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(ISC)2 Information Systems Security Architecture Professional (CISSP-ISSAP, Aug 2025 blueprint) (ISC) (ISC) — Questions 151–169

169 questions total · 3 pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
MCQmedium

A cloud architect is defining a network security architecture for a multi-tier application. How should they protect the application tier from direct internet access?

A.Place the app tier in a private subnet and restrict ingress to the ALB.
B.Use a NACL to block all incoming traffic.
C.Deploy a WAF on each application instance.
D.Attach a public IP to every instance in the app tier.
AnswerA

Placing the application tier within a private subnet entirely isolates it from public routing tables, directly satisfying the architectural constraint of preventing direct internet access. By restricting inbound ingress exclusively to the Application Load Balancer (ALB), traffic must traverse the designated edge service rather than reaching application instances directly. This enforces strict layer-4 and layer-7 filtering, ensuring that only validated, proxy-terminated requests from the public-facing presentation tier can reach the backend resources.

Why this answer

Place the application tier in a private subnet with no public IP, and allow traffic only from the Load Balancer (ELB) security group.

152
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are best practices for securing API endpoints?

Select 2 answers
A.Using OAuth/OIDC for authentication.
B.Publicly exposing all internal endpoints.
C.Ignoring input validation.
D.Implementing rate limiting.
E.Requiring no authentication for GET requests.
AnswersA, D

Implementing OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect (OIDC) provides a standardised framework for delegated authorisation and identity propagation, which directly satisfies the requirement for robust, scalable authentication across distributed API endpoints. By utilising bearer tokens rather than static credentials, these protocols decouple the authentication service from the resource server. Modern implementations, such as those integrated with Microsoft Entra ID, ensure that access is strictly scoped via claims, effectively mitigating risks associated with credential leakage and unauthorised access to sensitive service interfaces.

Why this answer

Rate limiting and strong authentication are foundational API security practices.

153
MCQhard

You are designing an IAM architecture for a global enterprise. You must ensure that PII is not transmitted in cleartext within identity tokens. What is the standard security requirement?

A.Implement JSON Web Encryption (JWE).
B.Use JWT exclusively.
C.Use symmetric keys for all token signing.
D.Disable all claims in the token.
AnswerA

JSON Web Encryption (JWE) provides the necessary confidentiality for identity tokens by encrypting the payload, ensuring that personally identifiable information (PII) remains protected during transit. Unlike JSON Web Signature (JWS), which only ensures integrity and authenticity, JWE specifically addresses the requirement to prevent cleartext exposure. By leveraging cryptographic algorithms to wrap the claims, this mechanism satisfies the security constraint regarding data privacy, which is a critical consideration when integrating identity providers such as Microsoft Entra ID within a global enterprise architecture.

Why this answer

PII should be encrypted within tokens (e.g., using JWE - JSON Web Encryption) or minimized in the token payload to meet privacy regulations.

154
MCQmedium

Which component of an architecture document defines the communication standards between services?

A.System overview
B.Data dictionary
C.Security policy
D.Interface specification
AnswerD

An interface specification explicitly defines the protocols, data formats, and endpoints required for interoperability, satisfying the communication standards constraint specified in the stem. By establishing precise boundaries and contract definitions—such as RESTful APIs, gRPC schemas, or message queue topologies—this component ensures that distributed services can exchange payloads reliably without tightly coupling their underlying internal implementations.

Why this answer

The Interface Specification or API design document defines how services communicate.

155
MCQeasy

A company is migrating to Microsoft 365. You need to ensure that users are only able to access SharePoint sites from managed devices that are compliant with corporate security policies. Which service provides this conditional access control?

A.SharePoint Online Admin Center
B.Microsoft Purview
C.Microsoft Entra Conditional Access
D.Microsoft Intune
AnswerC

Microsoft Entra Conditional Access evaluates signals such as device compliance and management status before granting access to SharePoint. By enforcing policies that require devices to be registered in Microsoft Entra ID and marked as compliant by Microsoft Intune, this service satisfies the constraint of restricting access to managed, compliant hardware. It acts as the central policy engine that bridges identity-based authentication with device-state verification, ensuring that only authorised endpoints can interact with corporate data within the Microsoft 365 environment.

Why this answer

Microsoft Entra ID (formerly Azure AD) Conditional Access policies are used to evaluate device compliance status before granting access to M365 resources.

156
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a TPM chip in a laptop?

