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CCNA Incident Detection And Response Questions

22 of 97 questions · Page 2/2 · Incident Detection And Response topic · Answers revealed

76
MCQeasy

A CCOA analyst receives an alert about a suspicious email attachment that was opened by a user. The analyst wants to determine if the attachment executed and established persistence. Which Windows artifact would provide the most direct evidence of the executable's file path and creation time?

A.SRUM database
B.MFT (Master File Table)
C.Windows Event Log Application.evtx
D.Amcache.hve
AnswerD

Amcache.hve records metadata about executables that have run on the system, including file paths and first execution times. It is particularly useful for tracking the initial appearance of a suspicious binary. Therefore, it provides direct evidence of the executable's path and creation time.

Why this answer

Amcache.hve stores metadata about executed binaries, including file paths and first run times. This directly addresses the analyst's need to confirm execution and obtain the file path. Other artifacts like SRUM, Application.evtx, or MFT may provide related information but lack the direct execution and path details.

Thus, Amcache is the most suitable artifact.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the MFT or event logs will show execution, but they record file metadata or application events, not program execution paths.

77
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an endpoint and suspect a fileless malware attack. Which of the following is the most likely location for the malicious script to reside?

A.AppData/Roaming
B.System32 directory
C.Temp folder
D.Windows Registry keys
AnswerD

Windows Registry keys satisfy the fileless constraint because malicious scripts persist as encoded values rather than files on disk, evading signature-based scanning. Attackers store payloads in keys such as Run or user hives, then execute them via trusted binaries like PowerShell or mshta, leaving minimal forensic artefacts.

Why this answer

Fileless malware often lives in the Windows Registry, specifically under 'Run' or 'RunOnce' keys, to ensure execution without a physical file on disk.

78
MCQhard

You are investigating a PowerShell-based attack. The attacker is using Base64 encoded commands. Which command line switch often indicates the use of encoded code?

A.-WindowStyle Hidden
B.-EncodedCommand
C.-NoProfile
D.-ExecutionPolicy Bypass
AnswerB

`-EncodedCommand` accepts a Base64-encoded UTF-16LE string, letting PowerShell execute code without quoting or special characters. It directly matches the stem's Base64 constraint, so its presence in a process command line is a strong indicator of obfuscated, encoded execution during investigation.

Why this answer

The '-EncodedCommand' (or '-e', '-enc') switch in PowerShell is a common flag used to execute obfuscated or Base64 encoded scripts.

79
MCQhard

While investigating a web server breach, you find malicious PHP web shells. What is the most effective way to identify the source of the upload?

A.Check the file metadata (MACE)
B.Scan the server for viruses
C.Analyze web server access logs
D.Check system boot logs
AnswerC

Access logs record every HTTP request with timestamp, source IP, URI and response code, so the POST that wrote the web shell appears alongside the attacker's earlier reconnaissance and upload attempts. This traces the upload's origin, which file-integrity or malware scanning alone cannot establish.

Why this answer

Web server access logs record every HTTP request, including the method, URI, source IP, user agent, and response code, so they reveal exactly when and from where the web shell was uploaded or accessed. Analyzing these logs is the most effective way to trace the upload source and identify the attacker's entry point. This is the primary forensic artifact for web-based intrusions.

Exam trap

CCOA often tests whether candidates confuse file-level forensics (metadata, AV scans) with network-level attribution — the trap is choosing file metadata or virus scanning when the question asks for the source of the upload, which only access logs can reveal.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because file metadata (MACE — Modified, Accessed, Changed, Entry timestamps) only shows when the file was created or modified on disk; it does not reveal the network source or the HTTP request that delivered the web shell. Option B is wrong because scanning the server for viruses may detect the web shell file itself but will not identify who uploaded it or from where — it addresses detection, not source attribution. Option D is wrong because system boot logs record operating system startup events and have no bearing on web application uploads or HTTP activity.

80
MCQmedium

A CCOA analyst receives an alert that the account 'svc_backup' performed an interactive logon (Type 2) to a domain controller at 02:17. The account is normally used only for scheduled backup jobs. The analyst needs to determine whether this is a credential misuse incident. Which Windows event should the analyst examine first to confirm the logon type and source workstation?

A.Event ID 4769 in the Security log
B.Event ID 4624 in the Security log
C.Event ID 5140 in the Security log
D.Event ID 4688 in the Security log
AnswerB

Event ID 4624 records successful logon events and includes Logon Type, Account Name, and Source Network Address fields. For this scenario, filtering 4624 for svc_backup with Logon Type 2 confirms an interactive logon and shows the originating workstation, directly validating whether the backup service account was misused outside its scheduled job context.

