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Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst (SPLK-5001) (SPLK-5001) (SPLK-5001) — Questions 151203

203 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
MCQhard

You need to modify the default 'Risk Score' logic for a specific asset. Where should this customization occur?

A.By changing the sourcetype definition.
B.In the 'limits.conf' file.
C.By editing the 'notable_event' python script.
D.In the 'Risk Scoring' configuration or via lookup tables.
AnswerD

Risk factors are managed through these UI and data-driven methods.

Why this answer

The 'Risk Analysis' framework or 'Risk Scoring' configuration pages allow for modifying how scores are calculated for specific assets.

152
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE commands can be used to handle or create statistical summaries?

Select 3 answers
A.stats
B.fields
C.streamstats
D.eventstats
E.sort
AnswersA, C, D

Standard aggregation.

Why this answer

Stats, eventstats, and streamstats are the primary statistical commands.

153
MCQmedium

A security analyst needs to adjust the weight of a specific risk rule. Where should this configuration be modified?

A.Correlation Search Editor
B.Identity Manager
C.Risk Index Configuration
D.Risk Notable Settings
AnswerA

The risk score for a specific rule is typically defined within the 'Risk Analysis' adaptive response action settings in the correlation search.

Why this answer

Risk rules are often defined within the correlation search itself, where the risk score is mapped to the event severity.

154
MCQeasy

Which command is used to rename a field in the results table for better readability?

A.table src_ip as "Source Address"
B.fields src_ip:"Source Address"
C.eval "Source Address" = src_ip
D.rename src_ip as "Source Address"
AnswerD

The rename command follows the syntax: rename <field> as <new_name>.

Why this answer

The rename command allows changing the display name of a field.

155
MCQmedium

When configuring a correlation search, what does the 'Notable Event' field 'Urgency' determine?

A.The priority ranking in the Incident Review dashboard.
B.The frequency at which the search runs.
C.The retention period of the event.
D.The speed of the correlation search execution.
AnswerA

Urgency helps analysts prioritize the most critical incidents.

Why this answer

Urgency is a calculated value based on the risk of the event and the criticality of the assets involved, displayed in the Incident Review dashboard.

156
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting why a specific Correlation Search is not appearing in the Incident Review dashboard despite the search returning results. What is the most likely cause?

A.The correlation search schedule is set to 'Real-time'.
B.The 'Notable' adaptive response action is not enabled in the search configuration.
C.The user does not have the 'ess_admin' role.
D.The data model acceleration is lagging.
AnswerB

If the adaptive response action 'Notable' is not configured, the event remains a standard search result and is not promoted to the Incident Review dashboard.

Why this answer

The 'Notable' adaptive response action must be enabled in the correlation search configuration for it to generate an entry in the Incident Review dashboard.

157
MCQeasy

Which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain is most effectively mitigated by implementing strict egress filtering on your firewall?

A.Installation.
B.Command and Control (C2).
C.Reconnaissance.
D.Exploitation.
AnswerB

C2 requires outbound communication to an attacker-controlled server.

Why this answer

Egress filtering prevents infected hosts from communicating with external Command and Control (C2) servers.

158
MCQeasy

Which command allows you to limit the number of fields displayed in your final results table?

A.table src_ip, dest_ip
B.select src_ip, dest_ip
C.show src_ip, dest_ip
D.fields + src_ip, dest_ip
AnswerD

The '+' includes only the specified fields.

Why this answer

The 'fields' command is used to include or exclude fields from the event display.

159
MCQhard

A correlation search is failing to generate notable events due to a time-zone mismatch in the source data. What is the best way to handle this in Splunk?

A.Set the TZ attribute in props.conf for the specific sourcetype.
B.Modify the data model acceleration schedule.
C.Use an eval statement in the search to subtract hours.
D.Change the Splunk server time zone.
AnswerA

Configuring the TZ at the indexer level ensures normalization upon ingestion.

Why this answer

Configuring the time zone in props.conf using TZ ensures that the _time field correctly reflects the event's actual time before correlation.

160
MCQeasy

You are configuring a new Risk-Based Alerting (RBA) workflow. Which component is responsible for transforming raw logs into risk notables within the Splunk Enterprise Security app?

A.Asset and Identity Framework
B.Risk Analysis Adaptive Response Action
C.Correlation Search Editor
D.Notable Event Suppression
AnswerB

The Risk Analysis action tags the event with risk metadata and writes it to the risk index.

