CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026
24real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.
A user reports that their Windows 10 computer is running slowly and they see a 'Low memory' message when opening applications. What should the technician check first to diagnose the issue?
Check for malware using anti-malware software
Increase virtual memory in System Properties
Check RAM usage in Task Manager
Task Manager shows real-time physical memory utilization under the Performance tab, as well as per-process memory columns under the Processes tab, which directly tells the technician whether the system is running out of RAM or a single application is monopolizing memory. By sorting processes by the Memory column, the technician can immediately identify the culprit and decide whether to close the application, update it, or recommend a hardware RAM upgrade. This objective data is the essential first step in the troubleshooting process, as it distinguishes between a true low-memory condition and other problems that might present similar symptoms like sluggishness.
Run Disk Cleanup to free up space
A technician needs to dual-boot Windows 10 and a Linux distribution on a UEFI-based system. Which partition style is required for the boot drive?
MBR
GPT
GPT is the standard partition table for UEFI systems. It uses 64-bit logical block addressing, supports disks larger than 2 TiB, and includes a dedicated EFI System Partition (ESP) formatted as FAT32 where UEFI firmware locates bootloaders. Both Windows 10 and Linux distributions support installing to GPT disks, and Secure Boot relies on GPT-based UEFI firmware, making GPT the required choice here.
FAT32
NTFS
A user reports that Windows Update on a Windows 10 Pro workstation has been stuck on 'Downloading updates 0%' for several hours. The technician has already run the Windows Update Troubleshooter, which reported no issues. Which command-line tool should the technician use NEXT to attempt to resolve the problem by repairing potential system file corruption affecting the update process?
sfc /scannow
dism /online /cleanup-image /restorehealth
DISM with /restorehealth checks the component store for corruption and repairs it using Windows Update or a local source. This addresses the root cause of many Windows Update failures and is the appropriate next step after the troubleshooter.
net stop wuauserv && net start wuauserv
wuauclt /detectnow
A Linux administrator needs to change the permissions of a script file named 'script.sh' so that the owner has read, write, and execute permissions; the group has read and execute permissions; and all other users have no permissions. Which of the following commands will achieve the desired permissions?
chmod 750 script.sh
chmod 750 is correct because the numeric mode 7 (owner) grants read, write, and execute; 5 (group) grants read and execute; and 0 (others) removes all permissions. This precisely matches the requirement that only the owner has full control, the group can read/execute the script, and no other users have any access. The execute bit on the group is appropriate for a script that needs to be run, while the zero for others ensures they cannot even read the file's contents.
chmod 755 script.sh
chmod 754 script.sh
chmod 751 script.sh
A technician needs to configure a Windows 10 workstation that will be used by multiple employees who share the same physical device. Each employee should have their own personalized settings and files, and must be able to log in with their own domain credentials. Which of the following should the technician implement?
Join the computer to a workgroup and create local user accounts.
Join the computer to the domain and allow domain user logins.
Domain joining integrates the Windows 10 client with Active Directory, allowing users to authenticate with their existing domain credentials. On first sign-in, Windows automatically provisions a local profile for that domain user, and optional Folder Redirection or Roaming Profiles make settings and files follow the user across machines. Centralized Group Policy also enforces security and configuration baselines, making this the only option that satisfies both individualization and centralized administration.
Enable Guest access for all employees.
Configure Windows 10 as a Remote Desktop server and have employees log in remotely.
A technician is setting up a Windows 10 system to run as an informational kiosk in a hotel lobby. The computer must automatically log into a standard user account without requiring a password after any restart or power failure. Which of the following tools should the technician use to configure this behavior?
Local Group Policy Editor (gpedit.msc)
The User Accounts tool (netplwiz)
The User Accounts tool (netplwiz) is the supported Microsoft GUI for configuring automatic logon. In its 'Users' tab, clearing the checkbox labeled 'Users must enter a user name and password to use this computer' and then entering the intended account's password twice causes Windows to securely populate the underlying Winlogon registry values (AutoAdminLogon, DefaultUserName, DefaultPassword, DefaultDomainName). This method offloads the correct handling of credentials and avoids the brittleness of manually setting registry entries; it is accessible from both the Control Panel and the command-line shortcut 'control userpasswords2'.
Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc)
Registry Editor (regedit)
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Practice this domainA helpdesk technician receives a call from a user who reports that their antivirus software is disabled and cannot be re-enabled. Additionally, the user's files have been renamed with a '.encrypted' extension. Which type of malware is most likely responsible?
