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(ISC)2 Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP) (CSSLP) (CSSLP) — Questions 175

198 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQeasy

During a threat model, you identify a risk related to 'Broken Access Control'. Which design mitigation is best suited for this?

A.Using HTTPS for all communications.
B.Implementing a strong password policy.
C.Relying on client-side hidden fields to identify user roles.
D.Enforcing centralized, server-side authorization checks for every request.
AnswerD

This ensures consistent and secure access control enforcement.

Why this answer

Policy-based access control (RBAC or ABAC) ensures users only access resources they are authorized to.

2
MCQeasy

When managing software security governance, which document should define the organization's high-level security expectations for all software development projects?

A.System Architecture Diagram.
B.Software Security Policy (SSP).
C.Individual Sprint Backlog.
D.Developer Coding Standards.
AnswerB

This is the governance-level document that sets expectations.

Why this answer

A Software Security Policy (SSP) establishes the enterprise-wide standards, expectations, and mandatory controls for all software lifecycles.

3
MCQhard

An application utilizes the Clark-Wilson integrity model. Which mechanism does it use to ensure that subjects only perform authorized operations on objects?

A.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B.Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
C.Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
D.Security Labels
E.Transformation Procedures (TPs)
AnswerE

TPs are the core of Clark-Wilson to ensure state transitions remain consistent.

Why this answer

Clark-Wilson uses Transformation Procedures (TPs) to move system state from one consistent state to another, strictly controlling access.

4
MCQeasy

A developer is configuring a web application to use the principle of least privilege. Which action best aligns with this philosophy?

A.Granting the application access to all system environment variables.
B.Using a dedicated service account with granular permissions for database access.
C.Enabling 'Everyone' write access to application configuration files.
D.Running the application process as 'root' or 'administrator'.
AnswerB

This restricts the account to only the specific permissions needed for the task.

Why this answer

Least privilege requires granting only the minimum necessary permissions for a task.

5
Multi-Selecthard

In a DevSecOps pipeline, which TWO of the following are critical for ensuring the integrity of the software supply chain?

Select 2 answers
A.Increasing the frequency of manual code uploads.
B.Digitally signing code commits and build artifacts.
C.Conducting Software Composition Analysis (SCA) on dependencies.
D.Using only open-source libraries without vetting.
E.Ensuring all developers have root access to production.
AnswersB, C

Signing provides non-repudiation and integrity verification.

Why this answer

Code signing and dependency analysis are essential for verifying the source of code and the security of imported libraries.

6
MCQhard

A team is using SonarQube to enforce secure coding standards. Which analysis approach is required to detect vulnerabilities related to improper handling of sensitive information in logs?

A.Syntax checking
B.Unit testing
C.Dead code detection
D.Taint analysis
AnswerD

Taint analysis tracks data from source to sink to identify leaks.

Why this answer

Data flow analysis (or taint analysis) is required to track whether sensitive data reaches an insecure sink like a log file.

7
MCQhard

During an incident response, you identify that a threat actor has gained unauthorized access to an application's environment variables. What is the immediate correct step to take regarding credential management?

A.Clear the application's cache to remove any temporary sensitive data.
B.Increase the logging level to 'DEBUG' to track the attacker's actions.
C.Change the password for the database user and update the application deployment manifest.
D.Re-deploy the application using the same configuration to ensure a clean state.
AnswerC

Credential rotation is the primary remediation for compromised secrets.

Why this answer

When secrets are compromised, they must be considered permanently tainted and rotated immediately to maintain the security posture.

8
MCQhard

You are implementing 'Blue-Green' deployment. What is the most critical security step to perform during the cut-over process?

A.Immediately shut down the Blue environment to save costs.
B.Update the load balancer configuration to point to both environments simultaneously.
C.Run automated security integration tests on the Green environment while it is behind the load balancer.
D.Ensure both environments use the same shared database instance.
AnswerC

Verifying security controls in the production-like environment before cut-over prevents vulnerabilities from going live.

Why this answer

Security testing (smoke tests) must be performed on the 'Green' environment before it starts receiving production traffic to ensure the new version is not misconfigured.

9
Multi-Selectmedium

When designing an automated pipeline to prevent supply chain attacks, which THREE of the following features should be included in your artifact registry?

Select 3 answers
A.Auto-scaling of the registry's storage capacity.
B.Automatic translation of code into multiple languages.
C.Automated vulnerability scanning of stored artifacts.
D.Immutable tags (preventing overwriting of existing tags).
E.Granular Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).
AnswersC, D, E

Continuously identifies risks within the stored inventory.

Why this answer

A secure registry should support immutable tags, vulnerability scanning of uploaded images, and Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) to control who can push/pull images.

