- A
Escalate to the designated alternate risk owner for decision.
Proper escalation ensures accountability and timely response.
- B
Apply the patch immediately without consultation.
Why wrong: Patching without authorization may violate change management procedures.
- C
Accept the risk since the impact is unknown.
Why wrong: Acceptance without analysis is not appropriate for a critical vulnerability.
- D
Wait for the risk owner to return to avoid overstepping authority.
Why wrong: Delaying could lead to exploitation; critical vulnerabilities require prompt attention.
Quick Answer
The correct answer is to escalate to the designated alternate risk owner for decision. This is the proper action because the risk manager must ensure that a risk decision is made without delay when the risk owner is unavailable, particularly for a critical vulnerability like a web application firewall alert. The designated alternate maintains the chain of accountability and authority, enabling an informed decision on whether to apply mitigations such as patching. On the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control CRISC exam, this scenario tests your understanding of the escalation process within the risk response framework, specifically the principle that risk ownership is a role, not a person. A common trap is to assume the risk manager can make the decision independently, but the CRISC framework strictly separates risk management from risk ownership. Remember the memory tip: “Owner away? Alternate must stay.”
CRISC IT Risk Assessment Practice Question
This CRISC practice question tests your understanding of it risk assessment. Read the scenario carefully and evaluate each option against the stated constraints before committing to an answer. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
An organization has received a critical vulnerability alert for a web application firewall. The risk owner is on leave. What should the risk manager do?
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
Escalate to the designated alternate risk owner for decision.
When the risk owner is unavailable, the risk manager must ensure that risk decisions are still made in a timely manner, especially for critical vulnerabilities. Escalating to the designated alternate risk owner is the correct action because it maintains the chain of accountability and enables an informed decision on whether to apply mitigations, such as patching the WAF, without unnecessary delay.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✓
Escalate to the designated alternate risk owner for decision.
Why this is correct
Proper escalation ensures accountability and timely response.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
- ✗
Apply the patch immediately without consultation.
Why it's wrong here
Patching without authorization may violate change management procedures.
- ✗
Accept the risk since the impact is unknown.
Why it's wrong here
Acceptance without analysis is not appropriate for a critical vulnerability.
- ✗
Wait for the risk owner to return to avoid overstepping authority.
Why it's wrong here
Delaying could lead to exploitation; critical vulnerabilities require prompt attention.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
The trap here is that candidates may assume immediate patching (Option B) is always the correct response for a critical vulnerability, but CRISC emphasizes that risk decisions must be made by the designated risk owner or their alternate, not unilaterally by the risk manager.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
In practice, a web application firewall (WAF) vulnerability might involve a bypass in signature-based detection or a flaw in the parsing engine that could allow SQL injection or XSS attacks. The alternate risk owner should review the CVSS score, exploitability metrics, and potential business impact before deciding on patching, which might require a maintenance window and regression testing to ensure no legitimate traffic is blocked. This scenario mirrors real-world incident response playbooks where delegation of authority is predefined in the risk management policy to avoid single points of failure.
KKey Concepts to Remember
- Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
- Find the constraint that changes the correct option.
- Eliminate answers that are true in general but not in this case.
TExam Day Tips
- Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
- Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A small business has 20 workstations on the 192.168.1.0/24 network and one public IP from its ISP. The router uses PAT (NAT overload) so all 20 devices share one public address using different source ports. NAT questions test whether you understand the four address terms and which direction each translation applies.
What to study next
Got this wrong? Here's your next step.
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
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FAQ
Questions learners often ask
What does this CRISC question test?
IT Risk Assessment — This question tests IT Risk Assessment — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Escalate to the designated alternate risk owner for decision. — When the risk owner is unavailable, the risk manager must ensure that risk decisions are still made in a timely manner, especially for critical vulnerabilities. Escalating to the designated alternate risk owner is the correct action because it maintains the chain of accountability and enables an informed decision on whether to apply mitigations, such as patching the WAF, without unnecessary delay.
What should I do if I get this CRISC question wrong?
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
About these practice questions
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Last reviewed: Jun 25, 2026
This CRISC practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISACA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the CRISC exam.
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