Why this answer

The Risk Analysis adaptive response action is the core mechanism in Splunk ES used to generate risk events from notable events or correlation searches.

161
MCQmedium

You need to append the contents of a lookup file 'threat_intel.csv' to your search results based on the field 'src_ip'. Which command is correct?

A.index=firewall | enrich src_ip threat_intel.csv
B.index=firewall | lookup threat_intel.csv src_ip OUTPUTNEW severity, threat_type
C.index=firewall | join src_ip [inputlookup threat_intel.csv]
D.index=firewall | inputlookup threat_intel.csv src_ip
E.index=firewall | append threat_intel.csv
AnswerB

The lookup command adds fields from the CSV to existing events based on a common field.

Why this answer

The lookup command is designed to enrich events with data from a lookup file.

162
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a primary benefit of Risk-Based Alerting (RBA) over traditional alerting?

A.It alerts on every single event.
B.It eliminates the need for correlation searches.
C.It focuses on aggregated behavior to reduce noise.
D.It ignores all low-severity events.
AnswerC

RBA aggregates multiple signals to identify higher-confidence threats.

Why this answer

RBA reduces alert fatigue by focusing on aggregated activity rather than single, potentially noisy events.

163
MCQeasy

What does the 'OR' operator do in a search?

A.Matches either condition.
B.Excludes the specified condition.
C.Matches both conditions.
D.Matches only the first condition.
AnswerA

OR is a boolean operator that expands the scope of the search.

Why this answer

The 'OR' operator returns results that match either condition.

164
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are true regarding the configuration of notable events in Splunk ES?

Select 2 answers
A.All notable events must be stored in the 'notable' index.
B.Notable events can be created manually through the Incident Review interface.
C.The urgency of a notable event is a calculation of impact and severity.
D.Notable events are immutable and cannot be updated after creation.
E.Notable events can only be generated by correlation searches.
AnswersB, C

Analysts can create custom notable events directly in the dashboard.

Why this answer

Notable events can be manually created via the UI, and their urgency is dynamically determined by the severity and impact settings.

165
MCQmedium

Which command would you use to filter out events where the 'status' field is 200?

A.eval status!=200
B.where status=200
C.drop status=200
D.search status!=200
AnswerD

This is the most direct way to exclude events with status 200.

Why this answer

The 'where' command or 'search' command can be used to filter events.

166
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE attributes are commonly used to filter notable events in the Incident Review dashboard?

Select 3 answers
A.License type.
B.Owner.
C.Status.
D.Index name.
E.Urgency.
AnswersB, C, E

Assigning owners is key to collaboration.

Why this answer

Analysts typically filter by status, urgency, and owner to manage their incident queue.

167
MCQmedium

You suspect an attacker is using 'living-off-the-land' (LotL) techniques. Which Sysmon event should you analyze to see command-line arguments of suspicious utilities?

A.Event ID 7
B.Event ID 2
C.Event ID 5
D.Event ID 1
AnswerD

Event ID 1 provides the full command line string.

Why this answer

Event ID 1 (Process Creation) provides the full command line, including arguments, which is essential for detecting LotL techniques.

168
Multi-Selecthard

When hunting for lateral movement, which THREE data sources are most valuable for correlation?

Select 3 answers
A.Windows Security Event ID 4688 (Process Creation)
B.Windows System Event ID 7045 (Service Installation)
C.Windows System Event ID 104 (Log Cleared)
D.Windows Security Event ID 4611 (Trusted Logon)
E.Windows Security Event ID 4624 (Logon)
AnswersA, B, E

This tracks what the user runs after authenticating.

Why this answer

Authentication logs (4624), process execution (4688), and service installation (7045) provide the necessary context to track an attacker moving between hosts.

169
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO commands are helpful for identifying specific patterns in data?

Select 2 answers
A.rename
B.sort
C.head
D.transaction
E.cluster
AnswersD, E

Groups events by common fields.

Why this answer

Cluster and transaction help identify event patterns.

170
MCQeasy

Where should you perform the initial configuration of the Splunk Common Information Model (CIM) to ensure data is correctly normalized for Enterprise Security?

A.The local/inputs.conf file.
B.Splunk ES > Configure > Data Enrichment.
C.Settings > CIM Setup.
D.Settings > Data Model acceleration.
AnswerC

CIM Setup is the dedicated interface for managing add-on mappings.

Why this answer

The CIM Setup page in the Splunk Web interface is the primary location for managing CIM data models and accelerations.

171
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are benefits of using Risk-Based Alerting (RBA) in Splunk ES?

