST defense against tailgating attacks in a secure facility?
Hiring security guards
Reviewing keycard access logs
Installing CCTV cameras
Implementing a mantrap at the entrance
Implementing a mantrap at the entrance is the most effective defense because it is a physical security mechanism designed specifically to prevent tailgating. A mantrap consists of two interlocking doors, where the first door must close and lock before the second door can open, typically allowing only one person to pass through at a time after successful authentication. This physically enforces single-person entry, making it virtually impossible for a second individual to follow an authorized person into a restricted area.
An employee receives an email that appears to be from the CEO, asking the employee to urgently wire funds to a vendor. The email address is slightly misspelled. What type of social engineering attack is this?
Pharming
Spear phishing
Whaling
Whaling is a specialized form of spear phishing that specifically targets high-profile individuals, such as senior executives, CEOs, or government officials, or impersonates them to deceive employees. In this scenario, an email appearing to be from the CEO directly aligns with the definition of whaling, as it leverages the authority of a top executive to induce a specific action. The objective is often to trick recipients into making large financial transfers or divulging sensitive corporate data, exploiting the perceived urgency and command from a C-level executive.
Vishing
Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst runs ping and arp commands. What is the most likely attack occurring?
Distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack
MAC flooding attack
ARP spoofing attack
An ARP spoofing attack, also known as ARP poisoning, involves an attacker sending forged Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) replies to a target system, associating the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of another legitimate device on the local network. The exhibit's indication of duplicate MAC addresses for different IP addresses in the ARP cache is a definitive symptom of this attack. This allows the attacker to intercept, modify, or drop traffic intended for the legitimate device, effectively performing a man-in-the-middle attack.
Ping flood attack
You are a security consultant hired by a mid-sized company with 500 employees. The company has a central office with a lobby, reception, and two secure areas: the server room (requires keycard and PIN) and the executive floor (requires keycard only). Recently, employees have reported seeing unfamiliar people in restricted areas. Security logs show keycard access for the server room only during business hours, but no anomalies. However, the executive floor logs show multiple entries by a single employee, John from Sales, at odd hours. John claims he was working late. The company has a policy that all employees must wear ID badges visibly. You observe that employees often hold doors open for colleagues, and the receptionist does not verify visitor badges. Which of the following actions should you recommend FIRST to address the most likely attack vector?
Investigate John's activities and consider disciplinary action
Upgrade keycard readers to biometric scanners
Implement mantraps and enforce a policy of one person per keycard entry
Mantraps are highly effective physical security controls consisting of two interlocking doors, designed to permit only one person to pass through at a time after successful authentication. This physical barrier directly prevents tailgating by making it impossible for a second individual to enter behind an authorized person. Coupling this technical control with a strictly enforced policy reinforces security protocols, ensuring both physical and administrative measures actively mitigate the tailgating threat.
Install additional CCTV cameras in hallways
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Practice this domainThe CEH exam has 125 questions and must be completed in 240 minutes. The passing score is 700/1000.
Scenario-based questions covering exam objectives with detailed answer explanations.
The exam covers 13 domains: Footprinting, Reconnaissance and Scanning, Enumeration and System Hacking, Malware, Social Engineering and Network Attacks, Web Application and Injection Attacks, Introduction to Ethical Hacking, Scanning Networks and Enumeration, Vulnerability Analysis and System Hacking, Advanced Topics: Wireless, Cloud, IoT, Cryptography, Footprinting and Reconnaissance, Network and Web Application Attacks, Wireless, IoT and Cloud Security, Cryptography and Malware Analysis, Social Engineering and Physical Security. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.
No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official EC-Council CEH exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.
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