Why this answer

The analyst needs to confirm an interactive logon by a service account and identify its source. Successful logon events in the Security log capture logon type and source network address, which directly supports this determination. Other events describe process, Kerberos, or share activity and would require additional correlation without answering the core question.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any authentication-related event ID on a domain controller equally proves interactive logon, when only successful logon events explicitly record the logon type and source workstation.

81
MCQeasy

When a workstation is compromised, why is it recommended to isolate it rather than turning it off?

A.To allow the attacker to keep working
B.Because the OS might crash
C.To preserve volatile evidence in RAM
D.To save electricity
AnswerC

Isolation keeps the machine powered so RAM contents, running processes, network connections and encryption keys remain intact. Powering off destroys volatile memory, losing evidence such as injected code and active sessions. Isolation preserves this volatile evidence while blocking attacker access and further lateral movement.

Why this answer

Turning off the machine clears the RAM, which contains volatile evidence that is critical for incident analysis.

82
MCQmedium

A CCOA analyst is triaging an alert from the SIEM indicating a potential malware outbreak on a Windows server. The analyst wants to quickly identify the parent process of a suspicious child process using Sysmon telemetry. Which Sysmon event field should the analyst focus on to establish the process lineage?

A.ParentProcessId
B.ProcessGuid and ParentProcessGuid
C.Image and ParentImage
D.CommandLine and ParentCommandLine
AnswerB

Sysmon assigns a globally unique ProcessGuid to each process and records the ParentProcessGuid in Event ID 1 (Process Creation). These GUIDs are stable and unique, allowing the analyst to reliably reconstruct the process tree even if PIDs are reused. This is the recommended method to establish lineage and spot malicious parent-child relationships.

Why this answer

Sysmon Event ID 1 includes ProcessGuid and ParentProcessGuid, which are globally unique identifiers. These fields allow the analyst to accurately reconstruct the process tree even if process IDs are reused. Relying on PIDs or image names alone can lead to misattribution.

Therefore, the correct answer is the pair of GUID fields.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that ParentProcessId is sufficient for lineage, but process ID reuse makes it unreliable.

83
Multi-Selectmedium

A CCOA analyst is investigating a suspected insider threat involving unauthorized access to a file server. The analyst needs to correlate user activity with file access events. Which two log sources should the analyst prioritize? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Web proxy logs showing internet browsing activity
B.Firewall logs showing allowed and denied connections between network segments
C.Active Directory authentication logs from domain controllers
D.File server system logs showing disk errors and hardware faults
E.Windows Security event logs with object access auditing enabled
AnswersC, E

Domain controller Security logs capture authentication events such as 4624 and 4625, including the user account, logon type, and source workstation. Correlating these with file access events helps confirm whether the user authenticated to the file server and from where, strengthening the insider threat timeline.

Why this answer

To correlate user activity with file access, the analyst needs object access auditing events that identify the user and the file, and authentication logs that confirm the user's logon to the server. Together they establish who accessed what and from where. System, proxy, and firewall logs lack the necessary user-to-file mapping for this investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting network-level logs like firewall or proxy records, which show connectivity but not the user-to-file access relationship needed for insider threat attribution.

84
MCQeasy

What is a 'False Positive' in the context of SIEM alerting?

A.A system error causing a crash
B.A legitimate action flagged as malicious
C.A successful attack that was blocked
D.An incident that went undetected
AnswerB

A legitimate action flagged as malicious accurately defines a false positive: benign activity that a SIEM correlation rule incorrectly matches, triggering an unnecessary alert. This satisfies the scenario's requirement by distinguishing false positives from false negatives (missed threats) and true positives (genuine detections), so analysts can tune rules to reduce alert fatigue.

Why this answer

A false positive in SIEM alerting is a detection that fires on activity which is actually legitimate, such as an admin running a script that matches a suspicious command pattern. The alert is 'positive' (the SIEM flagged something) but 'false' because no real malicious event occurred. This is distinct from a false negative, which is a real attack that the SIEM failed to detect.

Exam trap

CCOA often tests the distinction between false positives and false negatives — the trap is confusing 'blocked attack' (true positive with successful response) or 'undetected incident' (false negative) with the false-positive definition.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a system error causing a crash is an availability or reliability failure, not a detection classification — it has nothing to do with whether an alert correctly identified malicious activity. Option C is wrong because a successful attack that was blocked is actually a true positive with a successful response, not a false positive; the detection was correct. Option D is wrong because an incident that went undetected is the definition of a false negative, the opposite error mode from a false positive.

85
MCQhard

When analyzing a memory dump using Volatility 3, which plugin is most effective for detecting code injection in a suspicious process?