Select 3 answers
A.Improved focus on behavioral indicators
B.Prioritization of threats based on entity risk
C.Automatic remediation of threats
D.Automatic license management
E.Reduction of alert noise
AnswersA, B, E

Helps detect low-and-slow attacks.

Why this answer

RBA reduces noise, prioritizes high-risk entities, and focuses on behavioral patterns.

172
MCQhard

An attacker has cleared the Windows Security Event log to hide their tracks. Which data model can detect this action?

A.Endpoint
B.Change Analysis
C.Network Traffic
D.Authentication
AnswerB

Change Analysis tracks critical system events like clearing the security logs.

Why this answer

The 'Change Analysis' data model tracks significant system changes, including clearing security logs.

173
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE commands are used to manipulate multi-value fields?

Select 3 answers
A.rename
B.mvcombine
C.table
D.mvexpand
E.mvfilter
AnswersB, D, E

Combines fields into MV.

Why this answer

Mvexpand, mvcombine, and mvfilter are used for MV fields.

174
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid ways to filter events based on time?

Select 3 answers
A.stats _time
B.earliest=, latest=
C.bin _time
D.index=logs earliest=-1h latest=now
E.where _time > relative_time(now(), "-24h")
AnswersB, D, E

Direct time modifiers in the search bar.

Why this answer

Earliest/latest, relative time modifiers, and 'where' with _time are valid.

175
MCQmedium

You are tasked with reporting on 'Lateral Movement' (MITRE ATT&CK) using Splunk ES. Which Data Model must be populated and enabled for this report to function correctly?

A.The 'Network Resolution' Data Model.
B.The 'Vulnerability' Data Model.
C.The 'Authentication' Data Model.
D.The 'Malware' Data Model.
AnswerC

Tracking lateral movement often requires identifying authentication events between systems.

Why this answer

The 'Authentication' data model is critical for tracking account usage, which is the primary method for lateral movement.

176
MCQmedium

Which dashboard provides a summary of all assets categorized by their criticality within the organization?

A.Threat Activity
B.User Activity
C.Access Anomalies
D.Asset Investigator
AnswerD

This dashboard displays asset information including criticality.

Why this answer

The 'Asset Investigator' or 'Security Posture' dashboards provide views of assets based on their identified risk and criticality.

177
MCQmedium

Your organization is adopting the CIS Controls v8. You are using Splunk to track 'Inventory and Control of Enterprise Assets'. Which Data Model is essential for this visibility?

A.Vulnerability Data Model.
B.Assets and Identity Data Model.
C.Endpoint Data Model.
D.Network Traffic Data Model.
AnswerB

This model is specifically designed to store and correlate asset inventory information.

Why this answer

The 'Inventory' data model (part of the Common Information Model) is the foundation for asset tracking in Splunk ES.

178
MCQhard

When using 'stats', how can you include the values of a field as columns in your output?

A.stats count by host, sourcetype
B.stats count by host | transpose
C.stats count by host, sourcetype | xyseries host, sourcetype, count
D.stats pivot host sourcetype
AnswerC

Xyseries transforms result rows into a table format (x, y, z).

Why this answer

The 'xyseries' or 'chart' command is used to create columns from field values.

179
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are key components of the Splunk ES Threat Intelligence framework?

Select 2 answers
A.Threat Source management
B.Forwarder management
C.Dashboard customization
D.Incident classification
E.Threat Intelligence collections
AnswersA, E

Critical for configuring external intelligence feeds.

Why this answer

The framework relies on threat sources and the ingestion of indicators into threat intelligence collections.

180
MCQmedium

You are configuring CIS Benchmarks in Splunk for your Linux environment. Which tool/app is the standard for ingesting and reporting these compliance checks?

A.Splunk Add-on for Linux Auditd.
B.Splunk App for Infrastructure (SAI).
C.Splunk App for CIS Benchmarks.
D.Splunk Enterprise Security Vulnerability Scanner.
AnswerC

This app provides out-of-the-box dashboards for CIS compliance.

Why this answer

Splunk Add-on for CIS (or specifically the Splunk App for CIS Benchmarks) is the designated tool for importing and visualizing these audits.

181
MCQmedium

An analyst identifies a command-and-control (C2) beaconing pattern. Which search command would be best used to identify the frequency of connections to a specific domain?

A.stats
B.timechart
C.transaction
D.eval
AnswerB

Timechart allows the analyst to see the frequency of connections, which helps identify beaconing.

