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CCNA Security Planning And Engineering Questions

53 questions · Security Planning And Engineering · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

When mapping security requirements from ISO/IEC 27001 to a cloud-native architecture, you are configuring Azure Policy to ensure all newly created storage accounts have 'Secure transfer required' enabled. What is the most efficient way to achieve this enforcement?

A.Configure Microsoft Defender for Cloud to trigger an alert on insecure storage.
B.Create an Azure Policy assignment with a 'Deny' effect for the 'Storage account secure transfer' definition.
C.Set up a Logic App to delete non-compliant storage accounts.
D.Use Azure Blueprint to deploy a hardened ARM template.
AnswerB

The 'Deny' effect prevents the creation of any storage account that does not meet the specified security criteria.

Why this answer

Azure Policy is the native tool for policy enforcement; 'DeployIfNotExists' or 'Deny' effects prevent non-compliant resources from existing.

2
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions should be taken when decommissioning an information system to ensure data security?

Select 3 answers
A.Archive all data to a public cloud bucket.
B.Remove the system from the network and inventory.
C.Sanitize or destroy the storage media.
D.Update the organizational asset inventory.
E.Format the hard drive as a quick process.
AnswersB, C, D

Ensures no lingering access or ghost assets.

Why this answer

Clearing or purging the storage media, destroying the media if necessary, and auditing the decommissioning logs are key steps.

3
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors are essential when performing a threat model using the STRIDE methodology?

Select 3 answers
A.Conducting a public relations campaign.
B.Automating the software build process.
C.Designing effective security countermeasures.
D.Identifying potential STRIDE categories for each component.
E.Mapping threats to system components.
AnswersC, D, E

Threat modeling is useless without remediation planning.

Why this answer

STRIDE (Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege) requires identifying threats, mapping them to system components, and planning countermeasures.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO security standards are most relevant for an ISSEP designing a secure payment processing system?

Select 2 answers
A.HIPAA.
B.GDPR.
C.ISO/IEC 27001.
D.PCI DSS.
E.OSHA.
AnswersC, D

The global standard for information security management.

Why this answer

PCI DSS is the mandatory standard for payment processing, and ISO 27001 is a foundational security management framework.

5
MCQhard

A system uses SAML 2.0 for SSO. To prevent SAML assertion tampering, what is the mandatory cryptographic requirement?

A.The IdP must digitally sign the SAML assertion.
B.Use a shared secret between the IdP and SP.
C.Use HTTPS with TLS 1.3 for transport.
D.The Service Provider must encrypt the assertion.
AnswerA

Digital signatures are required to prevent tampering.

Why this answer

SAML assertions must be digitally signed by the Identity Provider (IdP) to ensure integrity and authenticity.

6
MCQeasy

When applying NIST SP 800-53 controls to a new information system, which step occurs immediately after the 'Categorize' process in the RMF?

A.Implement security and privacy controls.
B.Monitor security and privacy controls.
C.Assess security and privacy controls.
D.Select security and privacy controls.
AnswerD

Control selection is the direct next step after defining the system impact level.

Why this answer

The RMF sequence is: Categorize, Select, Implement, Assess, Authorize, Monitor. Selecting controls follows categorization.

7
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is conducting a gap analysis between a legacy system and ISO/IEC 27001 requirements. The system lacks automated audit logging. Which control implementation is most effective for meeting the 'Logging and Monitoring' requirements?

A.Implement centralized log aggregation using a SIEM solution with automated alerting.
B.Redirect all logs to a local write-only file system on each server.
C.Disable unnecessary services to reduce the attack surface.
D.Require manual review of system event logs by administrators weekly.
AnswerA

This satisfies the requirement for monitoring and auditability in ISO 27001.

Why this answer

Centralized log management (like a SIEM) allows for aggregation, alerting, and forensic analysis, which is fundamental to ISO 27001 compliance.

8
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are recognized categories of security controls in NIST SP 800-53?