A.To increase CPU performance.
B.To accelerate disk encryption.
C.To store cryptographic keys and ensure platform integrity.
D.To provide biometric authentication.
AnswerC

A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) functions as a hardware-based root of trust, satisfying the requirement for platform integrity by performing measured boots and storing sensitive cryptographic material in tamper-resistant silicon. By isolating private keys from the main processor and operating system, the chip prevents unauthorised access to encrypted data, such as BitLocker volumes or credentials synchronised with Microsoft Entra ID. This physical isolation ensures that cryptographic operations remain secure even if the primary software environment is compromised by malicious actors or rootkits.

Why this answer

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) stores cryptographic keys, performs hardware-based platform integrity checks, and enables secure boot.

157
MCQmedium

You are utilizing TOGAF 10 to develop an Architecture Content Framework. Which component of the Architecture Development Method (ADM) phase A is specifically required to define the scope and identify stakeholders?

A.Architecture Vision
B.Business Architecture
C.Transition Planning
D.Architecture Requirements Repository
AnswerA

Architecture Vision serves as the foundational phase within the ADM to establish the project’s boundaries and engagement parameters. By mandating the creation of a Statement of Architecture Work, this phase directly satisfies the requirement to define the scope and identify stakeholders before technical development commences. It formalises the architectural objectives and ensures that all relevant parties are aligned with the organisational goals, thereby providing the necessary governance structure to guide subsequent phases and ensure the enterprise architecture remains coherent throughout its lifecycle.

Why this answer

TOGAF ADM Phase A (Architecture Vision) is where the scope of the architecture engagement is defined, stakeholders are identified, and the Architecture Vision is produced. The Phase A inputs and steps explicitly include defining scope, identifying stakeholders, and creating the Statement of Architecture Work. This makes A the correct answer.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Phase A's vision/scope role with Phase B's business architecture deliverables — candidates pick 'Business Architecture' because scope sounds business-related, but scope and stakeholder identification belong to Phase A.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Business Architecture is developed in Phase B, which comes after the vision and scope are established in Phase A. Option C is wrong because Transition Planning occurs in Phase F, where migration roadmaps are built, not where scope and stakeholders are defined. Option D is wrong because the Architecture Requirements Repository is a content framework artifact that stores requirements throughout the ADM; it is not a Phase A component responsible for defining scope or identifying stakeholders.

158
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) tool compared to traditional Antivirus?

A.To encrypt the hard drive.
B.To provide visibility and response to suspicious behavioral activity.
C.To act as a personal firewall.
D.To block known file-based malware signatures.
AnswerB

Endpoint Detection and Response tools continuously monitor system-level telemetry, such as process execution, registry modifications, and network connections, to identify malicious patterns rather than relying solely on static file signatures. This behavioural analysis satisfies the requirement to move beyond traditional signature-based detection by providing deep visibility into post-exploitation activities. By capturing granular event logs, security teams can investigate and remediate threats that bypass perimeter defences, a function distinct from the reactive, file-centric approach of legacy antivirus software that lacks integration with broader identity platforms like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

EDR focuses on continuous monitoring and recording of endpoint activities to enable investigation, threat hunting, and automated response to sophisticated threats.

159
MCQmedium

When designing an architecture to meet NIST 800-53 controls, which AWS service should be used to enforce resource tagging for all assets to ensure proper cost and compliance tracking?

A.AWS CloudFormation
B.AWS Config
C.AWS IAM
D.AWS Organizations
AnswerB

AWS Config provides the necessary governance framework by utilising managed rules to continuously monitor and audit resource configurations. By deploying specific rules that mandate the presence of required tags, the service automatically flags non-compliant assets, thereby satisfying the requirement to enforce resource tagging for compliance tracking. This mechanism ensures that all infrastructure adheres to defined organisational policies, allowing administrators to remediate deviations instantly and maintain a consistent audit trail across the entire cloud environment.

Why this answer

AWS Config is the primary tool that can enforce tagging policies and alert on or remediate non-compliant resources.

160
MCQhard

When performing an architectural review of a CI/CD pipeline, which security control is most critical for preventing unauthorized deployment of code?

A.Multi-party approval
B.Hardened build server
C.Automated scanning
D.Encryption at rest
AnswerA

Multi-party approval enforces a mandatory segregation of duties by requiring independent authorisation from multiple authorised personnel before a deployment proceeds. This mechanism directly addresses the constraint of preventing unauthorised code releases by ensuring no single compromised account or malicious insider can unilaterally push changes to production. By integrating these checks into the pipeline workflow, organisations mitigate the risk of bypassing security gates, often leveraging identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID to authenticate and log the distinct identities of each approver throughout the release lifecycle.