Why this answer

The 'timechart' command is ideal for visualizing events over time to detect periodic patterns indicative of beaconing.

182
MCQeasy

Which command is used to append results from one search to another?

A.add [search index=other]
B.join [search index=other]
C.append [search index=other]
D.combine [search index=other]
AnswerC

The append command concatenates results from a subsearch.

Why this answer

The 'append' command adds results to the current result set.

183
MCQhard

When configuring the 'Risk Analysis' adaptive response, what does the 'risk_score' parameter represent?

A.The severity level of the notable event.
B.The threshold for triggering a notable.
C.The total risk score for the object.
D.The value added to the object's risk score.
AnswerD

The risk_score parameter defines the weight assigned to the specific event triggering the action.

Why this answer

The 'risk_score' is the value assigned to an event to quantify the level of risk associated with that activity.

184
MCQmedium

What is the primary function of the 'Risk Notable' correlation search in Splunk ES?

A.To alert when an object's risk score exceeds a threshold.
B.To clear old risk events from memory.
C.To generate risk events from logs.
D.To update the asset and identity table.
AnswerA

This is the core purpose of the Risk Notable correlation search.

Why this answer

The 'Risk Notable' search monitors the 'risk' index and triggers a notable event when an object's aggregated risk score exceeds a defined threshold.

185
MCQhard

When dealing with multi-value fields, which command allows you to break them into individual events?

A.expand field_name
B.mvexpand field_name
C.mv_to_events field_name
D.split field_name
AnswerB

Mvexpand creates a new event for each value in the multi-value field.

Why this answer

The 'mvexpand' command expands a multi-value field into separate events.

186
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of the 'Incident Review' dashboard in Splunk ES?

A.To triage and manage notable events.
B.To manage threat intelligence feeds.
C.To configure data model acceleration.
D.To view real-time system health.
AnswerA

Incident Review is the workspace for security operations.

Why this answer

It serves as the central hub for security analysts to triage, investigate, and manage notable events.

187
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of events are typically categorized as 'Notable Events'?

Select 2 answers
A.Events produced by the license master.
B.Manually created incidents in Incident Review.
C.Every log event received by the indexer.
D.Events generated by a correlation search.
E.Browser history of a user.
AnswersB, D

Analysts often create their own incidents for tracking.

Why this answer

Notable events are usually generated by high-fidelity correlation searches or by manual user creation in the Incident Review dashboard.

188
MCQmedium

Which command is used to remove duplicate events based on a field?

A.remove_duplicates event_id
B.distinct event_id
C.unique event_id
D.dedup event_id
AnswerD

Dedup keeps the first occurrence of an event based on a field and discards the rest.

Why this answer

The 'dedup' command is specifically for removing duplicates.

189
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions are necessary to successfully onboard a new data source into Splunk Enterprise Security?

Select 3 answers
A.Disable all other Splunk apps.
B.Enable data model acceleration.
C.Create a custom indexer cluster.
D.Ensure the data is indexed in a specific index.
E.Apply appropriate tags for CIM compliance.
AnswersB, D, E

Acceleration is needed for ES dashboard performance.

Why this answer

Onboarding involves ensuring data is indexed, tagged for CIM compliance, and that the data model is accelerated to support ES dashboards.

190
MCQhard

In the context of the NIST CSF 'Identify' function, which Splunk functionality is most appropriate for maintaining a current list of authorized software?

A.Index-time field extraction.
B.Correlation search thresholding.
C.Dynamic Threat Intelligence updates.
D.Asset and Identity framework using lookup tables.
AnswerD

Lookups are the standard way to feed authorized lists into Splunk for comparison.

Why this answer

The 'Asset and Identity' framework in ES allows for the ingestion of authoritative lists of software and assets for comparison against endpoint logs.

191
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are primary indicators of a phishing attack that you should look for in email logs?

Select 2 answers
A.Suspicious URL in email body
B.Successful authentication
C.High CPU usage on server
D.Unusual printer activity
E.Unexpected sender domain
AnswersA, E

Malicious links are a core component of phishing.

Why this answer

Phishing often uses suspicious sender domains and malicious embedded links.

192
MCQhard

An attacker has modified the registry to ensure persistence. Which Splunk ES data model tracks Windows registry changes?

A.Web
B.Endpoint
C.Change Analysis
D.Authentication
AnswerC

Change Analysis tracks critical system configuration changes, including registry keys.

Why this answer

The 'Change Analysis' data model specifically tracks system configuration changes, including registry modifications.

