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CCNA Governance Risk And Compliance Questions

29 questions · Governance Risk And Compliance · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selectmedium

When establishing a Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) process, which THREE factors must be considered during the initial due diligence?

Select 3 answers
A.Vendor's physical office decor.
B.Vendor's SOC2 Type II report.
C.Vendor's marketing language.
D.Vendor's incident response plan summary.
E.Vendor's financial stability.
AnswersB, D, E

A Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 Type II report provides independent auditor assurance regarding a vendor’s security controls over a significant operational period, directly satisfying the initial due diligence constraint for verifying third-party operational and security posture. By evaluating historical control effectiveness against the Trust Services Criteria—security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy—this artifact allows organisations to rigorously assess risk before onboarding, ensuring the vendor maintains adequate safeguards for sensitive data and systems.

Why this answer

TPRM requires understanding the vendor's security posture before onboarding.

2
Multi-Selecthard

When designing a secure multi-region cloud architecture, which THREE governance aspects must be clearly defined for data residency compliance?

Select 3 answers
A.Access rights for cross-region data transfers.
B.Backup retention policies.
C.The primary domain registration provider.
D.Local marketing team access.
E.Geographic location of storage nodes.
AnswersA, B, E

Defining access rights for cross-region data transfers satisfies the data residency compliance constraint by enforcing identity and access management controls, such as Microsoft Entra ID conditional access policies, which restrict movement to authorized personnel and compliant jurisdictions. Implementing strict authorization barriers ensures that data packets crossing regional boundaries comply with geographic regulations, preventing unauthorized exfiltration and maintaining auditable trails of jurisdictional handoffs.

Why this answer

Data residency requires physical and logical controls to ensure data stays where it should.

3
MCQeasy

Which governance model is characterized by decision-making being centralized at the corporate level to ensure consistency across the entire organization?

A.Centralized Governance
B.Ad-hoc Governance
C.Federated Governance
D.Decentralized Governance
AnswerA

Centralised governance leverages a top-down hierarchy where executive leadership establishes uniform policies, security baselines, and standards that are enforced across all business units. This structural mechanism directly satisfies the stem's constraint of ensuring organisational consistency by removing local autonomy, thereby guaranteeing that every subsidiary adheres to identical regulatory and operational frameworks.

Why this answer

Centralized governance provides consistent policy enforcement, though it may be less agile than decentralized models.

4
MCQhard

A firm wants to implement an 'Infrastructure-as-Code' security gate. Using AWS CloudFormation, which feature should be utilized to perform security checks on templates before they are provisioned?

A.AWS CloudTrail
B.AWS CloudFormation Guard
C.AWS Config
D.AWS Trusted Advisor
AnswerB

AWS CloudFormation Guard directly satisfies the requirement to perform security checks on templates before provisioning by acting as a general-purpose, policy-as-code evaluation tool. It enables developers to write declarative validation rules that inspect JSON- or YAML-formatted CloudFormation templates offline. By integrating this tool into the CI/CD pipeline, security teams can statically analyse infrastructure definitions against compliance frameworks and internal policies prior to deployment, preventing non-compliant resources from ever being provisioned in the AWS environment.

Why this answer

CloudFormation Guard is an open-source tool that lets developers define policy-as-code to validate CloudFormation templates before deployment.

5
MCQmedium

To implement governance for containerized workloads, which Kubernetes feature should an architect use to enforce that only images from a trusted registry are deployed?

A.Kubernetes Admission Controllers
B.Network Policies
C.Kubernetes Secrets
D.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
AnswerA

Admission controllers intercept API server requests after authentication and authorisation, operating as crucial hooks to validate or mutate resource requests before persistence. To satisfy the requirement of enforcing that only images from a trusted registry are deployed, an architect can implement a validating webhook admission controller—such as OPA Gatekeeper or Kyverno. This mechanism inspects the pod specification's image path during creation requests, rejecting any deployment attempts originating from unapproved or external repositories to maintain strict cluster governance.

Why this answer

Admission Controllers (specifically OPA/Gatekeeper) are the mechanism in Kubernetes to enforce policy at the point of request.

6
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO factors are critical when establishing a Risk Appetite statement for a new cloud-native architecture?