Why this answer

Multi-party approval is the most critical control for preventing unauthorized deployment because it requires multiple authorized individuals to approve a deployment before it proceeds. This separation of duties ensures that no single compromised account or malicious insider can push code to production. It directly addresses the risk of unauthorized deployment by adding a human gate.

Exam trap

ISC often tests the difference between preventive and detective controls; candidates may choose automated scanning (detective) when the question asks for preventing unauthorized deployment, which requires a preventive control like multi-party approval.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a hardened build server reduces the attack surface but does not prevent an authorized user from deploying unauthorized code. Option C is wrong because automated scanning detects vulnerabilities but does not prevent deployment of code that passes scans but is still unauthorized. Option D is wrong because encryption at rest protects data confidentiality but does not control who can deploy code.

161
MCQeasy

What is the primary objective of a 'Compliance Gap Analysis' in a cloud migration project?

A.To reduce cloud costs.
B.To document differences between current state and requirements.
C.To increase the migration speed.
D.To select the best cloud provider.
AnswerB

Identifying the delta between existing on-premises security controls and target cloud-native requirements directly addresses the primary objective of a compliance gap analysis. By mapping legacy identity governance protocols against the granular conditional access policies available in Microsoft Entra ID, organisations determine the specific technical constraints required to maintain regulatory posture. This systematic comparison ensures that migration strategies account for architectural shifts in authentication frameworks, thereby preventing security regressions when transitioning from perimeter-based legacy systems to identity-centric cloud environments.

Why this answer

A gap analysis identifies where the current architecture deviates from the target compliance framework.

162
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are primary goals of conducting threat modeling during the architecture phase? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Automate patch management
B.Identify design-level security flaws
C.Perform penetration testing
D.Manage hardware inventory
E.Prioritize security investments
AnswersB, E

Conducting threat modelling during the architecture phase satisfies the requirement to identify design-level security flaws by enabling the systematic decomposition of trust boundaries and data flows before code implementation. By scrutinising architectural patterns, security professionals detect systemic vulnerabilities, such as improper authentication mechanisms or insecure integration with Microsoft Entra ID, which are difficult to remediate post-deployment. This proactive approach ensures that structural weaknesses are mitigated early in the software development lifecycle, preventing the propagation of fundamental flaws into the final production environment.

Why this answer

Threat modeling identifies design flaws and helps prioritize security investments.

163
Multi-Selecthard

When designing a Federated Identity architecture using OIDC/SAML, which TWO security considerations are critical for the Relying Party (SP)?

Select 2 answers
A.Configuring the IdP to use weak hashing algorithms
B.Verifying the audience (aud) claim
C.Allowing all claims to be processed without filtering
D.Validating the signature of the assertion/token
E.Ignoring timestamp validation to avoid clock skew
AnswersB, D

Verifying the audience (aud) claim ensures the Relying Party validates that the token was explicitly intended for its specific client identifier rather than another service. By checking this field, the application prevents token substitution attacks where a malicious actor attempts to reuse a valid token issued for a different service. This mechanism satisfies the security requirement for Federated Identity architectures by confirming the trust relationship between the Identity Provider, such as Microsoft Entra ID, and the specific Relying Party configured to process the assertion.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the Relying Party (SP) must verify the audience (aud) claim in the ID token or SAML assertion to ensure the token was issued specifically for it, preventing token replay or substitution attacks where a token minted for another SP is presented. Option D is correct because the SP must validate the cryptographic signature of the assertion/token using the IdP's published keys (e.g., JWKS for OIDC or the IdP signing certificate for SAML) to confirm authenticity and integrity, rejecting any tampered or forged tokens. Options A, C, and E are not appropriate: weak hashing algorithms undermine token integrity, processing all claims without filtering can enable injection or privilege escalation, and ignoring timestamp validation (exp, iat, nbf, or SAML NotOnOrAfter) permits expired or replayed assertions, so clock skew should be handled with a small tolerance rather than by disabling validation.

164
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are critical to ensuring secure 'Just-In-Time' (JIT) access?

Select 3 answers
A.Automated request and approval workflow.
B.Manual password sharing between users.
C.Automated revocation of privileges.
D.Permanent administrative role assignment.
E.Time-To-Live (TTL) enforcement on permissions.
AnswersA, C, E

Automated request and approval workflows provide the necessary governance to satisfy the temporal constraint inherent in Just-In-Time access. By integrating these mechanisms within Microsoft Entra ID, organisations enforce the principle of least privilege, ensuring that elevated permissions are granted only for a defined duration following explicit authorisation. This automated lifecycle management eliminates standing privileges, mitigating the risk of credential misuse by ensuring that access rights are revoked immediately upon the expiration of the approved window.

