Courseiva

CCNA Securing Assets Questions

32 questions · Securing Assets · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

You are implementing 'Just-in-Time' (JIT) access for Azure Virtual Machines using Microsoft Defender for Cloud. A developer complains they cannot request access to a VM. What is the most likely reason?

A.The VM is not joined to an Azure Active Directory domain.
B.The developer lacks the required Azure RBAC permissions to modify the Network Security Group associated with the VM.
C.The developer lacks the 'Security Reader' role, which is mandatory for requesting JIT access.
D.The developer has not enabled 'Multi-Factor Authentication' on their local machine.
AnswerB

JIT access works by modifying the NSG; without sufficient RBAC permissions to change these rules, the request will fail.

Why this answer

Defender for Cloud's JIT VM Access requires the user to have specific RBAC permissions (typically 'Microsoft.Compute/virtualMachines/write') on the resource group or subscription.

2
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring an Endpoint Security policy to harden Windows 10 devices. Which TWO of the following settings are recommended as best practice to mitigate physical access risks?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption for all fixed drives.
B.Disable the 'Allow Windows Store apps' policy.
C.Enable 'Microsoft Defender SmartScreen'.
D.Set the 'Minimum Password Length' to 12 characters.
E.Disable 'AutoRun' for all removable media.
AnswersA, E

BitLocker protects data from extraction if the physical drive is removed.

Why this answer

BitLocker protects data at rest, and disabling external media prevents unauthorized data exfiltration/injection.

3
MCQhard

You observe that a specific Windows service is running as 'SYSTEM' but is vulnerable to DLL hijacking. What is the most effective way to harden this service without disabling it?

A.Configure the service folder permissions to restrict write access to the 'Administrators' group only.
B.Change the service account to a local 'Guest' account.
C.Enable 'Service Isolation' in the Registry using the 'ServiceSidType' key.
D.Rename the service executable to a random string.
AnswerA

Restricting write access to the service binary folder prevents attackers from planting malicious DLLs that the service might load.

Why this answer

Hardening services that run as SYSTEM requires securing the directory permissions so only authorized users can write to the application folder, preventing the loading of malicious DLLs.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

You are auditing your cloud environment for 'Shadow IT'. Which TWO of the following methods are effective for identifying unauthorized assets?

Select 2 answers
A.Scanning the corporate network using Nmap for open ports.
B.Interviewing all employees about their work habits.
C.Reviewing firewall logs for connections to known cloud service provider CIDR blocks.
D.Analyzing DNS query logs for domains associated with common SaaS platforms.
E.Checking the physical office layout.
AnswersC, D

Egress traffic patterns to known cloud provider IP ranges are key indicators of shadow IT usage.

Why this answer

Cloud access security brokers (CASB) and firewall/proxy logs are the primary visibility points for detecting traffic to unauthorized cloud services.

5
Multi-Selecthard

Your vulnerability management program requires prioritizing fixes based on exploitability. Which THREE of the following factors should be included in your risk score?

Select 3 answers
A.The number of employees in the department that owns the server.
B.Exploit Code Maturity (e.g., is there a public exploit available?).
C.Asset criticality (e.g., does it house PII?).
D.The color of the server rack hardware.
E.Network accessibility (e.g., is it reachable from the internet?).
AnswersB, C, E

The existence of public exploit code significantly increases the risk of exploitation.

Why this answer

CVSS scoring includes base metrics like exploit code maturity, environmental impact, and temporal factors to prioritize remediation.

6
MCQeasy

When setting up a new security monitoring tool, you need to define 'Critical Assets'. Which criteria should NOT be used to determine asset criticality?

A.The date when the asset was last patched.
B.The regulatory requirements associated with the asset (e.g., PCI-DSS/HIPAA).
C.The sensitivity of data residing on the asset.
D.The impact to business operations if the asset is offline.
AnswerA

Patch status is a measure of vulnerability, not a measure of the asset's intrinsic business criticality.

Why this answer

Asset criticality is based on business value, regulatory impact, and data sensitivity; 'last patch date' is a hygiene metric, not a classification criterion.

7
MCQmedium

You need to ensure that all endpoints in your organization have the 'CrowdStrike Falcon' agent running and are reporting correctly. Which dashboard should you use?

A.CrowdStrike 'Custom Detections'.
B.CrowdStrike 'Threat Graph'.
C.CrowdStrike 'Host Management'.
D.CrowdStrike 'Zero Trust Assessment'.
AnswerC

This is the specific dashboard for managing endpoint agents and their status.