A.windows.info
B.windows.malfind
C.windows.netscan
D.windows.pstree
AnswerB

windows.malfind scans process memory for pages marked executable and writable that lack a corresponding file on disk, the classic signature of injected code. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement to detect code injection within a suspicious process, unlike plugins that only list processes or network sockets.

Why this answer

The 'windows.malfind' plugin in Volatility 3 is designed to locate injected code segments by scanning for memory regions with suspicious permissions (e.g., PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE).

86
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE factors should be considered when assessing the severity of a security incident?

Select 3 answers
A.Scope of the affected systems
B.The day of the week the incident occurred
C.Sensitivity of compromised data
D.Business impact
E.The analyst's personal opinion
AnswersA, C, D

Scope measures how many systems, accounts or data sets the incident touches, directly driving severity because broader compromise means greater business impact. It is one of the three factors, alongside data sensitivity and operational impact, used to rate the incident.

Why this answer

Option A (Scope of the affected systems) is correct because severity scales with how many hosts, accounts, or network segments are involved—a single workstation compromise is far less severe than domain-wide or multi-site impact. Option C (Sensitivity of compromised data) is correct because the classification of the data (e.g., PII, PHI, credentials, trade secrets) drives regulatory, legal, and privacy consequences under frameworks like GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS. Option D (Business impact) is correct because severity must reflect the effect on critical services, revenue, safety, and operations, which is why incident response frameworks such as NIST SP 800-61 assess functional and informational impact.

Option B (day of the week) does not belong because timing may influence response logistics but is not a severity criterion, and Option E (analyst's personal opinion) is invalid because severity must be determined by objective, repeatable criteria rather than subjective judgment.

87
MCQhard

A CCOA analyst is reviewing network traffic logs and notices a series of DNS queries for randomly generated domain names that are subdomains of a single domain. The queries are frequent and the responses are often NXDOMAIN. Which technique should the analyst suspect?

A.Domain Generation Algorithm (DGA)
B.DNS cache poisoning
C.DNS tunneling
D.Fast flux DNS
AnswerA

A Domain Generation Algorithm (DGA) is used by malware to generate a large number of pseudo-random domain names that it can attempt to contact. The malware queries many domains, most of which are not registered, resulting in NXDOMAIN responses. The frequent, random subdomains under a single domain indicate a DGA attempting to locate its command-and-control server.

Why this answer

The pattern of frequent DNS queries for random subdomains under a single domain, with many NXDOMAIN responses, is a classic indicator of a Domain Generation Algorithm. Malware uses DGA to generate a large list of potential C2 domains, and the attacker only needs to register a few. This makes it difficult to block the malware by domain.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing DGA with DNS tunneling, but DNS tunneling typically uses a single domain with encoded data, not random subdomains.

88
MCQhard

A security analyst is investigating a suspected beaconing behavior in network traffic logs. The traffic consistently shows small, periodic connections to an external IP. Which statistical analysis method is most effective for identifying this pattern within high-volume PCAP or NetFlow data?

A.Perform a frequency analysis of connection time intervals
B.Identify top talkers by total bandwidth consumption
C.Filter connections by source port entropy
D.Calculate the mean of bytes transferred per session
AnswerA

Beaconing produces regular callbacks, so measuring the intervals between connections and looking for low variance or a dominant periodicity exposes the pattern. Frequency analysis of connection time intervals isolates that rhythm within high-volume PCAP or NetFlow data.

Why this answer

Beaconing is characterized by regular, periodic callbacks (e.g., every 60 seconds), so analyzing the distribution of inter-connection time intervals reveals the low-variance periodicity that distinguishes C2 traffic from normal user-driven traffic. Frequency analysis (e.g., via histograms, Fourier transforms, or standard deviation of intervals) surfaces this pattern even in high-volume PCAP/NetFlow data. Bandwidth, port entropy, and byte counts do not capture the temporal regularity that defines beaconing.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing volumetric/aggregate statistics (top talkers, mean bytes) with temporal pattern analysis — candidates pick bandwidth-based options because they sound like 'traffic analysis' but miss that beaconing is defined by timing regularity, not volume.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because top-talkers analysis ranks hosts by total volume, and beaconing traffic is deliberately low-volume and stealthy, so it will never appear in a top-talkers list. Option C is wrong because source port entropy measures randomness in port selection, which is unrelated to the periodic timing pattern of beaconing and is more relevant to detecting port-scan or randomization behavior. Option D is wrong because mean bytes per session is a volumetric statistic that ignores timing entirely; beaconing sessions are typically uniform in size, so the mean alone cannot distinguish them from other small flows.