Select 2 answers
A.Vendor support availability.
B.Regulatory and legal obligations.
C.Technical debt of legacy systems.
D.Business strategic objectives.
E.The number of cloud accounts.
AnswersB, D

Regulatory and legal obligations dictate mandatory data residency, sovereignty, and compliance baselines that directly constrain the risk appetite for a cloud-native architecture. When defining acceptable risk thresholds for distributed microservices and ephemeral serverless components, organisations must ensure that automated data processing pipelines do not violate cross-border data transfer restrictions or industry-specific statutes like GDPR. These external compliance frameworks establish non-negotiable boundaries within which the risk appetite must be formulated, ensuring that operational agility in cloud environments never supersedes statutory mandates.

Why this answer

Risk appetite must align with business goals and legal requirements to be effective.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions should be taken when integrating a new cloud service into an existing GRC program?

Select 2 answers
A.Increase the organization's total headcount.
B.Conduct a formal risk assessment of the new service.
C.Immediately decommission the old service.
D.Rename the existing risk registers.
E.Map the service's controls to existing compliance frameworks.
AnswersB, E

Performing a formal risk assessment satisfies the requirement to maintain organisational governance and compliance oversight when adopting external infrastructure. By evaluating the service against established security controls and data protection policies, the organisation quantifies residual risk before integration. This process ensures that identity governance, enforced via Microsoft Entra ID, aligns with the existing risk appetite and regulatory constraints, preventing the introduction of vulnerabilities that could compromise the integrity of the broader GRC framework.

Why this answer

New cloud services require updated risk assessments and governance mapping.

8
MCQmedium

When using Google Cloud, which service is the primary point of integration for security policies to be applied across the entire organization hierarchy?

A.Google Cloud Identity
B.Cloud Logging
C.Organization Policy Service
D.Cloud Resource Manager
AnswerC

The Organization Policy Service provides a centralised mechanism to enforce constraints across the entire resource hierarchy, satisfying the requirement for organisation-wide security governance. By defining policies at the root node, administrators ensure that restrictions inherit downwards to all folders and projects, preventing non-compliant configurations. Unlike identity-focused tools such as Microsoft Entra ID which manage access, this service acts as a guardrail for resource settings, enabling precise control over cloud service behaviour and ensuring consistent security posture throughout the Google Cloud environment.

Why this answer

The Organization Policy Service is the primary point of integration for security policies across the entire Google Cloud organization hierarchy. It allows administrators to define constraints that are inherited by all projects, folders, and resources under the organization node, ensuring consistent security posture. This service provides centralized control and is specifically designed to enforce policies at scale, unlike other services that focus on identity, logging, or resource metadata.

Exam trap

ISC often tests the confusion between identity management (Cloud Identity) and policy enforcement (Organization Policy Service), leading candidates to choose Cloud Identity when asked about applying security policies across the organization hierarchy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Google Cloud Identity is primarily used for authentication and access management (IAM), not for defining organization-wide security constraints. Option B is wrong because Cloud Logging is a logging and monitoring service, not a policy enforcement mechanism. Option D is wrong because Cloud Resource Manager is used for managing resources and their metadata, but it does not provide the policy constraint framework that Organization Policy Service does.

9
MCQmedium

An architect is deploying a global application and needs to ensure that all HTTP traffic is redirected to HTTPS. Which service in AWS should be used to enforce this compliance globally?

A.Route 53
B.AWS Certificate Manager
C.AWS Shield
D.Amazon CloudFront Viewer Protocol Policy
AnswerD

Amazon CloudFront satisfies the requirement to enforce HTTPS globally by leveraging the Viewer Protocol Policy setting. By configuring this policy to "Redirect HTTP to HTTPS", the content delivery network intercepts incoming client requests at edge locations worldwide and automatically issues a 301 or 302 HTTP response instructing the browser to switch to a secure TLS connection. This mechanism directly addresses the stem constraint of ensuring that all global HTTP traffic is redirected to HTTPS before reaching the origin infrastructure.

