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Technology Essentials practice questions

Technology Essentials covers cloud security, identity and access management, endpoint and network monitoring, and forensic artifact analysis. Questions present operational scenarios—such as anomalous IAM activity, registry persistence, or port 445 outbound traffic—and require selecting the correct AWS service, Windows Registry location, or protocol interpretation to investigate or mitigate the issue.

Courseiva uses original exam-style practice questions designed for learning and revision. The goal is to understand the concepts, recognise exam patterns, and improve through explanations — not memorise copied exam dumps.

Editorial oversight:Johnson Ajibi· MSc IT Security, IEEE Senior Member
20 questionsDomain: Technology Essentials

What the exam tests

What to know about Technology Essentials

A candidate must map operational symptoms to the correct tool or artifact: CloudTrail for IAM API history, KMS for encryption key management, Registry Run keys for persistence, and port 445 for SMB-based lateral movement. The most important thing is to verify the specific service or registry location before concluding malicious activity.

Identifying AWS CloudTrail for IAM API call history and anomalous activity

Using AWS KMS for data-at-rest encryption with provider-managed keys

Analyzing Windows Registry Run keys to detect malicious persistence

Recognizing SMB port 445 outbound connections as potential lateral movement

Watch out for

Common Technology Essentials exam traps

  • ▸Confusing AWS CloudTrail with AWS Config or GuardDuty for API call history; CloudTrail records API activity, while GuardDuty generates findings.
  • ▸Assuming all Registry Run key entries are malicious; legitimate software also uses them, so context and signature validation are required.
  • ▸Treating port 445 outbound traffic as normal file sharing; multiple external IPs on 445 often indicate SMB worm or lateral movement.

Practice set

Technology Essentials questions

20 questions · select your answer, then reveal the explanation

A SOC analyst observes excessive traffic on port 443 originating from an internal server to an unknown external IP. Which command should the analyst run on a Linux-based server to identify the specific process ID (PID) associated with this connection?

A cloud-based application is suffering from slow database queries. You suspect a misconfigured connection pool. Which log type in the cloud provider's console should you examine first?

You are hardening a web server. Which directive in an Apache configuration file helps prevent Clickjacking attacks?

You are managing a Linux server that has become unresponsive. You suspect a 'fork bomb'. How can you limit the number of processes a user can run to prevent this?

In an Active Directory environment, which tool is used to monitor for unauthorized modifications to Group Policy Objects (GPOs)?

A security analyst at a financial firm is reviewing a suspicious email that appears to come from a known vendor. The email contains a link to an external site that prompts the user to enter credentials. The analyst suspects a phishing attack. Which of the following should the analyst examine FIRST to determine the legitimacy of the email?

Question 7hardmultiple choice
Read the full DNS explanation →

A security analyst is reviewing network traffic and observes a high volume of DNS queries for randomly generated subdomains of a single domain, such as 'a1b2c3.example.com', 'd4e5f6.example.com'. The queries are of type TXT and the responses contain long strings of encoded data. Which technique is most likely being used?

A security analyst is examining a Linux server that is suspected of being compromised. The analyst runs `ss -tulpn` and observes an unfamiliar process listening on TCP port 4444. To identify the process executable and its command line, which command should the analyst use next?

A security analyst is implementing TLS for a new web application. The analyst must select cipher suites that provide forward secrecy and strong encryption. Which two of the following cipher suites meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A CCOA analyst is reviewing a capture from a mirrored switch port and needs to confirm whether a suspicious outbound session used TLS 1.3 with a valid server certificate chain. The analyst must determine the negotiated protocol version and the issuer of the leaf certificate without altering the traffic. Which Wireshark capability should the analyst rely on?

A security analyst is examining a memory dump from a compromised Windows system. The analyst wants to identify injected code or reflective DLL loading that may not be visible in the process list. Which Volatility 3 plugin should the analyst use to detect hidden or unlinked processes and injected code?

A CCOA analyst is investigating a suspected malware infection on a Windows 10 endpoint. The analyst wants to examine the list of processes that are configured to start automatically at system boot, including those in the Run registry keys and Startup folders. Which built-in Windows tool should the analyst use to view and manage these startup items?

A CCOA analyst is configuring a Snort IDS to detect a specific type of attack. The analyst wants to create a rule that alerts when an inbound TCP packet to the web server on port 80 contains the string 'cmd.exe' in the payload, and the packet is from any external IP. Which two Snort rule header components are required to match this traffic? (Choose two.)

When analyzing a virtual machine's security, you note it is using a 'Bridged' network adapter. What is the primary security implication of this configuration?

You need to identify unauthorized modifications to system binaries on a Red Hat Enterprise Linux server. Which tool is best suited for this integrity verification?

You are troubleshooting a Windows Server service that refuses to start due to a permission issue. Which tool allows you to audit the effective permissions of the service account against the executable file?

Question 17mediummultiple choice
Review the full subnetting walkthrough →

In a cloud environment, you are configuring a Security Group for an EC2 instance. To allow only incoming web traffic over HTTPS from a specific subnet, which configuration is most secure?

During a forensic investigation, you find an entry in the Windows Registry under 'Run' keys. How can you determine if this entry is malicious?

Which protocol is most appropriate for secure remote management of network infrastructure devices?

Question 20easymultiple choice
Read the full DHCP explanation →

You have identified a rogue DHCP server on your network. Which switch feature should be implemented to prevent this in the future?

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Frequently asked questions

What does the CCOA exam test about Technology Essentials?
A candidate must map operational symptoms to the correct tool or artifact: CloudTrail for IAM API history, KMS for encryption key management, Registry Run keys for persistence, and port 445 for SMB-based lateral movement. The most important thing is to verify the specific service or registry location before concluding malicious activity.
How should I use these practice questions?
Select your answer before revealing the explanation. Then read why each option is right or wrong — this active recall approach builds retention far faster than re-reading notes.
Can I practise just Technology Essentials questions in a focused session?
Yes — the session launcher on this page draws every question from the Technology Essentials domain. Use a 10-question session first to gauge your baseline, then move to 20 or 30 once the weak spots are clear.
Where can I practise other CCOA topics?
Use the topic links above to move to related areas, or go back to the CCOA question bank to see all topics.
Are these real exam questions or dumps?
These are original practice questions written to test the same concepts the CCOA exam covers. They are not copied from any real exam or dump site.