Courseiva

CCNA Secure Operations Change Management And Disposal Questions

28 questions · Secure Operations Change Management And Disposal · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

You are managing a change request in ServiceNow. To ensure compliance with the RFC process for a security patch, which state transition is mandatory before implementation?

A.Transition to Standard
B.Transition to Assess
C.Transition to Closed
D.Transition to New
AnswerB

The Assess phase confirms the impact and security risk approval by the CAB.

Why this answer

The 'Assess' state in ServiceNow involves the Change Advisory Board (CAB) review, which is a mandatory control gate for security-critical changes.

2
MCQmedium

In a Kubernetes environment, you are updating a security sidecar container. Which deployment strategy ensures zero downtime while maintaining security posture?

A.Recreate
B.Canary Release
C.Blue/Green Deployment
D.RollingUpdate
AnswerD

RollingUpdate replaces pods gradually, maintaining service availability.

Why this answer

Rolling updates allow for updating pods incrementally, ensuring the security sidecar is active throughout the transition.

3
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE elements are essential in a Change Management policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Hardware shipping methods
B.Requirements for audit logging and evidence collection
C.Defined roles and responsibilities
D.A standard process flow for change requests
E.Instructions on how to write code
AnswersB, C, D

Essential for compliance and accountability.

Why this answer

A robust policy requires defined roles, a clear process flow, and mandatory audit logging to ensure accountability and compliance.

4
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE strategies are used to mitigate risk during a production software change?

Select 3 answers
A.Increasing the system clock speed
B.Phased rollout (canary deployment)
C.Sending a company-wide email notification
D.Automated rollback procedures
E.Pre-change backup of production configuration
AnswersB, D, E

Limits the blast radius by testing in a small subset first.

Why this answer

Phased rollouts, automated rollback, and canary testing are standard industry practices to limit the blast radius of a failed change.

5
MCQmedium

When conducting a security impact analysis for a system change in a Federal environment, what is the primary purpose of reviewing the FIPS 199 categorization?

A.To calculate the budget
B.To verify physical location
C.To update the system inventory
D.To determine if the security controls need re-evaluation
AnswerD

The impact level dictates the testing and assessment rigor for the change.

Why this answer

FIPS 199 defines the impact level (Low, Moderate, High), which dictates the rigor of the change management testing requirements.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions should be included in a secure decommissioning process for a physical server?

Select 2 answers
A.Sanitizing all storage media according to NIST 800-88
B.Exporting the full system logs to a public folder
C.Removing the server from the asset inventory
D.Changing the BIOS password
E.Reformatting the drive with FAT32
AnswersA, C

This is the primary method for preventing data recovery.

Why this answer

Inventory management and secure media sanitization are critical to preventing data leakage during decommissioning.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO criteria are used to determine if a change request must be reviewed by the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

Select 2 answers
A.Potential impact on system availability
B.The time of day the change is performed
C.The color of the hardware
D.Risk level associated with the change
E.The name of the lead technician
AnswersA, D

High-impact changes require board review.

Why this answer

Changes that have a significant risk or potential for wide-reaching impact must undergo CAB review to ensure proper oversight.

8
MCQeasy

Which document outlines the specific security steps to be taken when a workstation reaches its end-of-life?

A.Data Sanitization Policy
B.Password Policy
C.Incident Response Plan
D.Acceptable Use Policy
AnswerA

This document dictates the procedures for secure asset retirement.

Why this answer

The System Disposal Plan or Data Sanitization Policy outlines the specific requirements for decommissioning equipment to ensure no sensitive data remains.

9
MCQmedium

Which command line utility is used on Linux to verify the integrity of binary files during a maintenance patch update?

A.sha256sum
B.chown
C.dd
D.chmod
AnswerA

This tool is standard for verifying file integrity against known hashes.

Why this answer

sha256sum calculates a cryptographic hash that can be compared against a known good value to verify binary integrity.

10
MCQhard

You are utilizing Terraform to manage infrastructure as code. To ensure security-critical changes are not committed to production without authorization, which feature should you implement?

A.Terraform Refresh
B.Provider Aliases
C.State Locking
D.Sentinel Policy-as-Code
AnswerD

Sentinel allows automated, mandatory security checks during the plan phase.