Why this answer

Amazon CloudFront Viewer Protocol Policy is the correct service because it allows you to enforce HTTPS by redirecting HTTP to HTTPS or blocking HTTP entirely at the edge, globally. This setting is applied to the distribution and affects all viewers regardless of location. It ensures compliance with security policies requiring encrypted transport.

Exam trap

ISC often tests the difference between services that manage certificates (ACM) and those that enforce protocol policies (CloudFront); candidates may choose ACM thinking it enforces HTTPS, but it only provisions certificates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Route 53 is a DNS service and does not handle HTTP-to-HTTPS redirection. Option B is wrong because AWS Certificate Manager provisions and manages SSL/TLS certificates but does not enforce protocol redirection. Option C is wrong because AWS Shield is a DDoS protection service and does not manage protocol policies.

10
MCQeasy

Which document is considered the authoritative 'System Security Plan' (SSP) for an information system undergoing a formal authorization process?

A.Risk Assessment Report (RAR)
B.System Security Plan (SSP)
C.Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)
D.Authority to Operate (ATO)
AnswerB

The System Security Plan serves as the formal repository detailing the security controls implemented to satisfy the Risk Management Framework’s requirement for a comprehensive system description. It functions as the primary authoritative document that outlines the boundary, architecture, and protective measures necessary for formal authorisation. By documenting these technical configurations—which may include identity governance policies within Microsoft Entra ID—this plan provides the necessary evidence for assessors to validate that the system meets the specific security constraints mandated by the organisational authorisation process.

Why this answer

The SSP is the primary document that details how security controls are met for a system.

11
MCQmedium

An organization is migrating sensitive workloads to Azure. The compliance team mandates that all storage account keys be rotated automatically. Which service should the architect configure to meet this requirement?

A.Azure Key Vault
B.Azure Policy
C.Microsoft Entra ID Privileged Identity Management
D.Azure Monitor
AnswerA

Azure Key Vault integrates directly with Azure storage accounts to manage and automatically rotate storage account access keys through a managed storage account feature. By acting as the key service, it periodically regenerates the keys without requiring manual intervention, thereby satisfying the compliance mandate for automated key rotation. This eliminates the operational overhead and security risks associated with manual processes while maintaining seamless authentication access for the migrating workloads.

Why this answer

Azure Key Vault managed storage account keys provide automated rotation for shared keys, aligning with security governance requirements.

12
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE components are critical for an ISSAP architect when designing an audit trail that meets the legal requirements for non-repudiation?

Select 3 answers
A.Synchronized time sources (NTP).
B.Digitally signed logs.
C.Immutable storage (e.g., WORM).
D.Regular log rotation cycles.
E.Local write-only hard drives.
AnswersA, B, C

Synchronised time sources, such as Network Time Protocol (NTP), are essential for satisfying the temporal sequencing constraints inherent in legal non-repudiation requirements. Without highly accurate and synchronised timestamps across all distributed system logs, establishing an indisputable chronological order of events is impossible, thereby undermining the integrity and forensic defensibility of the audit trail when proving that a specific entity performed a transaction at a precise moment.

Why this answer

Option A (Synchronized time sources via NTP) is correct because non-repudiation requires a trustworthy, consistent timeline across all systems; RFC 5905 NTP keeps clocks within tight tolerances so events can be correlated and their sequence proven in legal proceedings. Option B (Digitally signed logs) is correct because cryptographic signatures using asymmetric keys bind each log entry to its origin, providing integrity and authentication so a party cannot later deny having generated the record. Option C (Immutable storage such as WORM) is correct because write-once-read-many media prevents alteration or deletion of audit records after the fact, preserving evidentiary integrity required by regulations like SEC 17a-4 and HIPAA.

Option D (Regular log rotation cycles) is not essential for non-repudiation; rotation is an operational housekeeping practice that manages file size and retention but does not by itself prove authenticity or prevent tampering. Option E (Local write-only hard drives) is not appropriate because local storage is not tamper-evident or independently verifiable, and 'write-only' drives do not provide the cryptographic integrity, trusted timestamping, or centralized protection that non-repudiation demands.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting operational conveniences like log rotation or local storage that sound like audit best practices but do not provide the cryptographic integrity, trusted timestamps, and immutability that non-repudiation legally demands.