89
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO actions are required to properly secure a compromised user account during the eradication phase?

Select 2 answers
A.Revoke all active sessions/tokens
B.Upgrade the user's OS
C.Reset the user's password
D.Block the user's physical building access
E.Delete the user's home directory
AnswersA, C

Revoking active sessions and refresh tokens immediately invalidates the attacker's existing authenticated access, satisfying eradication by cutting off persistence. Password reset alone leaves stolen tokens valid until expiry, so session revocation is required to fully evict the intruder.

Why this answer

Eradication of a compromised account requires both stopping the current access (revoking tokens) and preventing future unauthorized access (password reset).

90
MCQeasy

Which type of log provides the most granular detail regarding local account creation on a Windows Server?

A.System logs
B.Application logs
C.DNS logs
D.Security logs
AnswerD

Security logs record account management events such as user account creation, including the actor, target account and timestamp, when the relevant audit policy is enabled. This gives the most granular detail on local account creation, unlike System, Application or Setup logs.

Why this answer

Windows Security logs (recorded in the Security event log, viewable in Event Viewer under Windows Logs > Security) capture authentication, authorization, and account management events, including local account creation (Event ID 4720), password changes (4723/4724), and group membership changes (4728/4732). These events include the actor, target account, and timestamp, providing the granular audit trail needed for account-creation forensics.

Exam trap

CCOA often tests whether candidates know that account lifecycle events live in the Security log, not the System or Application logs — the word 'system' in the question tempts candidates toward System logs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because System logs record OS-level events such as service start/stop, driver failures, and hardware errors — they do not log account creation. Option B is wrong because Application logs contain events generated by installed applications (e.g., database or web server errors), not OS account management activity. Option C is wrong because DNS logs record name resolution queries and responses; they have no visibility into local user account lifecycle events.

91
MCQeasy

A CCOA analyst receives an alert about a possible phishing email that bypassed the secure email gateway. The analyst needs to extract and analyze the email headers to determine the true sender. Which email header field should the analyst examine to find the originating IP address of the sender?

A.Return-Path
B.Message-ID
C.Received
D.Reply-To
AnswerC

The Received header fields are added by each mail server as the message passes through. The bottom-most Received header (the first one added) typically contains the IP address of the originating server. This is the most reliable way to trace the true source of the email, though it can be forged if the sender controls the first server.

Why this answer

The Received header fields are added sequentially by each mail server that handles the message. The earliest Received header, which appears at the bottom of the header list, contains the IP address of the server that first received the message from the sender. This is the best field to determine the true origin, though it can be spoofed if the sender connects directly to the first server.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on the From or Return-Path, which are easily spoofed, instead of the Received chain that records actual server hops.

92
MCQhard

A CCOA analyst is examining a Linux server suspected of compromise. The analyst runs 'netstat -tulpn' and observes an unknown process listening on TCP port 4444. To identify the executable associated with this process, which command should the analyst use next?

A.ps -ef | grep 4444
B.lsof -i :4444
C.cat /proc/net/tcp
D.netstat -an | grep 4444
AnswerB

The lsof command with -i :4444 lists open files associated with the process listening on port 4444, including the executable path. It directly maps the port to the process and shows the binary. This helps identify malicious software. Therefore, lsof is the correct next step to associate the port with an executable.

Why this answer

The lsof command with -i :4444 maps the listening port to the process and reveals the executable path. This directly identifies the binary associated with the suspicious listener. Other commands either duplicate netstat output or require additional correlation steps.

Thus, lsof is the most efficient and accurate tool for this task.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that grepping ps output for a port number will work, but ps does not display port numbers, so that approach fails.

93
MCQmedium

You are performing a digital forensic image of a SATA drive. Which tool is standard for creating a bit-stream image while ensuring data integrity via a hash verification?

A.FTK Imager
B.Robocopy
C.Diskpart
D.Windows File Explorer
AnswerA

FTK Imager creates a bit-stream forensic image of the SATA drive and generates MD5 or SHA-1 hashes of both source and image, verifying integrity. That hash comparison proves the copy is an exact, unaltered reproduction, which is the evidential requirement.

Why this answer

FTK Imager is a widely accepted forensic tool that creates bit-stream (physical) images of storage media and generates MD5/SHA-1 hash values to verify that the image is an exact, unaltered copy of the original. It supports write-blocking awareness, E01 and raw formats, and hash verification, satisfying the integrity requirement for evidentiary purposes. This makes it the standard choice for imaging a SATA drive in a forensically sound manner.