193
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of data are commonly enriched by the Asset and Identity framework?

Select 2 answers
A.Host/Asset context
B.Encrypted packet captures
C.User identity information
D.Raw web server application logs
E.System performance statistics
AnswersA, C

Asset context, such as ownership, is added to events.

Why this answer

The framework is primarily used to add context to users and hosts (assets).

194
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO Splunk features are best for automating the execution of recurring threat hunts?

Select 2 answers
A.Data Model Acceleration
B.Scheduled Searches
C.User Roles
D.Alert Actions
E.Splunk Web Framework
AnswersB, D

This is the native way to automate repeated hunts.

Why this answer

Scheduled searches and Alerts are the primary mechanisms for triggering automated hunt logic.

195
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO commands are commonly used to remove or limit the results returned by a search?

Select 2 answers
A.head
B.dedup
C.eval
D.stats
E.rename
AnswersA, B

Limits results by count.

Why this answer

Dedup and head are used to limit or filter results.

196
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of these commands are used for data visualization prep?

Select 2 answers
A.chart
B.stats
C.fields
D.timechart
E.eval
AnswersA, D

Prepares categorical data.

Why this answer

Timechart and chart are designed for visualization.

197
MCQmedium

When configuring a risk-based correlation search, what is the primary purpose of the 'Risk Analysis' adaptive response action?

A.To purge malicious events from the index.
B.To attribute risk to a specific object, such as a user or system.
C.To notify the SOC manager via email.
D.To automatically block the offending IP address on the firewall.
AnswerB

The action assigns risk scores to entities, enabling risk-based alerting.

Why this answer

The Risk Analysis action adds risk events to the Risk Index, which allows for the aggregation of multiple low-fidelity alerts into a high-fidelity risk score for a specific entity.

198
MCQhard

You need to ensure that your Splunk ES environment is properly ingesting threat intelligence data. Where can you confirm that threat sources are active?

A.Configure > Data Inputs
B.Configure > Threat Intelligence > Threat Sources
C.Dashboard > Threat Intelligence
D.Configure > Content Management
AnswerB

This is the specific path to view and manage active threat intelligence feeds.

Why this answer

The Threat Intelligence Uploads page or Data Sources page within the Threat Intelligence framework confirms connectivity.

199
MCQhard

You are auditing logs and find that a user has modified an audit policy using 'auditpol.exe'. Which Splunk CIM data model should contain this information?

A.Network Traffic
B.Change Analysis
C.Endpoint
D.Authentication
AnswerB

The Change Analysis data model is designed to capture configuration and system policy changes.

Why this answer

The Change Analysis data model tracks configuration and policy changes within the environment.

200
MCQmedium

A security analyst needs to reduce the noise generated by a specific correlation search that triggers too frequently for authorized internal vulnerability scanners. What is the most efficient way to handle this in Splunk ES?

A.Disable the correlation search and create a new one with an exclusion filter.
B.Modify the search logic to use an 'eval' statement to filter out the scanner IP address.
C.Use the Notable Event Suppression feature within the Incident Review dashboard.
D.Change the risk score of the notable event to zero in the correlation search configuration.
AnswerC

The Incident Review dashboard provides a workflow for creating suppression rules for specific correlation searches.

Why this answer

Notable event suppression allows analysts to define criteria where events matching specific patterns (like a known scanner IP) are ignored, preventing them from appearing as notable events.

201
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following data models are critical for monitoring lateral movement within a network?

Select 3 answers
A.Authentication
B.Web
C.Endpoint
D.Network Traffic
E.Identity
AnswersA, C, D

Required to see cross-system login attempts.

Why this answer

Lateral movement involves network connections, user account usage, and system-level changes.

202
MCQmedium

You need to correlate a VPN login with a subsequent file access on an internal server. Which Splunk ES feature helps you link these disparate events?

A.Data Models
B.Dashboard panels
C.Lookup tables
D.Saved searches
AnswerA

Data models normalize data to allow correlation across different technologies.

Why this answer

The 'Common Information Model' (CIM) enables correlation by normalizing fields like 'user' across different data sources.

203
MCQeasy

Which of the following best describes the goal of the 'Exploitation' phase in the Cyber Kill Chain?

A.Establishing a persistent connection to the attacker.
B.Executing code to take advantage of a vulnerability.
C.Exfiltrating sensitive company data.
D.Gathering information about the target.
AnswerB

This is the definition of exploitation.

Why this answer

The Exploitation phase involves the attacker taking advantage of a vulnerability to gain access to the system.

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