Why this answer

Sentinel policies in Terraform Enterprise allow for Policy-as-Code, enabling automated enforcement of security rules before infrastructure is provisioned.

11
MCQmedium

You are performing a 'Sanitization' of a drive according to NIST 800-88. If the drive is 'Clear' status, what does this imply?

A.Hardware degaussing
B.Cryptographic erasure
C.Logical sanitization
D.Physical destruction
AnswerC

Clear is a logical sanitization process for user-addressable locations.

Why this answer

The 'Clear' method uses logical techniques (like overwriting) to sanitize data in user-addressable storage locations, ensuring it cannot be recovered through simple file recovery tools.

12
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a Change Advisory Board (CAB) in an ITIL-based environment?

A.To perform technical code reviews
B.To manage hardware procurement
C.To conduct system testing
D.To authorize and prioritize changes
AnswerD

The CAB provides the governance required to authorize changes.

Why this answer

The CAB is responsible for assessing, prioritizing, and authorizing changes to prevent unauthorized or risky changes from impacting the environment.

13
MCQeasy

What is the first step when preparing a system for secure disposal?

A.Inventory the assets
B.Run a virus scan
C.Physically destroy the hardware
D.Send it to recycling
AnswerA

Accurate inventory is the foundational step for any disposal lifecycle.

Why this answer

Creating an inventory ensures that all components, including peripherals and secondary storage, are accounted for prior to sanitization.

14
MCQmedium

You are reviewing a Change Management plan for an ICS (Industrial Control System). What is the most critical risk during the 'Implement' phase?

A.Operational system disruption
B.Data leakage
C.Loss of audit logs
D.Unauthorized access
AnswerA

Changes to ICS can trigger safety shutdowns or loss of process control.

Why this answer

In ICS/SCADA environments, system availability is paramount; uncoordinated changes can cause catastrophic operational failure.

15
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to wipe a decommissioned laptop hard drive. Which method meets the NIST 800-88 'Purge' standard for magnetic media?

A.Deleting partitions
B.OS reinstallation
C.Degaussing
D.File system encryption
AnswerC

Degaussing removes magnetic domains, effectively purging the data.

Why this answer

Degaussing is the only method listed that specifically aligns with the Purge standard for magnetic media by exposing the drive to a strong magnetic field.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO factors must be assessed when determining if a change is 'Emergency' versus 'Standard'?

Select 2 answers
A.Pre-authorization status of the change procedure
B.Level of risk to the production environment
C.The cost of the hardware
D.The number of users affected
E.The vendor of the software
AnswersA, B

Standard changes are pre-authorized; emergency changes are not.

Why this answer

Emergency changes are driven by urgent threats or failures, while standard changes follow a pre-approved, well-understood process.

17
MCQhard

You are managing the lifecycle of an enterprise-level cryptographic key. What is the most critical step prior to key decommissioning?

A.Sending a notification email
B.Archiving the key
C.Updating the firewall rules
D.Overwriting the key in RAM
AnswerB

Archiving is essential for potential decryption of legacy data.

Why this answer

Archiving the key is necessary to decrypt legacy data that was encrypted with the old key, otherwise, that data becomes permanently inaccessible.

18
MCQeasy

Which type of change is typically excluded from a formal Change Advisory Board review process?

A.Emergency changes
B.Security patches
C.Significant changes
D.Standard changes
AnswerD

Standard changes follow a pre-approved procedure and don't require individual CAB review.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-authorized, low-risk, and routine, allowing them to bypass the full CAB review for efficiency.

19
MCQmedium

You are decommissioning an AWS EBS volume containing sensitive data. To comply with NIST SP 800-88, which action is required after logical deletion?

A.Perform a bit-level wipe using dd
B.Schedule the deletion of the associated KMS CMK
C.Run an Amazon Inspector scan
D.Reformat the filesystem using mkfs
AnswerB

Deleting the KMS key renders the data cryptographically shredded and unrecoverable.

Why this answer

AWS performs physical destruction of the underlying storage media when a volume is deleted; however, the cryptographic erasure via AWS KMS key deletion is the standard for secure disposal in the cloud.

20
MCQhard

When managing a security-sensitive change in a regulated environment, why is 'Separation of Duties' applied to the 'Build' and 'Deploy' roles?