10
MCQmedium

Which phase of the SDLC is the most appropriate for conducting a formal security review of the system's design documentation?

A.Verification phase.
B.Design phase.
C.Implementation phase.
D.Requirements phase.
AnswerB

This is the standard phase for formal architectural and design security reviews.

Why this answer

The Design phase allows for architectural security reviews and threat modeling before any code is written, ensuring security is integrated early.

11
MCQmedium

When implementing the Biba Integrity Model, which operation is restricted for a subject to maintain the integrity of a higher-level object?

A.Read-up
B.Write-up
C.Execute-down
D.Read-down
E.Append-down
AnswerD

Read-down is prohibited to prevent a high-integrity subject from reading lower-integrity (less trusted) data.

Why this answer

Biba is the inverse of Bell-LaPadula, focusing on integrity. It prevents 'read-down' to ensure a process doesn't ingest corrupted data from a lower level.

12
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should be considered when prioritizing findings from a DAST scan?

Select 3 answers
A.The time of day the scan was performed.
B.The number of lines of code in the component.
C.The ease of exploitability and availability of exploits.
D.The sensitivity of the data handled by the vulnerable endpoint.
E.The CVSS base score of the vulnerability.
AnswersC, D, E

Easier exploits are a higher priority.

Why this answer

Risk is a function of the vulnerability's severity, the sensitivity of the data involved, and the exploitability.

13
MCQmedium

To ensure secure deployment of software artifacts, you must verify the integrity of the binaries. Which mechanism is most effective for ensuring that artifacts have not been tampered with since they were signed by the build system?

A.Check the file timestamp using the operating system's file system metadata.
B.Upload the artifact to a public VirusTotal scan before deploying.
C.Compare the file size of the artifact with the size listed in the manifest file.
D.Verify the digital signature using a trusted public key from your organization's key store.
AnswerD

Digital signatures provide non-repudiation and integrity verification.

Why this answer

Cryptographic signing (such as GPG or Cosign for containers) creates a verifiable link between the source code and the binary.

14
Multi-Selecthard

When evaluating software security governance, which TWO of the following are necessary to ensure security alignment with business goals?

Select 2 answers
A.Limiting access to all security documentation.
B.Integrating security risk management with enterprise risk management.
C.Securing executive sponsorship and support.
D.Focusing exclusively on technical tool implementation.
E.Increasing the number of security alerts for developers.
AnswersB, C

Security must align with business risk appetite to be effective.

Why this answer

Executive sponsorship and integration with business risk management are vital for security to be a strategic rather than peripheral activity.

15
MCQmedium

When managing third-party libraries, why is a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) essential?

A.To encrypt source code
B.To provide a complete inventory of software components
C.To speed up build times
D.To replace the need for unit testing
AnswerB

SBOMs allow for rapid vulnerability identification across the entire supply chain.

Why this answer

An SBOM provides a comprehensive list of all components, making it possible to identify if a newly disclosed vulnerability affects your application.

16
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a 'Vulnerability Disclosure Policy' (VDP) in a vendor's secure development lifecycle?

A.Provide a secure channel for researchers to report vulnerabilities.
B.Automate the patching of production servers.
C.Create a list of known hardware defects.
D.Legal protection against data breaches.
AnswerA

VDPs enable early detection and responsible disclosure.

Why this answer

A VDP provides a standardized way for security researchers to report vulnerabilities, allowing the vendor to fix them before they are exploited in the wild.

17
MCQmedium

Your development team is integrating a new third-party library via npm. To prevent dependency confusion attacks where a malicious package is pulled from a public registry instead of your internal private registry, which configuration should be applied?

A.Set the registry URL in the .npmrc file to point specifically to your internal Artifactory or Nexus scope.
B.Run 'npm audit fix' before every build process.
C.Add the dependency to the 'bundledDependencies' array in package.json.
D.Enable 'strict-ssl' in the global npm configuration.
AnswerA

Scoped registries explicitly define where specific packages originate, mitigating dependency confusion.

Why this answer

Scoped registries in .npmrc ensure that packages within a specific scope are always fetched from the designated private registry, preventing the resolution of malicious public packages with the same name.

18
MCQhard

In a cloud-native environment, which design practice minimizes the impact of a compromised container?

A.Storing secret keys as environment variables in the container spec.
B.Enforcing read-only root filesystems for containers.
C.Running the application process as the root user.
D.Using a single large image for all microservices.
AnswerB

This prevents attackers from installing persistent malware or modifying binaries.

Why this answer

Containers should be designed to be immutable and run with minimal privileges, reducing the blast radius.

19
MCQhard

When designing a system that must satisfy both HIPAA and local privacy laws, which requirement approach is most appropriate?