Select 3 answers
A.Operational.
B.Physical.
C.Financial.
D.Technical.
E.Management.
AnswersA, D, E

One of the three core NIST categories.

Why this answer

The three control categories are Management, Operational, and Technical.

9
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be included in a system's security architecture documentation?

Select 2 answers
A.Network topology diagrams.
B.Marketing brochures for the software.
C.Office building blueprints.
D.Data flow diagrams.
E.Employee vacation schedules.
AnswersA, D

Critical for identifying security boundaries.

Why this answer

Network diagrams and data flow diagrams are essential for understanding the security posture of a system.

10
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items should be included in an Incident Response (IR) plan for an information system?

Select 3 answers
A.Communication and notification procedures.
B.The history of the company logo.
C.Roles and responsibilities of the IR team.
D.The CEO's personal home phone number.
E.Procedures for incident detection and analysis.
AnswersA, C, E

Essential for coordination with stakeholders.

Why this answer

An IR plan must include roles and responsibilities, specific procedures for different attack types, and communication/reporting protocols.

11
MCQhard

During a system migration, you need to ensure integrity of transferred data. What is the best cryptographic method?

A.Use TLS 1.0.
B.Use a simple CRC32 checksum.
C.Use HMAC for the data stream.
D.Use base64 encoding.
AnswerC

HMAC verifies the integrity and sender authenticity.

Why this answer

Using HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code) with a shared key ensures both integrity and authenticity of the data stream.

12
MCQhard

When designing a secure multi-tenant cloud application, what is the best way to ensure tenant data isolation?

A.Use a single global admin account for all tenants.
B.Implement row-level security (RLS) in the database for each tenant.
C.Rely on application-level filtering.
D.Use a shared database with a common schema for all tenants.
AnswerB

RLS is a robust logical control for tenant isolation.

Why this answer

Row-level security (RLS) within a database or using separate database instances per tenant ensures that one tenant cannot access another's data.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

When architecting a system to meet ISO 27001 requirements for secure system engineering, which TWO of the following design principles should be prioritized for protecting sensitive data at rest?

Select 2 answers
A.Enforcing strict access control policies for data access.
B.Implementing strong encryption for data storage.
C.Hosting all data on a single centralized server to simplify management.
D.Using a single administrative account for all data operations.
E.Disabling all logging to reduce storage overhead.
AnswersA, B

Essential for ensuring only authorized personnel access data.

Why this answer

Encryption and access control (least privilege) are fundamental controls required by ISO 27001 for data protection.

14
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is evaluating the security of an API gateway. To implement OAuth 2.0 effectively, which flow should be recommended for a native mobile application?

A.Authorization Code Flow with PKCE.
B.Client Credentials Flow.
C.Resource Owner Password Credentials Flow.
D.Implicit Flow.
AnswerA

PKCE provides the necessary security for public clients like mobile apps.

Why this answer

The Authorization Code Flow with PKCE (Proof Key for Code Exchange) is the industry-standard security best practice for mobile applications to prevent authorization code interception.

15
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is configuring an AWS S3 bucket. What policy setting best prevents public access while allowing access from a specific VPC?

A.Enable 'Block Public Access' and ACLs.
B.Bucket Policy with 'Condition' element matching 'aws:SourceVpc'.
C.Create an IAM role for every user in the VPC.
D.Use an S3 Pre-signed URL.
AnswerB

This restricts bucket access exclusively to the specified VPC.

Why this answer

Using an S3 Bucket Policy with a 'Condition' block that checks the 'aws:SourceVpc' key is the standard way to restrict access to a private network.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

You are designing an incident response architecture for a cloud environment. Which TWO of the following configurations are critical for ensuring effective forensic readiness according to NIST SP 800-61?

Select 2 answers
A.Using local disk storage for all incident response artifacts.
B.Centralizing logs in a read-only security account.
C.Enabling verbose debug mode on all production services.
D.Enabling immutable logging for all system API calls.
E.Configuring short retention periods for all system logs to save cost.
AnswersB, D

Centralization protects logs from being deleted or modified by attackers.