Trojan
Worm
Ransomware
Ransomware is specifically constructed to disable or evade security software, encrypt the victim's files or even whole volumes, and then display an extortion note demanding payment for the decryption key. Modern ransomware often terminates antivirus processes and clears shadow copies to make file recovery impossible without paying, which matches the user's report exactly. The dual symptom set of disabled security tools and encrypted files is the classic, high-confidence signature of a ransomware attack, distinguishing it clearly from Trojans, worms, and rootkits.
Rootkit
A small business owner calls a technician after discovering that all files on their Windows 10 workstation have been renamed with a '.crypt' extension. A ransom note demands payment in Bitcoin within 72 hours or the files will be permanently lost. The business has no recent backups. Which action should the technician take FIRST?
Advise the owner to pay the ransom to recover the files quickly.
Run a full antivirus scan on the affected system.
Disconnect the affected system from the network immediately.
Disconnecting the affected system from the network is the essential first step in incident response because it immediately halts propagation across SMB, mapped drives, and administrative shares. This action also cuts off the ransomware's command-and-control communication, preventing the attacker from issuing new instructions or exfiltrating data. Physically unplugging the network cable or disabling the wireless adapter is preferred over software-based disconnection, as a compromised system may ignore or spoof such commands. This containment step preserves evidence and minimizes the blast radius before any detection or recovery attempts.
Attempt to restore files from Shadow Copies using Previous Versions.
A user receives an email that appears to be from their bank, stating that their account has been compromised and they must click a link to verify their identity. The user notices the sender's email address does not match the bank's official domain. What is the BEST immediate action for the user to take?
Reply to the email asking the sender to verify their identity
Click the link to see if the page looks legitimate
Forward the email to the bank's official customer service or security team
Forwarding the email to the bank's official customer service or security team is the correct response because it provides the bank's incident responders with the raw phishing content, including headers that help identify the sending infrastructure. It is critical to use contact information from the bank's official website—not from the email—to ensure the report reaches the legitimate team. This action supports coordinated remediation such as blocking the malicious domain, issuing customer alerts, and initiating a takedown, which protects other customers from the same attack.
Delete the email and ignore it
A security administrator notices that a user's workstation is sending outbound traffic to a known malicious IP address at regular intervals. The user reports no unusual activity. The technician has already run a full antivirus scan with no detections. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to investigate the persistent network connection?
Run a network packet capture to analyze the traffic content.
Running a network packet capture with a tool such as Wireshark or tcpdump provides a detailed view of the actual data being transmitted, including packet payloads, protocol headers, and destination IP address responses. This allows you to identify whether the outbound traffic is command-and-control beaconing, data exfiltration, or an application acting abnormally, and it preserves volatile evidence in real time. As the best investigative step, packet capture gives you the ground truth needed to determine the nature of the communication and to guide subsequent containment or remediation.
Disable the network adapter and disconnect the workstation from the network.
Reimage the workstation immediately.
Check the Windows Firewall logs for blocked connections.
A user reports that their Windows 10 workstation suddenly cannot access any network resources. A technician remotely views the system and notices a popup that mimics a Windows Security alert, stating the system is infected. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees the workstation has an APIPA address (169.254.x.x). The network adapter shows no physical link issues. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A rogue DHCP server is issuing invalid IP addresses on the network.
An ARP poisoning attack is redirecting network traffic, causing the system to lose its lease.
Malware is disabling the DHCP client service to block internet access as part of a scareware campaign.
Scareware commonly disrupts network access to manufacture a crisis that the malware then offers to 'fix' for a fee. By stopping or disabling the DHCP Client service (DHCPSVC), the network interface can no longer request a lease; Windows then auto-configures an APIPA address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range, producing the 'Limited connectivity' state. At the same time, the malware displays a fake Windows Security alert demanding immediate action, which perfectly matches the reported symptom of no network access plus a popup.
A DNS hijack is preventing the workstation from resolving network names, so it falls back to APIPA.
A security audit reveals that a legacy application running on a Windows 10 workstation transmits sensitive data over an unencrypted protocol. The application is critical for business operations and cannot be updated or replaced. The workstation is located in a secured server room with restricted physical access. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk of data interception for this legacy application?
Implement an IPsec policy on the workstation to encrypt all network traffic.
IPsec operates at the network layer (Layer 3), so it encrypts all IP-based traffic from the workstation, regardless of the application protocol used by the legacy software. Because it is enforced at the OS or policy level, it can be applied without modifying the application, and it protects against data interception on the LAN. A persistent IPsec policy via Group Policy or local security policy ensures encryption is always active.
Install a VPN client on the workstation and connect to a corporate VPN server.