A.Prioritize HIPAA over local laws
B.Follow only the most recent regulation
C.Create separate modules for each regulation
D.Adopt the most restrictive controls from all applicable regulations
AnswerD

This ensures that all regulatory standards are met simultaneously.

Why this answer

When multiple regulations apply, the software must satisfy the most restrictive requirements of each to ensure full compliance.

20
MCQeasy

Which design principle is exemplified by implementing a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to inspect incoming traffic before it hits the application logic?

A.Fail-safe defaults.
B.Complete mediation.
C.Economy of mechanism.
D.Defense in depth.
AnswerD

Adding a WAF provides a layer of defense before the application logic.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple layers of security to protect assets, ensuring that one failure does not lead to a total compromise.

21
MCQeasy

You are designing a fuzz testing strategy for a binary protocol parser. Which type of fuzzing is most effective for discovering memory corruption vulnerabilities in this component?

A.Unit testing with hardcoded values.
B.Static code analysis.
C.null
D.DAST scanning with default payloads.
E.Mutation-based fuzzing.
AnswerE

Mutation fuzzing systematically perturbs valid inputs to trigger unexpected behavior.

Why this answer

Mutation-based fuzzing takes valid inputs and alters them, which is highly effective for finding edge cases in protocol parsers.

22
Multi-Selectmedium

When integrating security into an Agile environment, which THREE of the following activities are considered essential for maintaining security velocity?

Select 3 answers
A.Integrating security unit tests into the automated test suite.
B.Performing manual penetration tests on every commit.
C.Waiting for the final release to review security documentation.
D.Conducting regular threat modeling sessions.
E.Incorporating security requirements into user stories.
AnswersA, D, E

Automated tests provide fast, continuous security feedback.

Why this answer

Automated testing, threat modeling sessions, and security-focused user stories all support high-velocity security integration.

23
MCQhard

During IAST implementation in a CI/CD pipeline, the agent reports a high number of false positives regarding SQL injection. What is the most likely cause?

A.null
B.The DAST scanner is conflicting with the IAST agent.
C.The agent is not correctly configured to recognize the application's specific data access abstraction layer.
D.The source code repository is not accessible to the agent.
E.The build server lacks sufficient CPU cores for runtime instrumentation.
AnswerC

IAST requires accurate mapping of custom ORMs to underlying database drivers.

Why this answer

IAST instruments the runtime environment; if the code uses an abstraction layer or ORM that the IAST agent does not map to database sinks, it may misinterpret harmless data transformations as vulnerabilities.

24
MCQmedium

You notice that your build server environment pulls Docker images from a public registry with the ':latest' tag. Why is this a major supply chain security flaw?

A.The tag prevents container layer caching.
B.The tag is mutable, allowing an attacker to inject a malicious image.
C.The registry will throttle downloads of the ':latest' tag.
D.The tag is deprecated in favor of ':stable'.
AnswerB

Tag immutability is essential for security.

Why this answer

The ':latest' tag is mutable; it can be overwritten by an attacker to point to a malicious image without the build system being aware of the change.

25
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO methods are effective in hardening the production environment against 'Zero-Day' vulnerabilities?

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing granular network segmentation to limit lateral movement.
B.Disabling all security logging to prevent alert fatigue.
C.Relying solely on perimeter-based firewalls for security.
D.Updating the application to the latest version once per year.
E.Deploying RASP (Runtime Application Self-Protection) agents to monitor and block malicious behavior.
AnswersA, E

Segmentation limits the blast radius of any exploit.

Why this answer

Defense-in-depth through runtime application self-protection (RASP) and strict network segmentation provides layered security against unknown threats.

26
Multi-Selecthard

When setting up a penetration testing lab for a web application, which THREE network configurations are recommended?

Select 3 answers
A.Enable full logging and monitoring on the testing infrastructure.
B.Configure the lab to use the main corporate production database.
C.Air-gap the testing network from the internet.
D.Implement a firewall between the test network and the rest of the company network.
E.Use a dedicated, isolated subnet for all testing traffic.
AnswersA, D, E

Essential for auditing test actions.

Why this answer

Security labs must be isolated to prevent accidental impact on production while maintaining necessary access for testing tools.

27
MCQeasy

What is the primary goal of the 'Principle of Least Privilege' (PoLP)?

A.To restrict access to the minimum necessary for a task.
B.To simplify administrative tasks by giving everyone full access.
C.To ensure that security controls are invisible to users.
D.To provide all users with the same set of permissions.
E.To automatically grant permissions based on time of day.
AnswerA

This limits the scope of potential compromise.

Why this answer

PoLP ensures that entities are granted only the minimum level of access required to perform their functions.

28
MCQmedium

During a STRIDE threat modeling session for an API gateway, you identify a risk where an attacker could intercept data in transit. Which design pattern effectively mitigates this?