13
MCQhard

A firm needs to ensure that only approved machine images (AMIs) are used in production. Which AWS service should be used to create a golden image pipeline that enforces compliance before images are shared?

A.AWS Systems Manager
B.AWS Service Catalog
C.EC2 Image Builder
D.AWS Lambda
AnswerC

AWS EC2 Image Builder directly satisfies the requirement to create a golden image pipeline that enforces compliance before distribution by automating the creation, patching, and testing of Amazon Machine Images. It allows organisations to define infrastructure-as-code recipes coupled with vulnerability and compliance tests, such as security assessments using AWS Inspector. Once the image passes these automated validation gates, the service securely distributes the compliant golden images to target production environments while blocking unapproved configurations.

Why this answer

EC2 Image Builder allows for the creation of an automated pipeline to build, test, and distribute hardened AMIs.

14
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) 2.0, which newly introduced function focuses on managing the supply chain and third-party risk?

A.Identify
B.Govern
C.Respond
D.Protect
AnswerB

The Govern function establishes the overarching cybersecurity strategy, expectations, and policy oversight necessary to manage enterprise-wide risk. By integrating supply chain risk management into the organisational governance structure, it satisfies the stem’s requirement for a dedicated function addressing third-party dependencies. Unlike the other functions that focus on operational execution, Govern provides the foundational framework to assess, prioritise, and monitor external vendor relationships, ensuring that third-party risk management is aligned with broader business objectives and regulatory compliance standards across the entire information technology ecosystem.

Why this answer

NIST CSF 2.0 (released February 2024) introduced the new 'Govern' function as its sixth core function, elevating governance from a category within Identify to a standalone function. Govern explicitly addresses organizational context, risk management strategy, roles and responsibilities, and — critically — supply chain risk management (GV.SC category). This reflects the recognition that third-party and supply chain risk must be governed at the leadership level rather than treated as a sub-activity of Identify.

Exam trap

ISC often tests whether candidates know that CSF 2.0 added 'Govern' as the sixth function — many candidates incorrectly assume supply chain risk lives under Identify because that was true in CSF 1.1.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Identify (ID) existed in CSF 1.1 and focuses on asset management, business environment, governance (formerly), risk assessment, and risk management strategy — it was not newly introduced in 2.0. Option C is wrong because Respond (RS) is a legacy function covering response planning, communications, analysis, mitigation, and improvements — it does not own supply chain governance. Option D is wrong because Protect (PR) is a legacy function covering access control, awareness training, data security, and protective technology — supply chain risk management is not its primary focus.

15
MCQeasy

Which risk management framework is most commonly used for aligning business objectives with IT capabilities in large enterprises?

A.ITIL
B.NIST RMF
C.ISO/IEC 27005
D.COBIT
AnswerD

COBIT provides a comprehensive governance framework that specifically addresses the constraint of aligning business objectives with IT capabilities. By utilising the Goals Cascade mechanism, it translates stakeholder requirements into actionable enterprise goals and IT-related goals. This structured approach ensures that IT processes are directly mapped to business outcomes, enabling large enterprises to manage risk while optimising value. Unlike frameworks focused solely on security controls or service delivery, COBIT prioritises the strategic integration of technology governance within the broader organisational mission.

Why this answer

COBIT is specifically designed to bridge the gap between IT and business requirements in large-scale enterprises.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

When designing an architecture for GDPR compliance, which THREE technical controls should be prioritized to satisfy the 'Right to be Forgotten' requirement?

Select 3 answers
A.Data discovery and tagging tools.
B.Cryptographic erasure (crypto-shredding).
C.Single Sign-On (SSO) integration.
D.Database audit logs.
E.Automated data lifecycle policies.
AnswersA, B, E

Data discovery and tagging tools provide the foundational visibility required to satisfy the 'Right to be Forgotten' by identifying the precise location of personal data across disparate storage environments. Without automated classification, administrators cannot reliably locate or purge specific data subjects' records to meet GDPR erasure mandates. By mapping data lineage and sensitivity, these tools ensure that deletion requests are comprehensive, preventing residual data fragments from remaining in unstructured repositories or secondary backups, thereby maintaining strict compliance with the regulation's deletion constraints.