A.To simplify the audit process
B.To prevent unauthorized code injection
C.To reduce operational costs
D.To increase server performance
AnswerB

Separation ensures no single person controls the entire lifecycle.

Why this answer

Separation of duties prevents a single individual from introducing malicious code and deploying it into production, a critical control for integrity.

21
MCQmedium

When managing decommissioning of a cloud-native application, which document must be updated to reflect the removal of security controls?

A.User access manual
B.Help desk FAQ
C.System Security Plan (SSP)
D.Network topology diagram
AnswerC

The SSP must be updated to indicate that the system and its associated controls are retired.

Why this answer

The System Security Plan (SSP) is the authoritative document describing a system's security controls; removing a system requires updating this document to reflect the change in boundary.

22
MCQmedium

A legacy database must be decommissioned. You need to ensure the data is retrievable for 7 years for regulatory compliance. Which strategy is most secure?

A.Copy to an unencrypted thumb drive
B.Delete the database server
C.Move to WORM media
D.Store on a public cloud share
AnswerC

WORM provides integrity and satisfies long-term retention requirements.

Why this answer

Moving data to offline, immutable storage (WORM) ensures compliance with retention policies while protecting against unauthorized modification or deletion.

23
MCQmedium

You are configuring a CI/CD pipeline in GitLab to ensure security-critical changes are verified. Which mechanism ensures that only authorized engineers can merge changes to the master branch?

A.Global Runner tags
B.Pipeline schedules for automated auditing
C.Protected Branches with Merge Request approvals
D.Webhook integration with Jira
AnswerC

This feature enforces mandatory code reviews and restricts who can merge to the protected branch.

Why this answer

GitLab protected branches allow for granular permissions to restrict who can push or merge, which is a standard security control for change management.

24
MCQhard

You are configuring a secure baseline for a server migration. Which NIST SP 800-53 control category covers 'System and Services Acquisition' regarding the maintenance of security-critical configurations?

A.AU-2 Audit Events
B.SA-10 Developer Configuration Management
C.SC-8 Transmission Confidentiality
D.AC-3 Access Enforcement
AnswerB

SA-10 covers the maintenance of security-relevant configuration items.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-53 SA controls (System and Services Acquisition) specifically cover the lifecycle management, including initial configuration and security baseline maintenance.

25
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE items should be included in a Post-Implementation Review (PIR) for a security change?

Select 3 answers
A.The total budget spent on the project
B.Confirmation that no new vulnerabilities were introduced
C.Updated audit documentation
D.List of employees who didn't like the change
E.Validation of security control effectiveness
AnswersB, C, E

Assessing for regressions or new attack vectors.

Why this answer

A PIR ensures the change achieved its goal, did not introduce new vulnerabilities, and met compliance requirements.

26
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE technologies are acceptable for the secure disposal of solid-state drives (SSDs)?

Select 3 answers
A.Physical shredding
B.Formatting the partition
C.Degaussing
D.Cryptographic erasure (Sanitize command)
E.Incineration
AnswersA, D, E

Shredding to small particles is the most secure disposal method.

Why this answer

NIST 800-88 suggests physical destruction, degaussing (if permitted, though not for SSDs), or cryptographic erasure for SSDs, though physical destruction is most definitive.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO aspects of a system's lifecycle must be documented in the decommission plan?

Select 2 answers
A.The original purchase price of the equipment
B.The name of the vendor's CEO
C.Data sanitization method applied
D.The color of the server casing
E.Removal from the hardware and software inventory
AnswersC, E

Provides evidence that data was handled securely.

Why this answer

A decommissioning plan must ensure data is properly handled and that the asset is removed from all relevant inventories for regulatory compliance.

28
MCQhard

When disposing of SSDs that contain PII, why is traditional degaussing ineffective?

A.SSDs are not magnetic media
B.SSDs have internal encryption
C.SSDs are too thin
D.SSDs have wear leveling algorithms
AnswerA

SSDs use flash memory cells that do not rely on magnetic domains.

Why this answer

SSDs store data using floating gate transistors (NAND flash), which are not susceptible to magnetic fields, unlike traditional spinning disks.

Ready to test yourself?

Try a timed practice session using only Secure Operations Change Management And Disposal questions.