A.Implement OAuth 2.0 scopes on the API gateway.
B.Use a Hardware Security Module (HSM) to store API keys.
C.Implement Mutual TLS (mTLS) for all inter-service communications.
D.Enable request rate limiting on the gateway.
AnswerC

mTLS provides both encryption and mutual identity verification.

Why this answer

TLS is the standard design pattern for ensuring confidentiality and integrity in transit.

29
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of conducting a security-focused 'Lessons Learned' meeting after a software incident?

A.To calculate the financial loss of the incident.
B.To satisfy external auditors' compliance requirements.
C.To update the SDLC to prevent similar future vulnerabilities.
D.To assign blame to the developer who wrote the code.
AnswerC

This is the core objective of post-incident analysis for lifecycle management.

Why this answer

Lessons learned help update the security lifecycle process to prevent similar future incidents, fostering continuous improvement.

30
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are crucial when performing a manual code review for security?

Select 2 answers
A.Identifying data flow sources and sinks
B.Focusing only on UI design elements
C.Rewriting the entire application
D.Verifying authorization checks are enforced
E.Checking code indentation consistency
AnswersA, D

Correct - central to spotting injection flaws.

Why this answer

Identifying data sources and sinks and checking for authorization controls are central to manual security audits.

31
MCQmedium

You are leading a threat modeling session for a new cloud-native application. You identify a potential threat where an attacker attempts to inject malicious SQL queries into the search bar. Which technique should you employ to document this behavior during the Secure Software Requirements phase?

A.Attack Tree Analysis
B.Misuse Case Modeling
C.Data Flow Diagramming
D.Compliance Matrix Mapping
AnswerB

Misuse cases explicitly define the interaction between an actor and the system to identify unauthorized or malicious actions.

Why this answer

Abuse cases are specifically designed to describe how an attacker might interact with the system to achieve a malicious objective, making them the correct tool for documenting such threats during requirements gathering.

32
Multi-Selectmedium

To protect against a compromised build pipeline, which TWO of the following configurations should be implemented to ensure 'Hermetic Builds'?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable verbose logging to standard output.
B.Automatically pull the latest compiler version.
C.Disable network access during the build process.
D.Use pinned dependencies with cryptographic hashes.
E.Allow developers to trigger manual builds via SSH.
AnswersC, D

Prevents unauthorized fetching of dependencies or exfiltration.

Why this answer

Hermetic builds require that all dependencies are declared and pinned, and that the build environment has no network access to avoid fetching unauthorized external dependencies.

33
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a Secure SDLC. Which phase is the most appropriate to start defining security test cases?

A.Requirements and Design.
B.Testing.
C.Maintenance.
D.null
E.Implementation.
AnswerA

Defining tests early allows for security-driven development.

Why this answer

Security test cases should be derived during the Requirements and Design phases to ensure that security features are verified as they are built.

34
MCQhard

When designing an application that requires secret management (e.g., API keys, database credentials), which design pattern is considered most secure?

A.Using a dedicated Secret Management service (e.g., HashiCorp Vault, AWS Secrets Manager) to inject secrets at runtime.
B.Storing secrets in a configuration file within the deployment container.
C.Requesting secrets from the user at application startup.
D.Hard-coding secrets in the source code as encrypted strings.
AnswerA

This allows for rotation, central management, and auditing of secret usage.

Why this answer

Retrieving secrets dynamically from a dedicated secret manager at runtime prevents hard-coding and exposure in configuration files.

35
Multi-Selectmedium

When performing a vendor security assessment for a new SaaS product, which THREE of the following should be requested to evaluate their supply chain resilience?

Select 3 answers
A.A list of critical fourth-party service providers (sub-processors).
B.The vendor's employee handbook.
C.The vendor's annual financial report.
D.Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) for the application.
E.Evidence of automated CI/CD dependency vulnerability scanning.
AnswersA, D, E

Crucial for identifying the extent of the vendor's supply chain.

Why this answer

Requesting an SBOM, a list of sub-processors (fourth parties), and evidence of automated dependency scanning are standard practices to assess third-party risk.

36
MCQmedium

A security auditor is using OWASP ZAP and wants to perform an authenticated scan. Which ZAP feature should they use to maintain the session across different scan requests?

A.The 'Forced User' mode in the site tree.
B.The 'Spider' tab's login configuration.
C.The 'Ajax Spider' timeout configuration.
D.Session Management configuration in the Context settings.
E.null
AnswerD

This allows ZAP to understand how to handle session tokens and authentication states.

Why this answer

ZAP's Session Management settings allow the user to define how the application tracks sessions, such as via specific cookies or headers.

37
MCQhard

A security team implements a 'Separation of Duties' policy in the CI/CD pipeline. Which implementation is correct?