Why this answer

Forensic readiness requires high-fidelity, tamper-proof logs and centralized aggregation to ensure evidence integrity.

17
MCQmedium

An ISSEP architect is designing a system under NIST SP 800-53 controls and needs to implement an automated mechanism to enforce the principle of least privilege for non-privileged accounts. Which configuration in an AWS environment best aligns with the 'AC-6' control requirement?

A.Use AWS Trusted Advisor to identify unused IAM credentials.
B.Apply AWS IAM Permission Boundaries to define the maximum permissions for user roles.
C.Enable AWS CloudTrail organization-level logging.
D.Implement AWS Config rules for S3 bucket public access blocks.
AnswerB

Permission Boundaries are the standard tool for limiting the scope of permissions that a user or role can be granted.

Why this answer

AWS IAM Permission Boundaries allow an architect to set the maximum permissions an identity-based policy can grant, effectively enforcing least privilege at scale without managing individual inline policies.

18
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is designing a secure storage solution for a database. To ensure data integrity, which mechanism is most reliable?

A.Implement continuous file integrity monitoring (FIM) with cryptographic hashing.
B.Use RAID 10 for storage redundancy.
C.Require multi-factor authentication for database access.
D.Perform daily backups to an offsite location.
AnswerA

FIM provides detection of unauthorized file changes.

Why this answer

Hashing data periodically and comparing it against a known good baseline is the most reliable way to detect unauthorized modifications (integrity failure).

19
MCQmedium

You are conducting a threat modeling exercise using the STRIDE methodology. A specific service-to-service communication path lacks mutual TLS. Which STRIDE category does this vulnerability primarily fall under?

A.Denial of Service
B.Spoofing
C.Information Disclosure
D.Elevation of Privilege
AnswerB

Without mTLS, the identity of the communicating entity cannot be verified, allowing for spoofing.

Why this answer

STRIDE 'Tampering' or 'Spoofing' can apply, but lack of mTLS primarily allows for identity spoofing where one service claims to be another without cryptographic proof.

20
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered critical components of a Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

Select 2 answers
A.Patching the OS of the build server.
B.Threat Modeling.
C.Using a dark theme for the IDE.
D.Final penetration testing before release.
E.Security requirements analysis.
AnswersB, E

Threat modeling identifies risks early in the design.

Why this answer

Security requirements analysis and threat modeling are fundamental proactive steps in an SDLC.

21
MCQeasy

What is the correct order of operations when handling a vulnerability in a production system according to the RMF?

A.Remediate, Identify, Assess Risk, Verify.
B.Identify, Assess Risk, Remediate, Verify.
C.Identify, Remediate, Assess Risk, Authorize.
D.Authorize, Identify, Remediate, Verify.
AnswerB

This follows standard vulnerability management workflow.

Why this answer

Identify (scan), analyze (risk), remediate, and verify (scan again).

22
MCQhard

You are designing a secure data enclave for highly sensitive research data. What is the most robust method to enforce physical and logical separation?

A.Shared storage with ACLs.
B.Physical air-gapping and hardware-level encryption with HSMs.
C.VLAN tagging and firewall rules.
D.Container isolation with restricted network access.
AnswerB

This provides both physical and cryptographic assurance.

Why this answer

Air-gapping (physical) combined with Hardware Security Modules (logical) provides the highest level of isolation for sensitive data.

23
MCQhard

During the design of a PKI hierarchy for a highly classified system, the ISSEP needs to ensure that the Root CA is kept offline. What is the most appropriate way to sign the Subordinate CA request?

A.Expose the Root CA via a restricted management port in the firewall.
B.Configure a secure VPN tunnel between the Subordinate CA and the Root CA to exchange the CSR.
C.Use an HSM to automatically sign the request from the Subordinate CA.
D.Transfer the CSR via air-gapped media to the offline Root CA, sign, and return the certificate.
AnswerD

This preserves the integrity of the Root CA by keeping it air-gapped.