Why this answer

A central request workflow, time-bound approval (TTL), and automated revocation are the three pillars of a secure JIT architecture.

165
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the most effective way to secure a remote access connection for employees?

A.Using a simple password.
B.VPN with Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
C.Allowing SSH access directly from the internet.
D.Opening RDP port 3389 to the world.
AnswerB

Encapsulating traffic within an encrypted tunnel ensures data confidentiality across untrusted networks, directly addressing the requirement for a secure remote access connection. Integrating Multi-Factor Authentication provides a robust defence against credential theft by mandating an additional verification factor, such as a push notification via Microsoft Entra ID. This combination of transport-layer encryption and identity-based access control creates a layered security posture that effectively mitigates the risks inherent in remote connectivity, ensuring that only authorised users can establish a trusted session with internal resources.

Why this answer

A VPN using MFA provides both encryption for the transit path and strong verification of user identity.

166
MCQhard

You are deploying OIDC (OpenID Connect) for a web application. You need to prevent token replay attacks. Which claim should the application validate in the ID Token?

A.iss
B.iat
C.nonce
D.sub
AnswerC

The nonce claim binds the ID Token to the original authentication request; the application checks it matches the value it generated, rejecting replayed tokens. This directly satisfies the requirement to prevent token replay attacks in the OIDC flow.

Why this answer

The 'nonce' claim is a cryptographically strong value that links the request to the response, allowing the client to verify that the ID Token was generated specifically for its request.

167
MCQmedium

Which threat modeling tool is known for generating DFDs and identifying threats via a rule engine?

A.Wireshark
B.Metasploit
C.Nmap
D.Microsoft Threat Modeling Tool
AnswerD

Microsoft Threat Modeling Tool satisfies the requirement for automated threat identification by utilising a built-in rule engine that analyses Data Flow Diagrams (DFDs). Users construct visual representations of system architecture, and the software applies STRIDE-based logic to systematically detect potential vulnerabilities. This automated approach ensures that security professionals can consistently identify threats based on predefined architectural patterns, distinguishing it from manual documentation tools that lack the capacity to process diagrammatic data against a structured security rule set.

Why this answer

Microsoft Threat Modeling Tool is the standard software tool for DFD-based threat analysis.

168
MCQhard

A security architect is configuring an AWS VPC to ensure that traffic between two subnets is inspected by a centralized firewall appliance. Which configuration provides the most resilient design?

A.Configure static route tables on all subnets to point to the firewall's ENI.
B.Implement a transparent bridge on each EC2 instance in the destination subnet.
C.Utilize AWS Transit Gateway with route tables that hairpin traffic to a security VPC.
D.Deploy a Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB) and use VPC Ingress Routing to route traffic through the fleet.
AnswerD

Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB) provides the most resilient design by transparently scaling a fleet of virtual appliances across multiple availability zones. By leveraging VPC Ingress Routing to redirect traffic through the GWLB endpoints, the architecture ensures that all inter-subnet packets are inspected without introducing single points of failure. This mechanism satisfies the requirement for a resilient, centralized inspection point, as the load balancer automatically handles health checks and traffic distribution, ensuring high availability for the security stack compared to static routing configurations.

Why this answer

Using AWS Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB) with VPC Ingress Routing ensures that traffic is transparently intercepted and inspected by the firewall before reaching the destination, providing higher scalability than static routing.

169
MCQeasy

What is the primary role of a 'Compliance Liaison' in an enterprise architecture team?

A.To update firewall configurations.
B.To facilitate communication between technical teams and audit.
C.To perform penetration testing.
D.To manage the budget for security projects.
AnswerB

Facilitating communication between technical teams and audit satisfies the constraint of bridging the gap between operational architecture and regulatory oversight. This role acts as a translation layer, mapping complex technical configurations—such as conditional access policies within Microsoft Entra ID—to specific control requirements defined by auditors. By formalising this interaction, the liaison ensures that architectural decisions remain transparent and auditable, effectively translating abstract compliance mandates into actionable technical constraints that the engineering teams can implement and verify during internal reviews.

Why this answer

A liaison bridges the gap between technical teams and audit requirements, ensuring that compliance is understood and implemented.

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