A.One developer commits code, and a separate user with deployment permissions triggers the release.
B.The same developer writes, reviews, and deploys the code.
C.The QA team is allowed to modify production database records.
D.The build server automatically deploys code without human verification.
E.All developers have access to the production environment credentials.
AnswerA

This ensures two different roles are required to complete the task.

Why this answer

Separation of Duties prevents one person from having enough access to execute a malicious change without oversight.

38
MCQeasy

You are designing a web application and need to ensure the Principle of Least Privilege is applied to database access. Which approach best satisfies this requirement?

A.Use a dedicated service account restricted to execute-only permissions on specific stored procedures.
B.Configure the web application to run as the database administrator account.
C.Grant the web application service account DBOwner rights on the production database.
D.Enable integrated Windows authentication for all database connections.
AnswerA

This limits the application's ability to perform unauthorized operations.

Why this answer

Using a service account with scoped permissions to specific tables and stored procedures adheres to least privilege.

39
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are recognized components of the 'Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability' (CIA) triad?

Select 2 answers
A.Non-repudiation
B.Accounting
C.Integrity
D.Confidentiality
E.Authentication
AnswersC, D

This is a core component.

Why this answer

The CIA triad consists of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

40
Multi-Selecthard

When designing a test case for secure API authentication, which THREE elements should be included?

Select 3 answers
A.Validating that error messages do not disclose account existence.
B.Testing for insecure token storage.
C.Ensuring token expiration and revocation work correctly.
D.Automating the password recovery workflow.
E.Testing the speed of the API response.
AnswersA, B, C

Prevents enumeration attacks.

Why this answer

Authentication testing must verify token handling, error messaging, and session management.

41
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following represent common output formats for security testing reports?

Select 2 answers
A.PNG.
B.PDF.
C.MP3.
D.BIOS.
E.JSON.
AnswersB, E

Standard for human-readable reports.

Why this answer

Industry standard formats for reporting include PDF for documentation and JSON for pipeline automation integration.

42
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are recognized techniques for minimizing the attack surface of an API?

Select 3 answers
A.Implement robust authentication
B.Use cleartext headers for all communication
C.Implement rate limiting
D.Expose full internal database schemas
E.Disable unused HTTP methods
AnswersA, C, E

Correct - ensures access control.

Why this answer

Disabling unused methods, authentication, and rate limiting are standard API hardening techniques.

43
MCQmedium

You are integrating security into a Scrum-based SDLC. The team wants to use the 'Definition of Done' (DoD) to ensure security compliance. Which action most effectively embeds security into the sprint cycle?

A.Adding security-focused acceptance criteria to the Definition of Done.
B.Automating the deployment pipeline to run security scans only after the production release.
C.Performing a full threat model for every user story.
D.Conducting a penetration test at the end of every sprint.
AnswerA

This ensures security validation is a mandatory part of the development workflow.

Why this answer

Incorporating security criteria into the DoD ensures that security tasks, such as static analysis or unit testing for vulnerabilities, must be completed before a story is considered finished.

44
MCQmedium

You are auditing a web application for insecure deserialization. Which language-specific feature is most commonly the source of this vulnerability?

A.The use of internal logging
B.The use of JSON.parse()
C.The use of static typing
D.The use of native object serialization
AnswerD

Native serialization formats are often susceptible to gadget chain attacks.

Why this answer

Deserialization of untrusted data in languages like Java (ObjectInputStream) or Python (pickle) can allow code execution.

45
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a primary objective of 'Secure Configuration Management' in the software lifecycle?

A.Maintaining a consistent and hardened state across all environments.
B.Reducing the total cost of ownership of the cloud infrastructure.
C.Ensuring that developers have administrative access to production databases.
D.Maximizing the number of features delivered in each release.
AnswerA

Baseline consistency is essential for reducing the attack surface.

Why this answer

Configuration management ensures that all environments are consistently set up to a known secure baseline, preventing configuration drift.

46
MCQmedium

You are utilizing GitHub Actions for CI/CD and need to prevent secrets from being committed to the repository. Which approach is most effective for a DevSecOps workflow?

A.Enabling 'Secret scanning' and 'Push protection' in the repository settings.
B.Writing a custom shell script to grep all files for common regex patterns.
C.Relying on developers to manually check for secrets before every push.
D.Configuring an external firewall to block all traffic containing API keys.
AnswerA

These features specifically identify and block secrets in real-time.

Why this answer

The 'secret scanning' feature in GitHub automatically detects patterns associated with secrets and prevents them from being pushed or alerts the user if they are committed.

47
MCQhard

When utilizing a third-party library, what is the best strategy to minimize security risks during the build process?