Exam trap

CCOA often tests the confusion between file-copy utilities (Robocopy, Explorer) and true forensic imaging tools — candidates must recognize that only a bit-stream imager with hash verification preserves evidentiary integrity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Robocopy is a Windows file-copy utility that copies logical files, not raw sectors, and does not preserve deleted data, slack space, or generate forensic hashes. Option C is wrong because Diskpart is a disk partitioning and management tool — it can wipe or configure volumes but cannot create a verified forensic image. Option D is wrong because Windows File Explorer performs ordinary file copies that alter metadata (timestamps, access flags) and cannot capture unallocated space or produce integrity hashes.

94
MCQhard

During an incident investigation, an analyst discovers that an attacker used a compromised service account to move laterally across multiple systems. The analyst needs to determine the extent of the compromise by identifying all systems where the account was used to authenticate. Which data source would be most effective for this purpose?

A.Antivirus logs on each endpoint
B.NetFlow data collected from network devices
C.Windows Security event logs on each domain controller
D.Firewall logs showing outbound connections
AnswerC

Domain controllers log authentication events, including successful and failed logons, in the Windows Security event log. By analyzing these logs, the analyst can identify which systems the service account authenticated to, especially if logon events include the source workstation name or IP address. This provides a comprehensive view of lateral movement across the domain, making it the most effective source.

Why this answer

Domain controller security logs capture authentication events, including the account name, logon type, and source workstation. These logs are essential for tracing lateral movement because they record where and how an account was used. Other sources lack user context or do not cover authentication events across the domain, making them less effective for this specific investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on network-level data like firewall or NetFlow logs, which show connections but cannot attribute them to a specific user account, leading to an incomplete picture of lateral movement.

95
MCQmedium

A SIEM has triggered an alert for 'Excessive Failed Login Attempts' followed by a 'Successful Login'. Which technique is this most likely attempting to detect?

A.Data exfiltration
B.Brute force attack
C.DNS tunneling
D.Privilege escalation
AnswerB

Brute force attacks generate many failed authentications before one succeeds, exactly matching the failed-then-successful pattern the SIEM correlation rule detects. The technique relies on repeated credential guesses against a single account, so the volume of failures preceding the successful login is the defining signal Microsoft Entra ID sign-in logs would surface.

Why this answer

A pattern of excessive failed login attempts immediately followed by a successful login is the classic signature of a brute force attack, where an attacker systematically guesses credentials until one works. The SIEM correlation rule is designed to surface this sequence because the successful login after many failures suggests the attacker eventually guessed the correct password. This is a well-known detection use case in SOC operations.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any 'successful login after failures' indicates account compromise or exfiltration, when the specific detection pattern is designed to flag brute force credential guessing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because data exfiltration involves unauthorized data transfer out of the environment, typically detected by volume anomalies, DLP alerts, or unusual outbound traffic — not by failed-then-successful login patterns. Option C is wrong because DNS tunneling is detected via anomalous DNS query patterns, long subdomain strings, or high-frequency DNS requests to a single domain, not login failures. Option D is wrong because privilege escalation is detected by changes in user permissions, token manipulation, or exploitation of vulnerabilities — the login pattern alone does not indicate escalation.

96
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices that a user's workstation is repeatedly connecting to an external IP address every 60 seconds, sending small amounts of data. The traffic pattern is consistent and occurs even when the user is not actively working. Which type of malware behavior is most likely indicated?

A.A keylogger exfiltrating keystrokes in real time.
B.Ransomware encrypting files in the background.
C.A worm spreading to other systems on the network.
D.A botnet command-and-control beacon.
AnswerD

Periodic connections to an external IP with small data transfers are characteristic of malware beaconing to a command-and-control server. This allows the attacker to maintain persistence and issue commands. The consistent interval and low data volume are typical of such communication, distinguishing it from normal user activity.

Why this answer

The consistent, periodic connections to an external IP with small data payloads are a classic sign of malware beaconing to a command-and-control server. This behavior allows attackers to maintain control over the compromised system and receive instructions, often while evading detection by blending in with normal traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing beaconing with other malware behaviors like ransomware or keylogging, which have different network and host indicators.

97
MCQmedium

You are reviewing AWS CloudTrail logs to investigate an unauthorized modification of an S3 bucket policy. Which event name should you search for?

A.UpdatePolicy
B.ModifyBucketPolicy
C.DescribeBucketPolicy
D.PutBucketPolicy
AnswerD

PutBucketPolicy is the CloudTrail event name recorded when an S3 bucket policy is created or replaced. Searching for it isolates the unauthorised modification, since that API call is the exact action that alters a bucket policy.

Why this answer

'PutBucketPolicy' is the specific API call recorded in CloudTrail when an IAM identity modifies the bucket policy of an S3 bucket.

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