Why this answer

Right to be forgotten requires finding and securely deleting data across potentially distributed systems.

17
MCQeasy

Which document is the primary foundational document in the COBIT framework that provides a governance perspective on how information technology should support business objectives?

A.ISO/IEC 27001
B.ITIL 4
C.NIST CSF
D.COBIT 2019 Framework
AnswerD

COBIT 2019 Framework serves as the core foundational document by integrating governance and management objectives into a unified structure. It satisfies the stem’s constraint regarding the provision of a governance perspective by aligning IT processes with enterprise business objectives through its governance system components. By establishing this strategic link, it enables organisations to practise effective oversight, ensuring that information technology investments directly facilitate the achievement of broader corporate goals and value creation requirements within the governance framework.

Why this answer

COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives is the primary document outlining business alignment.

18
Multi-Selecthard

An ISSAP architect is designing a system that must be compliant with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). Which THREE technical safeguards should be implemented to ensure data confidentiality?

Select 3 answers
A.Enforced TLS 1.2+ for data in transit.
B.Automated document printing services.
C.AES-256 encryption for data at rest.
D.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).
E.Daily physical site tours.
AnswersA, C, D

Enforcing TLS 1.2 or higher encrypts personal data while in transit between clients and services, directly preventing interception and eavesdropping. This cryptographic control satisfies GDPR's confidentiality expectation for data in transit, which is the safeguard the scenario demands.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because enforcing TLS 1.2 or higher protects personal data in transit from eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks, directly supporting GDPR confidentiality obligations for data moving across networks. Option C is correct because AES-256 encryption at rest renders stored personal data unreadable without the key, which is a recognized technical safeguard for confidentiality under GDPR and aligns with Article 32's reference to encryption. Option D is correct because Role-Based Access Control limits access to personal data to authorized roles on a least-privilege basis, reducing the risk of unauthorized disclosure and supporting GDPR's access-control expectations.

Option B is not appropriate because automated document printing services increase the risk of uncontrolled copies and do not provide a confidentiality safeguard. Option E is not appropriate because daily physical site tours are an administrative/physical measure and do not technically protect data confidentiality.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting organizational or physical measures (printing services, site tours) when the question explicitly asks for technical safeguards ensuring data confidentiality — the exam tests precision in matching control type to requirement.

19
MCQhard

An organization is using Azure to host sensitive data. To prevent data exfiltration, the architect needs to restrict storage account access to only the corporate network. Which feature should be used?

A.Azure AD Conditional Access
B.Azure Policy
C.Azure Bastion
D.Azure Storage Firewalls and Virtual Networks
AnswerD

Storage firewalls and virtual networks apply network-level rules to the storage account's public endpoint, permitting access only from specified virtual networks, subnets and IP ranges. This directly satisfies the requirement to restrict storage access to the corporate network, blocking exfiltration from other origins.

Why this answer

Azure Storage Firewalls and Virtual Networks is the native feature that restricts access to a storage account based on network rules — allowing only specified virtual networks, subnets, or public IP ranges. By configuring the storage account's network rules to allow only the corporate network (via VNet service endpoints or private endpoints), the architect directly prevents data exfiltration from unauthorized networks. This is the precise control the question describes.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing identity-layer controls (Conditional Access) with network-layer controls — candidates pick Conditional Access because it sounds like access restriction, but the question specifically asks about restricting access to the corporate network, which is a network firewall function.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Azure AD Conditional Access controls authentication and session conditions (user, device, location, risk) for Azure AD-integrated apps — it does not restrict network-level access to a storage account's data plane. Option B is wrong because Azure Policy enforces organizational standards and compliance at the control plane (e.g., 'storage accounts must use private endpoints'), but it does not itself block traffic to a specific storage account. Option C is wrong because Azure Bastion provides secure RDP/SSH access to VMs without public IPs — it has nothing to do with storage account network restrictions.

20
MCQmedium

An ISSAP architect is designing a cloud environment that must comply with PCI-DSS 4.0. Which specific AWS feature should be configured within the AWS Control Tower to ensure that all new member accounts automatically inherit the necessary preventative guardrails for non-compliant S3 bucket configurations?