Why this answer

To maintain an offline Root CA, the CSR from the Subordinate CA must be transferred via secure, out-of-band medium to the offline environment, signed, and the resulting certificate returned.

24
MCQeasy

Which document is used to track and manage vulnerabilities identified during the assessment phase of the RMF?

A.Risk Management Framework (RMF) Guide.
B.System Security Plan (SSP).
C.Security Assessment Report (SAR).
D.POA&M (Plan of Action and Milestones).
AnswerD

The POA&M is the standard NIST artifact for tracking remediation.

Why this answer

The POA&M (Plan of Action and Milestones) is the document used to track security weaknesses and the progress of remediation efforts.

25
MCQhard

An ISSEP is designing a secure CI/CD pipeline. Which technique is most effective for preventing secrets (e.g., API keys) from being committed to the source code repository?

A.Rotate all secrets after every deployment.
B.Use environment variables for all configuration.
C.Delete the repository history periodically.
D.Implement pre-commit hooks to scan for patterns of secrets.
AnswerD

This prevents secrets from entering the repository at the source.

Why this answer

Pre-commit hooks and automated secret scanning tools (e.g., git-secrets or GitHub Advanced Security) are the most effective preventive controls.

26
MCQhard

When configuring AWS Security Groups for a multi-tier application architecture, an engineer must ensure that the web tier only communicates with the application tier on port 8080. Which configuration best adheres to the principle of Defense in Depth?

A.Set the application tier inbound rule to allow TCP 8080 from 0.0.0.0/0.
B.Use an IP-based rule in the application tier Security Group referencing the private IP of the web tier instances.
C.Set the application tier inbound rule to allow TCP 8080 from the specific Security Group ID of the web tier.
D.Set the application tier inbound rule to allow TCP 8080 from the CIDR block of the VPC.
AnswerC

Security Group referencing is the most secure and scalable method for inter-tier communication.

Why this answer

Referencing the Security Group ID of the web tier within the inbound rules of the application tier's Security Group ensures only traffic from authorized instances is accepted, regardless of IP changes.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO controls are recommended under NIST SP 800-53 for protecting data at rest in a high-impact system?

Select 2 answers
A.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).
B.Storing data only in the local cache.
C.Disabling all audit logging.
D.Using cleartext storage for performance.
E.AES-256 encryption.
AnswersA, E

Ensures that only authorized users access the data.

Why this answer

Encryption (AES-256) and strong access controls (RBAC) are standard for high-impact data protection.

28
MCQhard

In a cloud environment, you must ensure that VM snapshots are encrypted. What is the most effective approach?

A.Run a script to encrypt snapshots after they are created.
B.Train users to check the 'encrypt' box when taking snapshots.
C.Enable the provider-level setting to enforce encryption for all new snapshots.
D.Use an external scanner to identify and delete unencrypted snapshots.
AnswerC

Policy-based enforcement is the most secure method.

Why this answer

Configuring the account-level setting to enforce encryption on all new snapshots ensures that no unencrypted snapshots can be created by users.

29
MCQmedium

An ISSEP needs to secure inter-process communication (IPC) on a Linux host. Which feature should be configured to prevent unauthorized processes from accessing sensitive memory space?

A.Enable and configure SELinux with restrictive policies.
B.Set file permissions to 600.
C.Use a rootkit scanner.
D.Update the host kernel.
AnswerA

SELinux enforces MAC policies that restrict IPC.

Why this answer

SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) provides Mandatory Access Control (MAC) that limits process access to system resources, including memory.

30
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is configuring a WAF to mitigate OWASP Top 10 risks. Which configuration best addresses the 'Injection' category?

A.Enable 'SQL Injection' and 'Cross-Site Scripting' inspection in the WAF policy.
B.Enable 'TLS Termination' to offload encryption.
C.Enable 'Geo-blocking' to restrict access to local users only.
D.Enable 'Rate Limiting' on all incoming traffic.
AnswerA

These rules directly inspect for common injection attack vectors.

Why this answer

Configuring specific SQL Injection (SQLi) and Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) rules that inspect request bodies and query parameters is the primary method for blocking injection attacks at the WAF.

