The answer is to implement patch management for the exploited vulnerability. This is the immediate next step after a privilege escalation finding because the root cause is almost always a technical flaw—such as a missing security update for a known CVE or a misconfigured Active Directory ACL—that must be remediated to close the attack vector. On the CISSP exam, this question tests your ability to prioritize vulnerability remediation over reactive measures; a common trap is choosing incident response or re-imaging, but those steps are premature without evidence of active compromise. Remember the memory tip: “Patch first, panic later”—the finding signals a broken lock, not a burglar inside, so fix the lock before calling the police.
CISSP Security Assessment and Testing Practice Question
This CISSP practice question tests your understanding of security assessment and testing. This is a configuration task: choose the command set that satisfies every stated requirement. Small differences — like 'secret' vs 'password' or 'transport input ssh' vs 'all' — change whether the answer is correct. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
A security team is evaluating the results of a penetration test. The test revealed that a low-privileged user could escalate privileges to domain administrator. This is a critical finding. Which of the following should be the immediate next step?
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Implement patch management for the exploited vulnerability
Option D is correct because the immediate priority after discovering a privilege escalation vulnerability is to remediate the root cause—typically a missing patch or misconfiguration—to prevent further exploitation. In a penetration test context, the finding indicates a technical flaw (e.g., a missing security update for CVE-2021-42287 or a misconfigured Active Directory ACL) that must be patched or hardened first. Full incident response (A) is premature without evidence of active compromise, and re-imaging (B) or account termination (C) are reactive measures that do not address the underlying vulnerability.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
✗
Conduct a full incident response
Why it's wrong here
Incident response is for active compromises; this is a vulnerability found during testing.
✗
Re-image all affected systems
Why it's wrong here
Re-imaging may not address the vulnerability if it persists in the software.
✗
Terminate the user's account
Why it's wrong here
Terminating the account does not fix the underlying vulnerability.
✓
Implement patch management for the exploited vulnerability
Why this is correct
Patching the vulnerability eliminates the attack vector.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
The trap here is that candidates confuse a penetration test finding (a vulnerability) with an active security incident, leading them to choose incident response (A) instead of the correct remediation step (D), which is to patch the exploited vulnerability first.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
Privilege escalation in Active Directory often leverages flaws like Kerberos S4U2Self abuse (e.g., CVE-2021-42287) or misconfigured ACLs on adminSDHolder objects, allowing a low-privileged user to gain domain admin rights via a crafted TGS request. The immediate fix involves applying Microsoft's security patch (e.g., KB5008602 for CVE-2021-42287) or correcting the ACL inheritance, not just resetting the user's password. In real-world scenarios, failing to patch first can lead to lateral movement within minutes, as tools like BloodHound and Rubeus automate the exploitation chain.
KKey Concepts to Remember
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Find the constraint that changes the correct option.
Eliminate answers that are true in general but not in this case.
TExam Day Tips
→Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
→Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A security team runs a vulnerability scan on a web application and discovers an unpatched SQL injection flaw. The team prioritises remediation by CVSS score — critical flaws are patched within 24 hours, high within 7 days. Questions like this test whether you understand vulnerability management processes, scanning tools, and remediation prioritisation.
Related glossary terms
Concepts from this question explained
These glossary pages explain the core terms tested in this CISSP question in full detail.
Security Assessment and Testing — This question tests Security Assessment and Testing — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Implement patch management for the exploited vulnerability — Option D is correct because the immediate priority after discovering a privilege escalation vulnerability is to remediate the root cause—typically a missing patch or misconfiguration—to prevent further exploitation. In a penetration test context, the finding indicates a technical flaw (e.g., a missing security update for CVE-2021-42287 or a misconfigured Active Directory ACL) that must be patched or hardened first. Full incident response (A) is premature without evidence of active compromise, and re-imaging (B) or account termination (C) are reactive measures that do not address the underlying vulnerability.
What should I do if I get this CISSP question wrong?
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
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Question Discussion
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