A.IAM Permission Boundaries
B.AWS Config Rules
C.Service Control Policies (SCPs)
D.AWS Security Hub Standards
AnswerC

Service Control Policies (SCPs) applied at the AWS Organization root or OU level within AWS Control Tower enforce preventative guardrails by explicitly denying API actions that violate security baselines. For PCI-DSS 4.0 compliance, SCPs directly satisfy the requirement to prevent non-compliant Amazon S3 bucket configurations—such as public read access or unencrypted storage—from being created in any new member account, ensuring continuous posture enforcement without relying on manual intervention.

Why this answer

AWS Control Tower uses Service Control Policies (SCPs) via Guardrails to enforce preventative controls across the landing zone, which is the standard architectural approach for automated PCI compliance enforcement.

21
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE criteria are most important when selecting a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) based on the Shared Responsibility Model for an ISSAP architect?

Select 3 answers
A.The CSP's physical office location.
B.Capability to export logs and audit data.
C.Availability of third-party audit reports (SOC2/ISO).
D.Native security features and API maturity.
E.Market share size.
AnswersB, C, D

Log and audit data export capabilities satisfy the shared responsibility governance constraint by ensuring the organisation retains independent visibility and verification over cloud-based security events. Because the underlying infrastructure and hypervisor layers remain managed by the cloud service provider, an ISSAP architect must mandate mechanisms such as API-driven log streaming or native SIEM integration to feed telemetry into an enterprise security operations centre. Without continuous, programmatic extraction of these audit trails, maintaining regulatory compliance and effective incident response is impossible.

Why this answer

Architects must ensure their CSP selection supports the organization's specific compliance and security needs.

22
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an Information Security Steering Committee (ISSC) in the context of enterprise security governance?

A.To write firewall rules.
B.To patch servers.
C.To set security strategy and approve policy.
D.To conduct incident response drills.
AnswerC

Enterprise security governance requires executive-level oversight to align protection mechanisms with business objectives, satisfying the constraint of defining strategic direction and authoritative boundaries. An Information Security Steering Committee bridges the gap between operational management and board-level governance by directly exercising the strategic mandate to establish security posture and formally ratify organizational policies. Through this mechanism, the committee ensures that risk appetite, resource allocation, and regulatory compliance mandates are systematically translated into enforceable governance directives rather than leaving tactical teams to determine enterprise-wide risk tolerance independently.

Why this answer

The ISSC provides high-level direction, prioritizes security initiatives, and ensures alignment with business goals.

23
MCQmedium

When using Azure Policy to enforce governance, which effect type should be used if the architect wants to log non-compliance without blocking the deployment of resources?

A.Audit
B.Deny
C.DeployIfNotExists
D.Append
AnswerA

The `Audit` effect directly satisfies the requirement to log non-compliance without blocking resource deployments. When an Azure Policy assigned with this effect evaluates existing or newly submitted resource properties against defined rules, it generates a non-compliant event in the Azure Activity Log if a mismatch occurs. Crucially, the Azure Resource Manager engine does not halt the deployment pipeline or reject the API request, allowing developers and administrators to track governance deviations passively while maintaining operational velocity.

Why this answer

The 'Audit' effect is specifically designed to log events without impacting the deployment action.

24
MCQhard

An organization requires that all cloud storage assets are encrypted using customer-managed keys. Which service should the architect configure to track the key usage and verify compliance?

A.AWS CloudTrail
B.AWS Inspector
C.AWS Trusted Advisor
D.AWS Systems Manager
AnswerA

AWS CloudTrail logs API activity and management events across the AWS environment, capturing every cryptographic operation performed by AWS Key Management Service when customer-managed keys are utilised. This granular audit trail satisfies the compliance verification constraint by recording precisely who requested access to the encrypted cloud storage assets and when those keys were invoked, providing the necessary forensic data to prove adherence to internal security mandates.

Why this answer

CloudTrail is the service that logs all API calls to KMS, providing the audit trail needed to prove key usage and compliance.

25
Multi-Selecthard

An architect is evaluating compliance for an enterprise multi-cloud environment. Which THREE capabilities must be included in a centralized GRC platform for it to be effective?

