Question 244 of 529
Security and Risk ManagementeasyMultiple ChoiceObjective-mapped

Quick Answer

The answer is to immediately remediate the SQL injection vulnerability by tuning the WAF and applying vendor patches. This is correct because the vulnerability presents a high-likelihood, critical-impact risk that directly exceeds the board-approved risk appetite for financial loss, which only accepts low residual risks in that category. In a CISSP risk treatment selection scenario, you must map each risk’s residual level against the stated risk appetite before choosing a treatment—remediation is mandatory when risk exceeds tolerance, while acceptance, transfer, or avoidance are only appropriate for risks already within acceptable thresholds. The exam tests your ability to prioritize based on risk appetite rather than treating all risks equally; a common trap is to focus on low-likelihood risks like the power supply failure or outdated encryption, which appear urgent but fall within the organization’s stated tolerance. Remember the mnemonic “RAPID”: Remediate if risk Appetite is exceeded, then Proceed to lower-priority Items based on impact and likelihood.

CISSP Security and Risk Management Practice Question

This CISSP practice question tests your understanding of security and risk management. Compare every option against the stated constraints before choosing — the best answer satisfies all requirements, not just the most obvious one. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.

A large financial institution is finalizing its annual risk treatment plan based on a recent enterprise risk assessment. The risk appetite statement approved by the board specifies that the organization will accept only low residual risks for financial loss, but is willing to accept moderate risks for reputational damage if cost-benefit justifies. The risk register includes the following findings: 1) A critical SQL injection vulnerability in the online banking portal with high likelihood and critical impact; current controls include a web application firewall (WAF) that is not fully tuned. 2) Use of outdated TLS 1.0 encryption on internal communications between data centers; likelihood is medium, impact is low. 3) Lack of background checks for third-party vendors with access to sensitive data; likelihood is low, impact is moderate. 4) A single point of failure in the primary data center's power supply; likelihood is low, impact is critical. 5) An incident response plan that has not been tested in two years; likelihood is medium, impact is moderate. The CISO must prioritize actions for the upcoming quarter. What is the most appropriate first step?

Clue words in this question

Noticing these words before you look at the options changes how you read each choice.

  • Clue: "first"

    Why it matters: Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.

  • Clue: "primary"

    Why it matters: Asks for the main purpose or function, not a secondary benefit. Eliminate answers that describe side-effects or partial functions.

Question 1easymultiple choice
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Answer choices

Why each option matters

Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.

Correct answer & explanation

Immediately remediate the SQL injection vulnerability by tuning the WAF and applying vendor patches.

Option A is correct. The SQL injection vulnerability has high likelihood and critical impact, resulting in high risk that exceeds the risk appetite for financial loss. Immediate patching or other remediation is necessary to bring the risk to an acceptable level. Option B (accept outdated encryption) is possible but not the highest priority. Option C (transfer single point of failure) is valid but power supply risk is low likelihood; insurance may not be the first step. Option D (outsource incident response) is not the most urgent; testing the plan is less critical than addressing a high-risk vulnerability.

Key principle: NAT direction and interface roles matter as much as the IP address mapping. Inside/outside designation controls which traffic is translated.

Answer analysis

Option-by-option breakdown

For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.

  • Transfer the single point of failure risk by purchasing business interruption insurance.

    Why it's wrong here

    Insurance is a valid treatment but the likelihood is low; immediate remediation of high-risk vulnerability takes precedence.

  • Immediately remediate the SQL injection vulnerability by tuning the WAF and applying vendor patches.

    Why this is correct

    This addresses the highest risk with critical impact and likelihood, aligning with risk appetite.

    Clue confirmation

    The clue words "first", "primary" in the question point toward this answer.

    Related concept

    Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.

  • Outsource incident response to a managed security service provider (MSSP) to compensate for the untested plan.

    Why it's wrong here

    Outsourcing may improve incident response but the current high-risk vulnerability must be addressed first.

  • Accept the risk of outdated TLS 1.0 encryption because impact is low.

    Why it's wrong here

    While acceptable, this is not the highest priority compared to the SQL injection risk.

Common exam traps

Common exam trap: NAT rules depend on direction and matching traffic

NAT is not only about the public address. The inside/outside interface roles and the ACL or rule that matches traffic are just as important.

Detailed technical explanation

How to think about this question

NAT questions usually test address translation, overload/PAT behaviour, static mappings and whether the right traffic is being translated. Read the interface direction and address terms carefully.