Change the application configuration to use HTTPS for communication.
Place the workstation on an isolated VLAN that has no access to external networks.
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Practice this domain22% of exam · 6 sample questions below
A user reports that after installing a new printer driver on a Windows 10 computer, the system blue screens whenever they attempt to print. The computer boots normally but crashes during the print job. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve the issue?
Run the System File Checker (sfc /scannow) from the Command Prompt.
Boot into Safe Mode and roll back the printer driver.
Booting into Safe Mode loads only the minimal set of generic drivers, which prevents the newly installed printer driver from being loaded during startup, so the system becomes stable enough to open Device Manager. From the printer's Properties, the Driver tab provides a Roll Back Driver button that reinstalls the previous driver version that worked before the crash. Rolling back the specific driver is the direct reversal of the change that caused the bugcheck, making it the most targeted and immediate solution.
Use System Restore to revert the system to a point before the driver installation.
Perform a repair installation of Windows 10 using installation media.
A user's Windows 10 computer displays the error 'Invalid system disk' after a power outage. The computer previously booted normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this error?
The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) is corrupted.
The hard drive has failed completely.
The BIOS boot order has changed due to the power outage.
During a power outage, the CMOS battery can be depleted or the CMOS contents can be cleared, causing the BIOS/UEFI to reset to factory defaults and change the boot device priority. If the hard drive with Windows is no longer first in the boot order, the firmware may attempt to boot from a non-bootable USB, optical disc, or network adapter, resulting in 'Invalid system disk' on a Windows 10 machine. This is the most plausible explanation because the error disappears once the correct disk is reselected in the BIOS boot menu.
The operating system files are missing or damaged.
A user reports that a critical application crashes every time they attempt to save a file to a network drive. The application works fine when saving locally. The network drive is accessible and other users can save files to it without issues. Which of the following steps should the technician take FIRST?
Reinstall the application.
Check the disk space on the network drive.
Saving to a network share requires the remote file system to allocate space for the new file; if the network volume is full or the user has reached a quota limit, the SMB server rejects the write even though the share appears accessible and local saves work. This is a frequent root cause of application-specific save failures, and a technician can quickly verify it by checking the share's properties, using `fsutil volume diskfree` on the server, or reviewing the user's quota from the file server. It is a fast, non-destructive diagnostic that directly addresses the difference between local and remote save behavior.
Run chkdsk on the local drive.
Update the network driver.
A user reports that Microsoft Word 2019 crashes every time they attempt to open a specific .docx file. Other Word documents open without issue. The technician has already booted Word in Safe Mode and the crash still occurs when opening this file. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to resolve the issue?
Reinstall Microsoft Office from the installation media.
Run the System File Checker (SFC) utility from an elevated command prompt.
Use the Open and Repair feature in Word to attempt to recover the file.
The Open and Repair feature in Word invokes a built-in recovery engine that parses the OOXML structure of the document, identifies damaged parts such as document.xml or relationship feeds, and attempts to reconstruct a readable version. When Word crashes only for a specific .docx and safe mode confirms other files open, the file's internal integrity is the prime suspect; Open and Repair is the targeted solution designed for exactly this scenario. It prioritizes salvaging content, with fallback to extracting raw text if full recovery is impossible.
Check for Microsoft Office updates and install any available patches.
A user reports that a Windows 10 application frequently crashes with an error indicating that a required DLL file is missing. The technician has verified that the application worked previously. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
Reinstall the application
Run SFC /scannow
SFC /scannow is the correct first step because it verifies the integrity of all protected system files and replaces corrupted or missing versions from the Windows component store (WinSxS). A missing DLL error often indicates that a critical system component or dependency has been damaged, not that the application itself is broken. SFC is non-invasive, preserves user data and installed applications, and directly targets the root cause if the DLL belongs to the OS or a shared runtime.
Update the graphics driver
Perform a System Restore
A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 10 workstation that freezes intermittently. The technician has already updated drivers and run hardware diagnostics with no issues. The event logs show multiple occurrences of Event ID 1000 with application crashes. Which of the following tools should the technician use to get more detailed information about the crashing application?
Task Manager
Reliability Monitor
Reliability Monitor records system and application failures with detailed error information, making it ideal for identifying the crashing application.
Performance Monitor
Resource Monitor
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Practice this domain22% of exam · 6 sample questions below
A technician is decommissioning several hard drives that contained sensitive client data. The drives are still functional but need to be disposed of securely. Which method ensures the data cannot be recovered?
Quick format the drives and then sell them.
Delete all files and empty the Recycle Bin.
Use a degausser to demagnetize the platters.