A.Trust all repositories by default
B.Download libraries from the developer's website
C.Always use the 'latest' version
D.Pin dependencies to specific versions and verify hashes
AnswerD

Lock files ensure reproducibility and prevent tampering.

Why this answer

Pinning dependencies to specific versions and using hash verification ensures you are not pulling in malicious or modified code.

48
MCQmedium

A developer wants to ensure that a web application is resistant to SQL injection. Which test case should be included in the automated test suite?

A.null
B.Changing the user agent header to a random string.
C.Injecting characters like single quotes (') and comments (--) into input fields.
D.Uploading a large file to test buffer overflow.
E.Adding a long string to an email field.
AnswerC

These are classic SQL injection payloads to test if the application sanitizes input.

Why this answer

Testing for SQL injection involves sending input that contains special characters (like quotes) to see if the database engine returns an error or executes the injected command.

49
MCQmedium

Your team is adopting a 'Secure by Default' posture. Which design requirement should be included in the development specification?

A.Allowing administrative access to all users by default.
B.Using self-signed certificates in the development environment only.
C.Disabling all unused services and ports in the production container image.
D.Providing a configuration wizard to enable SSL after deployment.
AnswerC

Reduces attack surface by eliminating unnecessary functionality.

Why this answer

Secure by default means security controls are enabled without user intervention, such as disabling unnecessary features.

50
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following practices are recommended when performing fuzz testing on a web service?

Select 2 answers
A.Disable all logging to improve fuzzing speed.
B.Manually input all test cases.
C.Isolate the fuzzing environment from production data.
D.Use a production environment for maximum realism.
E.Monitor application logs for crash signals and exceptions.
AnswersC, E

Essential to avoid corruption of real databases.

Why this answer

Fuzzing requires a controlled environment and proper input sanitization tracking to be effective.

51
MCQmedium

In a service-oriented architecture (SOA), which design pattern is most effective for ensuring that messages between services are not tampered with?

A.Digital signatures on the message payload.
B.Logging all messages to a central server.
C.Encryption of the message payload.
D.Using a private network for all communication.
AnswerA

Signatures provide non-repudiation and integrity verification.

Why this answer

Message signing ensures integrity by verifying that the data was not altered after being signed by the sender.

52
MCQmedium

A stakeholder requests a feature that allows users to bypass password complexity requirements for 'internal testing accounts.' As a CSSLP, what is your first step in requirements analysis?

A.Document the risk and perform a formal risk assessment
B.Immediately reject the request
C.Update the password policy
D.Implement the bypass in dev only
AnswerA

Performing a risk assessment allows stakeholders to understand the impact of the exception before a final decision.

Why this answer

Analyzing the risk versus the business need is the standard procedure when a requirement violates security policy.

53
MCQmedium

A security engineer is analyzing a report from a SAST tool (e.g., Fortify). A finding is marked as 'Low Confidence'. What does this imply?

A.The finding is likely a false positive and requires manual validation.
B.The vulnerability is not exploitable.
C.null
D.The vulnerability is critical but rare.
E.The tool failed to scan the file.
AnswerA

Confidence levels represent the tool's certainty in the vulnerability's existence.

Why this answer

Low confidence findings are often heuristics-based and carry a high probability of being false positives, requiring manual verification.

54
MCQmedium

Your team is using OWASP SAMM to evaluate security maturity. Which category specifically addresses the process of ensuring that security activities are integrated into the SDLC?

A.Governance.
B.Implementation.
C.Verification.
D.Operations.
AnswerA

Governance defines the security activities integrated into the management lifecycle.

Why this answer

The 'Governance' business function in SAMM includes the 'Strategy & Metrics', 'Policy & Compliance', and 'Education & Guidance' practices, which focus on SDLC integration.

55
MCQhard

You are using the 'Complete Mediation' principle in your system's access control design. What does this require?

A.Granting permanent access to all authenticated users.
B.Checking authorization only at login.
C.Checking authorization for every access request.
D.Relying on the user to request access when needed.
E.Caching permissions to reduce latency.
AnswerC

Every request must be checked against the policy.

Why this answer

Complete mediation requires that every access request to every object must be checked for authorization, with no caching or bypassing allowed.

56
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following design choices mitigate the risk of 'Broken Object-Level Authorization' (BOLA)?

Select 2 answers
A.Using sequentially incrementing IDs (e.g., 1, 2, 3) for all resources.
B.Relying on the frontend to hide sensitive objects.
C.Using random, non-predictable UUIDs for resource identifiers.
D.Using base64 encoded strings for all database IDs.
E.Verifying that the user ID in the session owns the requested resource ID.
AnswersC, E

Makes resource discovery difficult.

Why this answer

Checking ownership on every request and using non-predictable resource IDs are key BOLA defenses.