Why this answer

The CrowdStrike 'Host Management' dashboard provides a real-time view of sensor status, version, and connectivity.

8
Multi-Selectmedium

You are performing a vulnerability assessment on a server. Which TWO of the following indicators would suggest an asset is part of the 'Critical' category?

Select 2 answers
A.The server is used for testing internal UI prototypes.
B.The server hosts the primary company e-commerce database with customer credit card data.
C.The server is required for the company's core 'Order Processing' function to remain operational.
D.The server has an outdated version of Java installed.
E.The server is connected to a printer in the lobby.
AnswersB, C

Data sensitivity (PII/Financial) is a major driver of criticality.

Why this answer

Assets that hold PII or are required for business continuity are by definition critical.

9
MCQmedium

You are conducting an asset inventory and discover a device communicating with a known malicious IP address. The device is a corporate laptop. What is the most immediate, effective containment action?

A.Power off the laptop immediately to preserve volatile memory.
B.Delete the user account associated with the laptop in Active Directory.
C.Use the 'Isolate Endpoint' feature in your EDR (e.g., CrowdStrike or Defender) to restrict network communication.
D.Physically disconnect the ethernet cable from the building patch panel.
AnswerC

Endpoint isolation via EDR allows for continued management of the device while blocking all network traffic except to the management console.

Why this answer

Isolating the endpoint via the EDR platform is the industry-standard 'containment' step to prevent lateral movement while maintaining a forensic connection.

10
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of good asset inventory management practices?

Select 2 answers
A.Maintaining a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) that maps asset relationships.
B.Using an automated discovery tool (e.g., Lansweeper, Tenable.io) for continuous inventory updates.
C.Only tracking assets that have had a security incident.
D.Deleting assets from the inventory once they are turned off.
E.Manually updating an Excel spreadsheet every year.
AnswersA, B

A CMDB provides the necessary context and relationship mapping for security and operations.

Why this answer

Automated discovery tools and maintaining a comprehensive CMDB are foundational elements of effective asset inventory.

11
MCQeasy

You are tasked with hardening an endpoint using the CIS Benchmark for Windows 10. You need to ensure that the 'Local Account Password Complexity' is enforced. Which GPO path should you navigate to?

A.Computer Configuration > System Settings > Advanced > Security
B.Computer Configuration > Policies > Windows Settings > Security Settings > Account Policies > Password Policy
C.User Configuration > Preferences > Control Panel Settings > Local Users and Groups
D.Computer Configuration > Administrative Templates > Windows Components > Password
AnswerB

This is the correct path to modify the local password complexity requirements.

Why this answer

The standard path for local security policy settings in GPO is Computer Configuration > Policies > Windows Settings > Security Settings > Account Policies > Password Policy.

12
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are examples of 'Access Control' implementations?

Select 3 answers
A.Setting file system permissions (e.g., Read/Write/Execute).
B.Implementing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) on file shares.
C.Cleaning the office floor daily.
D.Using a high-quality monitor for security logs.
E.Requiring Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all remote logins.
AnswersA, B, E

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) via file permissions is a primary control mechanism.

Why this answer

Access control is achieved through authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) mechanisms like MFA, RBAC, and file permissions.

13
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a failure in a 'Certificate-Based Authentication' setup for a VPN. The logs show 'Handshake Failure'. What tool should you use to verify the server's certificate chain status?

A.Wireshark to analyze the encrypted traffic.
B.'certutil -verify -urlfetch' on the Linux server.
C.Nmap with the '--script ssl-enum-ciphers' flag.
D.'openssl s_client -connect <server>:443 -showcerts'.
AnswerD

This command displays the full certificate chain and provides debug info on the handshake process.

Why this answer

OpenSSL is the industry standard CLI tool for diagnosing TLS handshake issues and verifying certificate chain validity.

14
MCQhard

While monitoring security logs in Splunk for your critical database server, you observe a spike in '401 Unauthorized' errors followed by a '200 OK' success from a known administrative account. How should you investigate this to confirm a potential credential stuffing attack?

A.Disable the administrative account immediately without further analysis.
B.Check the 'web_access.log' for the source IP of the successful login and compare the User-Agent string to previous successful logins.
C.Restart the database service to clear the connection pool.
D.Increase the logging level on the database to 'Debug' to capture the password hash being transmitted.
AnswerB

Comparing User-Agent and source IP patterns against historical baselines is the standard method for identifying credential stuffing anomalies.