31
MCQmedium

When selecting controls for a system in a high-compliance environment, what is the best practice for tailoring?

A.Adjust the baseline controls to address the specific system environment and mission.
B.Select all controls from the highest security baseline.
C.Exclude all controls that are difficult to implement.
D.Only apply controls that are mandated by law.
AnswerA

Tailoring ensures controls are relevant and effective.

Why this answer

Tailoring involves selecting, adapting, and supplementing controls to fit the specific mission and environment, rather than applying a blanket baseline.

32
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE items are required to verify the integrity of a downloaded software package?

Select 3 answers
A.The cryptographically signed hash (e.g., .asc or .sig file).
B.The original source code repository URL.
C.The software binary file.
D.The author's public key.
E.The developer's password.
AnswersA, C, D

Used to verify the integrity and origin of the hash.

Why this answer

To verify integrity, you need the original package, the cryptographic hash of the package, and the signature or public key to verify that the hash was generated by the legitimate author.

33
MCQhard

You are designing a secure microservices architecture. To meet the 'Data at Rest' security requirements, you decide to use envelope encryption. Which sequence correctly describes the flow of managing the Data Encryption Key (DEK)?

A.Encrypt data with KEK, encrypt KEK with DEK, store KEK in HSM.
B.Encrypt data with HSM-stored master key, store master key in memory.
C.Generate new DEK for every block, store all DEKs in a database.
D.Encrypt data with DEK, encrypt DEK with KEK, store encrypted DEK with data.
AnswerD

This is the standard definition of envelope encryption used in KMS architectures.

Why this answer

Envelope encryption involves encrypting data with a DEK, then encrypting the DEK with a Key Encryption Key (KEK), storing the encrypted DEK alongside the data.

34
MCQeasy

An organization is migrating to a Zero Trust architecture as defined in NIST SP 800-207. Which component is responsible for evaluating the context of a request, such as device health and location, before granting access?

A.Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
B.Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
C.Policy Decision Point (PDP)
D.Identity Provider (IdP)
AnswerC

The PDP is the brain of the Zero Trust architecture that makes access decisions.

Why this answer

The Policy Decision Point (PDP) is the architectural component that evaluates requests against security policies and context.

35
MCQhard

A system is being designed to process PII. The requirement is to maintain data sovereignty while utilizing a hybrid cloud model. What architectural strategy best achieves this?

A.Implement a full database mirror in the cloud without encryption.
B.Migrate all data to the cloud and rely on the Cloud Service Provider's encryption-at-rest.
C.Use Cloud HSM to store keys and keep raw PII in an on-premises database.
D.Use public cloud object storage and rely on IP whitelisting.
AnswerC

Keeping the data locally and using cloud keys for processing ensures sovereignty.

Why this answer

Data at rest is kept on-premises in a sovereign zone, while ephemeral processing is performed in the cloud, utilizing encryption with customer-managed keys (CMK) stored on-premises to ensure control.

36
MCQeasy

When designing an information system architecture, what is the primary role of a System Security Plan (SSP)?

A.Document the system boundaries, security controls, and implementation details.
B.Record the results of security control assessments.
C.List the vulnerabilities found during a scan.
D.Define the business strategy for the organization.
AnswerA

This is the primary purpose of the SSP in NIST RMF.

Why this answer

The SSP is the foundational document that describes the system boundaries, security controls, and how they are implemented to satisfy requirements.

37
MCQmedium

An ISSEP must secure a server-to-server connection that currently uses plaintext LDAP. What is the recommended secure alternative?

A.Use LDAP with Kerberos binding only.
B.Use IPsec to encrypt traffic between servers.
C.Migrate to LDAPS (LDAP over TLS) on port 636.
D.Use a VPN tunnel.
AnswerC

LDAPS provides encryption for LDAP traffic.

Why this answer

LDAPS (LDAP over TLS/SSL) on port 636 is the industry-standard way to encrypt LDAP traffic.