57
MCQhard

You are performing a fuzzing campaign on a REST API. The API uses JSON Web Tokens (JWT). What is the most effective way to include these tokens in the fuzzer input?

A.null
B.Configure the fuzzer to inject a fresh, valid JWT in the Authorization header before each request.
C.Use the same JWT throughout the entire fuzzing duration.
D.Exclude the Authorization header from the fuzzing target.
E.Disable authentication for the entire API during the test.
AnswerB

JWTs usually have short expiration times; the fuzzer must handle this.

Why this answer

The fuzzer must be configured to refresh the JWT periodically or use a script to inject a valid token into the Authorization header for every request.

58
MCQhard

You are auditing your software deployment process. Which practice is best to prevent 'Dependency Confusion' attacks where malicious packages are pulled from public registries instead of internal ones?

A.Run all build processes in an isolated network segment without internet access.
B.Define specific versions for all dependencies in a lock file and use a private repository with scoped registries.
C.Use only open-source software libraries.
D.Regularly scan the public registries for malicious packages.
AnswerB

Lock files and scoped registries ensure you are pulling the exact, intended code from trusted locations.

Why this answer

Configuring a private repository manager (like JFrog Artifactory) to prioritize internal scopes and block external lookup for those namespaces prevents dependency confusion.

59
MCQmedium

You are designing a system to comply with 'Fail-Safe Defaults'. Which configuration best reflects this?

A.If the authorization check fails, explicitly deny the request.
B.If the authentication service is down, allow access to all users.
C.If the firewall fails, allow all traffic to pass through.
D.Default all new user accounts to 'Administrator' role.
E.If the load balancer times out, bypass the application logic.
AnswerA

This is 'fail-closed', which is a secure default.

Why this answer

Fail-safe defaults mean that if an error or crash occurs, the system defaults to the most secure state (e.g., access denied).

60
MCQmedium

You are reviewing a Node.js web application. Which secure coding practice directly mitigates Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) when rendering user-supplied data in an EJS template?

A.Using <%- %> tags for all variables
B.Disabling the template engine
C.Using <%= %> tags for user data
D.Implementing a global regex filter
AnswerC

The <%= tag performs HTML entity escaping on the rendered content.

Why this answer

Escaping output is the primary defense against XSS; EJS uses the <%= %> tag for escaped output, which handles special characters.

61
MCQhard

Which design activity helps identify security requirements during the earliest phases of the SDLC?

A.Penetration testing.
B.Abuse case modeling.
C.Incident response planning.
D.Static code analysis.
AnswerB

Defining how a feature can be abused helps specify security controls.

Why this answer

Abuse case modeling explores how an attacker might misuse a feature, which helps define security requirements.

62
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key component of a 'Secure Software Deployment' plan?

A.A list of all developers who worked on the release.
B.A rollback procedure that allows returning to a known good state.
C.A plan for decommissioning all previous versions of the software.
D.An automated script that changes the administrator password on every server.
AnswerB

Rollback capability is a foundational requirement for operational reliability and security.

Why this answer

A deployment plan must include a rollback procedure in case a critical vulnerability or failure is discovered after release.

63
MCQmedium

You are implementing CI/CD pipelines using Jenkins. You need to ensure that container images are scanned for vulnerabilities before they are promoted to production. Which tool integration is most effective for this stage?

A.Configure a post-deployment notification to Slack using a webhook.
B.Manually verify image signatures using Docker Content Trust after deployment.
C.Enable Jenkins 'Build periodically' to scan images in the registry.
D.Use the Jenkins Snyk Security plugin to trigger a scan during the image build step.
AnswerD

Snyk enables automated gates that stop deployment if vulnerabilities meet a defined threshold.

Why this answer

Integrating a tool like Anchore or Snyk directly into the Jenkins pipeline allows for blocking builds that contain known critical vulnerabilities.

64
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary benefits of integrating SAST into the early stages of the SDLC?

Select 2 answers
A.Reduced developer education.
B.Immediate feedback on secure coding patterns.
C.Early identification of vulnerabilities.
D.Elimination of all false positives.
E.Automation of penetration testing.
AnswersB, C

Developers get immediate results as they write code.

Why this answer

SAST early in the SDLC reduces the cost of remediation and improves developer awareness of secure coding practices.

65
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are effective methods to prevent SQL Injection in a database-driven application?

Select 3 answers
A.Using stored procedures with dynamic SQL
B.Using parameterized queries
C.Relying solely on client-side validation
D.Applying the principle of least privilege to the database user
E.Strict input validation based on allow-lists
AnswersB, D, E

Correct - separates code from data.

Why this answer

Parameterized queries, input validation, and the principle of least privilege are core defenses against SQLi.

