You are the CISM for a mid-sized e-commerce company that processes credit card transactions. The company recently experienced a security incident where an attacker exploited a vulnerability in the web application to gain access to the customer database containing payment card information. The incident response team contained the breach, but the root cause analysis revealed that the vulnerability had been identified in a penetration test six months ago but was not remediated due to competing priorities. The company's risk management framework defines risk appetite as 'moderate' for information security risks. The board is concerned and has asked you to recommend improvements to prevent recurrence. The company has a limited budget and cannot implement all possible controls. Current environment: web application developed in-house, hosted on-premises, with a mix of virtual and physical servers. The security team consists of three people responsible for monitoring, incident response, and vulnerability management. The development team follows an agile methodology with bi-weekly sprints. The company has cyber liability insurance that covers breach response costs up to $2 million. Based on this scenario, what is the most effective course of action?
Formal vulnerability management with risk-based remediation SLAs directly fixes the root cause: a known penetration-test finding left unremediated. Defined SLAs force prioritisation against competing work, matching the moderate risk appetite and the three-person team's limited capacity.
Why this answer
A formal vulnerability management program with defined remediation SLAs directly addresses the root cause: the known vulnerability was not patched due to competing priorities. By tying remediation timelines to risk severity (e.g., critical vulnerabilities patched within 7 days, high within 30 days), the company operationalizes its 'moderate' risk appetite and ensures that penetration test findings are acted upon before they can be exploited. This is the most cost-effective approach given the limited budget, as it leverages existing staff and processes rather than requiring new hires or expensive rewrites.
Exam trap
ISACA often tests the misconception that increasing insurance or hiring more staff is the primary solution to a risk management failure, when in fact the core issue is the lack of a process to enforce remediation of known vulnerabilities within the organization's risk appetite.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because hiring two additional security analysts improves monitoring and incident response but does not fix the underlying issue of unpatched vulnerabilities; the attacker exploited a known vulnerability that should have been remediated, not a detection gap. Option C is wrong because increasing cyber liability insurance to $5 million only transfers financial risk after a breach, it does not prevent recurrence of the vulnerability exploitation and violates the principle of reducing risk to an acceptable level. Option D is wrong because rewriting the web application using a secure development framework is a long-term, high-cost solution that exceeds the limited budget and does not address the immediate need to remediate existing vulnerabilities; it also ignores the fact that the current application is already in production and needs a process for ongoing vulnerability management.