38
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods are effective for managing cryptographic keys in a cloud architecture?

Select 2 answers
A.Deploy a dedicated Hardware Security Module (HSM).
B.Hardcode keys in the application source code.
C.Use a cloud-native Key Management Service (KMS).
D.Save keys as plain text files on the VM.
E.Store keys in environment variables.
AnswersA, C

HSMs provide the highest level of physical and logical security for keys.

Why this answer

Using a managed Key Management Service (KMS) or a Hardware Security Module (HSM) are the industry standard approaches for secure key management.

39
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is designing a secure architecture for a cloud environment using NIST SP 800-160. Which architectural pattern should the engineer prioritize to ensure the principle of Least Privilege is enforced at the service-to-service communication layer within a Kubernetes cluster?

A.Implement Istio with mTLS and AuthorizationPolicies.
B.Use the default ClusterRoleBinding for all pods.
C.Deploy all microservices into a single flat network segment.
D.Enable Kubernetes NetworkPolicies only at the namespace level.
AnswerA

Istio provides identity-based security and fine-grained access control at the application layer.

Why this answer

Using a service mesh like Istio enables mTLS and granular authorization policies (RBAC) between microservices, which is the standard implementation for least privilege in containerized environments.

40
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is architecting a secure API environment. Which strategy is most effective for throttling and preventing resource exhaustion?

A.Require an API key for every request.
B.Load balance the API across more servers.
C.Use a custom header to validate the request source.
D.Configure API Gateway rate limiting policies per user or per IP.
AnswerD

Rate limiting is the standard defense against resource exhaustion in APIs.

Why this answer

Implementing API rate limiting at the API Gateway level prevents single clients from overwhelming the backend services.

41
MCQmedium

When designing for high availability and security, what is the best use of a Load Balancer (LB) from a security perspective?

A.Automatically patch all backend servers.
B.Remove the need for host-based firewalls.
C.Encrypt all backend data at rest.
D.Act as a centralized TLS termination and traffic inspection point.
AnswerD

Centralized inspection is a standard security design pattern.

Why this answer

A Load Balancer can serve as an SSL termination point, allowing the security team to inspect traffic for malware at a single, centralized ingress point.

42
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is tasked with securing an internal web application. Which headers should be implemented to prevent clickjacking?

A.X-Content-Type-Options: nosniff.
B.X-Frame-Options: DENY or SAMEORIGIN.
C.Strict-Transport-Security: max-age=63072000.
D.X-XSS-Protection: 1; mode=block.
AnswerB

These headers instruct browsers to prevent the site from being framed.

Why this answer

The X-Frame-Options or Content-Security-Policy (CSP) with 'frame-ancestors' are the standard headers used to prevent clickjacking.

43
MCQeasy

What is the primary objective of the 'Assessment' phase in the NIST RMF?

A.Document the risk acceptance by the authorizing official.
B.Define the system's security impact level.
C.Deploy security software to endpoints.
D.Verify that security controls are implemented correctly and operating as intended.
AnswerD

Verification is the goal of assessment.

Why this answer

The Assessment phase is dedicated to determining if the selected security controls are correctly implemented and operating as intended.

44
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE elements are required in a high-security access control policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Authentication and authorization conditions.
B.Definition of roles and permissions.
C.Specification of protected resources.
D.Employee home addresses.
E.Office kitchen menu.
AnswersA, B, C

Defines the enforcement logic.

Why this answer

Access control policies must define roles (who), resources (what), and the conditions (how/when) under which access is granted.

45
MCQmedium

When implementing FIPS 140-2/-3 validated cryptography in a system, what is the most important factor to verify?

A.Ensure the vendor claims the product is FIPS compliant.
B.Ensure the product is open source.
C.Verify the module is on the NIST CMVP validated list.
D.Verify the algorithms are AES-256.
AnswerC

Certification by NIST is the only way to ensure the module meets FIPS standards.

Why this answer

The cryptographic module must be explicitly listed on the CMVP (Cryptographic Module Validation Program) validated list, not just 'based on' an algorithm.