Select 3 answers
A.API-based integration with cloud providers.
B.Encrypted email notification system.
C.Integrated risk assessment workflow.
D.Automated mapping of controls to multiple standards.
E.Manual spreadsheet uploading only.
AnswersA, C, D

API-based integration with cloud providers is essential because a centralized governance, risk, and compliance platform must continuously ingest resource configurations and telemetry across heterogeneous architectures without manual intervention. In an enterprise multi-cloud environment, static compliance assessments fail due to rapid resource churn; programmatic interfaces allow the platform to query provider control planes in real time, satisfying the critical requirement for dynamic visibility across disparate hyperscalers.

Why this answer

Centralized GRC platforms must integrate with infrastructure to remain relevant and accurate.

26
MCQmedium

An ISSAP architect is working with developers to ensure that the code repository is compliant with secure coding standards. Which tool within the GitHub ecosystem is specifically designed to detect secrets (e.g., API keys) before they are committed?

A.GitHub Advanced Security Secret Scanning
B.GitHub Actions
C.GitHub Dependabot
D.GitHub Codespaces
AnswerA

GitHub Advanced Security Secret Scanning directly satisfies the specific constraint of detecting sensitive credentials *before* they are committed to the repository by employing push protection mechanisms. As developers write code, pattern matching and machine learning algorithms analyse the payload locally or during the push phase, actively blocking commits that contain exposed API keys, private keys, or tokens. This preventative interception stops secrets from ever entering the historical commit log, whereas passive scanning tools only detect vulnerabilities retrospectively after the code has already landed in the repository.

Why this answer

GitHub Secret Scanning is the native tool designed to identify and block secrets from being pushed to repositories.

27
MCQmedium

When designing an architecture to meet NIST 800-53 controls, which AWS service should be used to enforce resource tagging for all assets to ensure proper cost and compliance tracking?

A.AWS CloudFormation
B.AWS Config
C.AWS IAM
D.AWS Organizations
AnswerB

AWS Config provides the necessary governance framework by utilising managed rules to continuously monitor and audit resource configurations. By deploying specific rules that mandate the presence of required tags, the service automatically flags non-compliant assets, thereby satisfying the requirement to enforce resource tagging for compliance tracking. This mechanism ensures that all infrastructure adheres to defined organisational policies, allowing administrators to remediate deviations instantly and maintain a consistent audit trail across the entire cloud environment.

Why this answer

AWS Config is the primary tool that can enforce tagging policies and alert on or remediate non-compliant resources.

28
MCQeasy

What is the primary objective of a 'Compliance Gap Analysis' in a cloud migration project?

A.To reduce cloud costs.
B.To document differences between current state and requirements.
C.To increase the migration speed.
D.To select the best cloud provider.
AnswerB

Identifying the delta between existing on-premises security controls and target cloud-native requirements directly addresses the primary objective of a compliance gap analysis. By mapping legacy identity governance protocols against the granular conditional access policies available in Microsoft Entra ID, organisations determine the specific technical constraints required to maintain regulatory posture. This systematic comparison ensures that migration strategies account for architectural shifts in authentication frameworks, thereby preventing security regressions when transitioning from perimeter-based legacy systems to identity-centric cloud environments.

Why this answer

A gap analysis identifies where the current architecture deviates from the target compliance framework.

29
MCQeasy

What is the primary role of a 'Compliance Liaison' in an enterprise architecture team?

A.To update firewall configurations.
B.To facilitate communication between technical teams and audit.
C.To perform penetration testing.
D.To manage the budget for security projects.
AnswerB

Facilitating communication between technical teams and audit satisfies the constraint of bridging the gap between operational architecture and regulatory oversight. This role acts as a translation layer, mapping complex technical configurations—such as conditional access policies within Microsoft Entra ID—to specific control requirements defined by auditors. By formalising this interaction, the liaison ensures that architectural decisions remain transparent and auditable, effectively translating abstract compliance mandates into actionable technical constraints that the engineering teams can implement and verify during internal reviews.

Why this answer

A liaison bridges the gap between technical teams and audit requirements, ensuring that compliance is understood and implemented.

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