KKey Concepts to Remember

  • Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
  • PAT allows many inside hosts to share one public address using ports.
  • Inside local and inside global describe the private and translated addresses.
  • NAT ACLs identify traffic for translation, not always security filtering.

TExam Day Tips

  • Identify inside and outside interfaces first.
  • Check whether the scenario needs static NAT, dynamic NAT or PAT.
  • Do not confuse NAT matching ACLs with normal packet-filtering intent.

Key takeaway

NAT direction and interface roles matter as much as the IP address mapping. Inside/outside designation controls which traffic is translated.

Real-world example

How this comes up in practice

A developer is choosing between AES-256 (symmetric) and RSA-2048 (asymmetric) for encrypting a large file that will be sent to a partner. Symmetric encryption is fast but requires key exchange; asymmetric is slower but solves the key distribution problem. A hybrid approach — encrypt the file with AES, encrypt the AES key with RSA — is standard. Questions like this test whether you understand when each approach applies.

What to study next

Got this wrong? Here's your next step.

Review the four NAT address types (inside local, inside global, outside local, outside global), PAT port overload, and static vs dynamic NAT use cases. Then practise related CISSP NAT questions on configuration and troubleshooting.

Related practice questions

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FAQ

Questions learners often ask

What does this CISSP question test?

Security and Risk Management — This question tests Security and Risk Management — Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address..

What is the correct answer to this question?

The correct answer is: Immediately remediate the SQL injection vulnerability by tuning the WAF and applying vendor patches. — Option A is correct. The SQL injection vulnerability has high likelihood and critical impact, resulting in high risk that exceeds the risk appetite for financial loss. Immediate patching or other remediation is necessary to bring the risk to an acceptable level. Option B (accept outdated encryption) is possible but not the highest priority. Option C (transfer single point of failure) is valid but power supply risk is low likelihood; insurance may not be the first step. Option D (outsource incident response) is not the most urgent; testing the plan is less critical than addressing a high-risk vulnerability.

What should I do if I get this CISSP question wrong?

Review the four NAT address types (inside local, inside global, outside local, outside global), PAT port overload, and static vs dynamic NAT use cases. Then practise related CISSP NAT questions on configuration and troubleshooting.

Are there clue words in this question I should notice?

Yes — watch for: "first", "primary". Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.

What is the key concept behind this question?

Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.

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Same concept, more angles

3 more ways this is tested on CISSP

These questions test the same concept from different angles. Work through them to make sure you can recognise it however the exam phrases it.

Variation 1. During a risk assessment, a critical asset has a vulnerability with a CVSS score of 9.0. Which risk treatment strategy is most appropriate if the cost to mitigate exceeds the asset's value?

hard
  • A.Transfer
  • B.Acceptance
  • C.Avoidance
  • D.Mitigation

Why A: Transferring the risk (e.g., via insurance) is appropriate when mitigation cost exceeds asset value. Acceptance would leave the organization exposed to high risk. Avoidance would mean eliminating the asset or activity, which may not be feasible. Mitigation is too costly.

Variation 2. An organization's risk assessment identified a vulnerability in a legacy system that cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports it. The system processes sensitive customer data and is critical for daily operations. The risk is rated as high likelihood and high impact. The organization has a moderate risk appetite. Which risk treatment is most appropriate?

medium
  • A.Transfer the risk through cyber insurance
  • B.Avoid the risk by decommissioning the system
  • C.Accept the risk
  • D.Mitigate by implementing compensating controls

Why D: Since the system cannot be replaced immediately, implementing compensating controls (e.g., network segmentation, strict access controls, monitoring) reduces the risk to an acceptable level. Accepting a high risk is not advisable when it exceeds appetite. Cyber insurance does not protect against data breach consequences adequately. Decommissioning would disrupt critical operations.

Variation 3. A company's risk assessment identifies a high likelihood of a data breach due to outdated encryption standards. The cost to upgrade encryption is $50,000, and the estimated loss from a breach is $2,000,000. The risk manager decides to implement the upgrade. Which risk treatment option is being applied?

hard
  • A.Risk acceptance
  • B.Risk avoidance
  • C.Risk enhancement
  • D.Risk transfer
  • E.Risk mitigation

Why E: The risk manager is applying risk mitigation by implementing the encryption upgrade to reduce the likelihood or impact of a data breach. This directly addresses the identified risk by deploying a stronger cryptographic control, such as moving from AES-128 to AES-256 or replacing deprecated TLS 1.0/1.1 with TLS 1.3, thereby lowering the residual risk to an acceptable level.

Last reviewed: Jun 24, 2026

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This CISSP practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISC2 certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the CISSP exam.