66
MCQhard

An organization is adopting the SLSA (Supply-chain Levels for Software Artifacts) framework. To achieve Level 3, what requirement must be met regarding the build platform?

A.The code must be written in a memory-safe language.
B.The build platform must be hardened and provenance must be authenticated.
C.The project must have 100% open-source components.
D.All developers must use a Linux-based OS.
AnswerB

Non-falsifiable provenance is a core requirement of SLSA Level 3.

Why this answer

SLSA Level 3 requires the build platform to be 'hardened' and 'non-falsifiable', meaning the build integrity is protected and the provenance is cryptographically signed.

67
MCQmedium

You are implementing 'Psychological Acceptability' in a new multi-factor authentication system. Which design choice is most appropriate?

A.Providing zero feedback to users during the login process.
B.Requiring a 64-character password changed every 24 hours.
C.Using a user-friendly mobile app push notification for authentication.
D.Disabling the ability for users to reset their own passwords.
E.Forcing users to solve a complex CAPTCHA at every login attempt.
AnswerC

This is easy and intuitive, increasing compliance.

Why this answer

Psychological acceptability ensures that security measures are easy for users to understand and use, so they don't circumvent them.

68
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items should be included in a 'Security Requirements Traceability Matrix'?

Select 3 answers
A.Associated project feature or module
B.Test case or verification method
C.The developer's annual salary
D.Unique security requirement ID
E.The vendor's hardware serial numbers
AnswersA, B, D

This maps the security requirement to the actual software component.

Why this answer

A matrix needs to link the requirement, its implementation, and the verification method used to confirm it.

69
MCQeasy

A supplier asks you to describe your 'Supply Chain Security Policy'. What is the most appropriate foundational element to include?

A.Requirement for 100% code coverage in unit tests.
B.Requirement to use proprietary code only.
C.Requirement for an SBOM for all delivered software.
D.Requirement for the supplier to perform a full system wipe.
AnswerC

Transparency is the baseline for third-party risk management.

Why this answer

A secure supply chain policy must start with a requirement for software transparency, typically in the form of an SBOM for all delivered software.

70
Multi-Selectmedium

When designing a test case for a secure authentication bypass, which THREE areas should be covered?

Select 3 answers
A.Testing the password recovery/reset workflow.
B.Changing the application's CSS file.
C.Manipulating session cookies.
D.Testing the application's color scheme.
E.Brute forcing account credentials.
AnswersA, C, E

Often overlooked as a bypass vector.

Why this answer

Authentication bypass tests focus on session manipulation, password reset flows, and credential brute forcing.

71
MCQeasy

When conducting a static code analysis for a C++ application, which memory management error is best detected by tools like Fortify or Coverity?

A.Database connection timeout
B.Business logic flaws
C.Buffer overflow
D.Zero-day authentication bypass
AnswerC

Static analysis tools scan for dangerous function calls like strcpy or gets that cause buffer overflows.

Why this answer

Static analysis tools are highly effective at identifying buffer overflows, which are common in C++ due to manual memory management.

72
MCQeasy

Which role is typically responsible for identifying security requirements during the initial phases of the software development lifecycle?

A.Project Manager.
B.Software Tester.
C.Security Architect.
D.Database Administrator.
AnswerC

This role translates security requirements into technical architecture.

Why this answer

The Security Architect is responsible for ensuring security principles are designed into the system architecture from the start.

73
MCQhard

You are determining compliance requirements for a software product that handles PII. Which requirement is essential for demonstrating 'Privacy by Design'?

A.Use the largest possible key size
B.Implement full data retention
C.Outsource all PII processing
D.Enforce data minimization throughout the lifecycle
AnswerD

Data minimization is a foundational element of privacy by design under regulations like GDPR.

Why this answer

Data minimization is a core principle of Privacy by Design, ensuring only necessary data is collected.

74
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE categories are typically used to classify security requirements?

Select 3 answers
A.Confidentiality
B.Project Profitability
C.Integrity
D.Availability
E.Marketing Appeal
AnswersA, C, D

Protecting data privacy is a core requirement category.

Why this answer

Security requirements are generally grouped by confidentiality, integrity, and availability (the CIA triad).

75
MCQmedium

You are evaluating container orchestration security. What is the purpose of a 'Sidecar Container' in a Service Mesh?

A.To act as a backup for the main container if it crashes.
B.To intercept and manage network traffic to enforce mTLS and authorization policies.
C.To provide additional CPU and memory resources to the main container.
D.To store persistent data for the main application.
AnswerB

The sidecar pattern allows for transparent security enforcement at the network layer.

Why this answer

Sidecars, such as those in Istio or Linkerd, handle security concerns like mTLS, authentication, and logging so the main application code does not have to.

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