46
Multi-Selecthard

An ISSEP professional is reviewing an architecture for compliance with NIST SP 800-160, Systems Security Engineering. Which THREE of the following activities are core to the 'Trustworthiness' objective for an engineered system?

Select 3 answers
A.Hardware-based root of trust integration.
B.Prioritizing feature release speed over security patches.
C.Iterative vulnerability assessment and remediation.
D.Continuous verification of security property enforcement.
E.Outsourcing all security monitoring to third-party providers.
AnswersA, C, D

Establishing a foundational level of trust within the hardware layer.

Why this answer

Trustworthiness is built through robust design, consistent verification, and proactive mitigation of vulnerabilities throughout the lifecycle.

47
MCQeasy

What is the primary goal of the 'Authorization' phase in the NIST RMF?

A.To patch all identified vulnerabilities.
B.To define the system's security controls.
C.For the Authorizing Official to formally accept the system's risk.
D.To set up the monitoring tools.
AnswerC

Formal risk acceptance is the key outcome of this phase.

Why this answer

The authorization phase is where the Authorizing Official (AO) reviews the security documentation and decides whether to accept the risk associated with operating the system.

48
MCQmedium

An organization is adopting ISO 27001. Which document is required to justify the inclusion or exclusion of specific controls?

A.Risk Assessment Report (RAR).
B.System Security Plan (SSP).
C.Statement of Applicability (SoA).
D.Business Impact Analysis (BIA).
AnswerC

The SoA is a core requirement for ISO 27001 certification.

Why this answer

The Statement of Applicability (SoA) is the required document in ISO 27001 that outlines which controls are applicable and provides justifications for those that are excluded.

49
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE methods can be used to ensure high availability for a database in a secure architecture?

Select 3 answers
A.Multi-region deployment.
B.Active-passive clustering.
C.Ignoring error logs.
D.Data replication to secondary instances.
E.Running the database on a single server.
AnswersA, B, D

Protects against regional service outages.

Why this answer

Active-passive failover, replication (read replicas), and multi-region deployment are the standard HA methods for databases.

50
MCQhard

In a Zero Trust architecture, what is the most critical function of a Policy Decision Point (PDP)?

A.Enforce the access decision on the network resource.
B.Monitor network traffic for anomalous behavior.
C.Store user authentication credentials.
D.Evaluate access requests based on context, identity, and policy to issue a decision.
AnswerD

This is the core definition and function of a PDP in a Zero Trust framework.

Why this answer

The PDP is the central engine that evaluates requests against security policies and context to make an 'allow' or 'deny' decision.

51
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are necessary to successfully implement Zero Trust in an existing enterprise environment?

Select 3 answers
A.Identity-based authentication.
B.Network micro-segmentation.
C.Using static IP addresses for all users.
D.Trusting all traffic behind the firewall.
E.Continuous monitoring and analytics.
AnswersA, B, E

Zero Trust assumes identity is the new perimeter.

Why this answer

Strong identity verification, micro-segmentation of the network, and continuous monitoring are the three pillars of a successful Zero Trust implementation.

52
MCQmedium

You are assessing a system for compliance with FIPS 140-3. You need to ensure that the cryptographic module being used for TLS termination on a load balancer meets specific physical security requirements. Where should you look for the validation status of the cryptographic module?

A.NIST CMVP Module Registry
B.Common Criteria Portal
C.CVE Database
D.ISO 27001 Annex A controls list
AnswerA

This registry is the definitive source for verifying if a specific cryptographic module is FIPS-validated.

Why this answer

The NIST Cryptographic Module Validation Program (CMVP) maintains the official registry of all FIPS-validated modules.

53
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF), which step involves the initial identification of security controls based on the system's impact level?

A.Implement
B.Select
C.Assess
D.Categorize
AnswerB

The Select step involves choosing the appropriate security controls for the information system.

Why this answer

Step 2 of the RMF is 'Select', where security controls are selected based on the categorization performed in Step 1.

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