A degausser exposes the hard drive platters to a powerful alternating magnetic field that randomizes or cancels the magnetic domains, effectively destroying the stored data along with the drive's servo tracks and structural alignment. This renders the drive unusable and the data unrecoverable, even by specialized forensic equipment. It is the industry-standard method for confidentially disposing of magnetic media such as HDDs and tapes, though it does not work on SSDs.
Perform a standard format and then reuse the drives.
A small business is upgrading its office equipment and needs to dispose of several old CRT monitors and LCD displays. Which of the following is the MOST environmentally responsible method of disposal for these electronic devices?
Place them in the regular trash dumpster
Sell them to a scrap metal recycler
Donate them to a local charity
Take them to an e-waste recycling center
Taking the equipment to a dedicated e-waste recycling center is the most responsible and compliant disposal method. These facilities are specifically permitted to process toxic electronic components and typically follow certified standards such as R2 or e-Stewards, ensuring safe dismantling, proper segregation of hazardous waste, and responsible downstream management. They also have robust data sanitization or physical destruction protocols, addressing both ecological and security concerns. In contrast to landfill disposal or partial metal recovery, e-waste centers maximize material recovery while minimizing environmental harm.
A technician is setting up a secure disposal plan for old laptops. Which of the following procedures BEST ensures that all sensitive data is irretrievable before disposal?
Deleting all files and emptying the recycle bin.
Performing a standard format of the hard drive.
Using disk encryption software that meets industry standards.
Physically destroying the hard drive platters.
Physically destroying the hard drive platters is the most reliable and definitive method for ensuring that data cannot be recovered, as it eliminates the storage medium itself. Techniques such as shredding, drilling through the platters, or disintegrating the drive render the magnetic layers unreadable and make any forensic reconstruction infeasible. This approach aligns with the highest level of security in data disposal (e.g., NIST SP 800-88), which recommends device destruction for media containing sensitive data. Once the physical structure of the platters is compromised, no software or hardware recovery method can retrieve the data, guaranteeing complete data destruction.
A technician is decommissioning several old laptop batteries that are no longer holding a charge. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate method of disposal for these batteries?
Place them in the regular office trash for collection.
Recycle them through an approved electronics recycling vendor or battery drop-off program.
Approved e-waste recycling vendors and battery drop-off programs are the correct route because they safely manage hazardous components in accordance with regulations such as the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). These programs sort chemistries, stabilize or neutralize reactive materials, and recover valuable metals (lithium, cobalt, nickel) for reuse, preventing both environmental contamination and the risk of landfill fires. Many states mandate take-back programs, so using an authorized recycler also ensures legal compliance.
Incinerate them at a licensed waste-to-energy facility.
Donate them to a local school for use in demonstrations.
A technician is documenting a recurring issue where users lose network connectivity after a specific software update is installed. The technician has identified the root cause and implemented a temporary workaround. According to change management best practices, what is the NEXT step the technician should take?
Inform all users of the workaround
Submit a request to deploy a permanent fix through the change control process
Submitting a request to deploy a permanent fix is the correct next step because change management requires that any modification to the production environment go through documented review, approval, and scheduling. The RFC must include the technical details, risk assessment, rollback plan, and testing results so the Change Advisory Board can approve it with confidence. With a workaround already in place, the fix can follow the standard change path rather than an emergency process.
Revert the update on all affected systems
Escalate the issue to the vendor for a patch
A technician needs to apply a critical security patch to a server that hosts a legacy application. The patch is known to cause a brief service interruption during installation. According to change management best practices, which of the following should the technician do FIRST before installing the patch?
Install the patch immediately to minimize security exposure, then document the change afterwards.
Submit a change request to the change control board and develop a backout plan.
Submitting a change request to the change control board (CCB) ensures the patch is formally assessed for risk, impact, and required testing before touching production. Developing a backout plan is equally critical because it provides a documented, step-by-step method to revert the server to its prior state if the patch fails or causes unforeseen issues. This approach complies with change management best practices and protects the legacy server's stability while still addressing the security vulnerability.
Schedule the installation during off-peak hours and run the patch without prior approval.
Test the patch on a non-production server and then apply it to the production server without filing a change request.
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Practice this domainThe 220-1102 exam has 90 questions and must be completed in 90 minutes. The passing score is 700/1000.
Multiple-choice and performance-based questions covering IT security, networking, and operations. Some questions are performance-based (PBQs), asking you to complete tasks in a simulated environment.
The exam covers 4 domains: Operating Systems, Security, Software Troubleshooting, Operational Procedures. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.
No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA 220-1102 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.
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