Why this answer

To distinguish between a user mistyping a password and an automated attack, you must correlate the timing, source IP distribution, and the subsequent behavior of the account.

15
MCQmedium

You notice a surge in outbound traffic from a workstation to a series of random external IP addresses. This suggests a potential botnet infection. What is the most appropriate forensic data to collect first?

A.Full packet capture (pcap) for the last 30 days.
B.The browser history of the user.
C.NetFlow logs from the network perimeter device.
D.A full disk image of the workstation.
AnswerC

NetFlow provides source, destination, and volume data, which is perfect for identifying C2 pattern anomalies.

Why this answer

NetFlow or VPC Flow Logs are the best way to capture the patterns of outbound communication to identify command-and-control (C2) behavior.

16
MCQmedium

You are configuring AWS Security Groups for a web server. Which rule set follows the 'Principle of Least Privilege' best?

A.Inbound: TCP 80, 443 from 0.0.0.0/0; Outbound: TCP 443 to internal database subnet only.
B.Inbound: TCP 80, 443 from 0.0.0.0/0; Outbound: All traffic.
C.Inbound: All TCP from 0.0.0.0/0; Outbound: All traffic.
D.Inbound: TCP 22, 80, 443 from 0.0.0.0/0; Outbound: All traffic.
AnswerA

This limits ingress to standard web ports and egress to only what the server needs to function.

Why this answer

Least privilege dictates allowing only the specific ports required (80/443) from the necessary source (anywhere or a load balancer) and nothing else.

17
MCQmedium

You are managing access for a cloud-native application using AWS IAM. You need to ensure that an EC2 instance can only access a specific S3 bucket. What is the most secure way to implement this?

A.Use an IAM Group and add the EC2 instance to the group.
B.Create an IAM user with access keys and embed them in the application configuration file.
C.Attach an IAM Role with a policy restricted to the specific S3 bucket ARN to the EC2 instance profile.
D.Modify the S3 bucket policy to allow 'All Principals' and restrict by IP address.
AnswerC

IAM roles provide temporary credentials and are the identity-based mechanism for granting scoped access to AWS services.

Why this answer

IAM roles attached to EC2 instances are the standard and secure way to manage permissions without hardcoding keys or using overly broad policies.

18
MCQmedium

You are using Tenable.io to manage vulnerabilities across a hybrid environment. You notice that several endpoints are not appearing in the 'Asset Inventory' dashboard despite having the Nessus Agent installed. What is the first troubleshooting step you should take?

A.Check the 'nessuscli agent status' on the endpoint to verify the link state and connection to the manager.
B.Reinstall the Nessus Agent using the 'Force Install' flag.
C.Manually add the IP address of the endpoint to the 'Allowed Assets' list in Tenable.io.
D.Restart the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) service.
AnswerA

The 'nessuscli' command-line utility is the native tool for verifying agent-to-manager connectivity status.

Why this answer

The Nessus Agent must communicate with the Tenable.io platform via a specific port. If the agent isn't showing up, checking the link status and connectivity to the cloud backend is the primary requirement.

19
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of an 'Endpoint Detection and Response' (EDR) solution?

A.To block all incoming traffic at the network edge.
B.To scan for vulnerabilities in web applications.
C.To manage user passwords and enforce complexity.
D.To provide continuous monitoring and automated response to threats on endpoints.
AnswerD

This is the core function of an EDR solution.

Why this answer

EDR tools are designed specifically to detect, investigate, and remediate advanced threats on endpoint devices.

20
MCQhard

You are performing a credentialed vulnerability scan using Nessus Professional on a Linux server. The scan reports that the 'Remote Windows SMB' service is missing patches, but the target is Linux. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?

A.The scanner is configured to run 'Non-Credentialed' scans only, resulting in false positives.
B.The Nessus scanner has performed a fingerprinting mismatch due to an incorrect 'Credentialed Patch Audit' policy setting.
C.The Linux server is hosting a Windows VM, and the scanner is reporting on the guest OS.
D.The Linux server has Samba installed, and the vulnerability scanner is correctly identifying a vulnerability in the SMB stack.
AnswerB

The vulnerability scan likely applied a Windows plugin set because the credentials provided or the SSH banner allowed for a misidentification of the OS family during the initial discovery phase.

Why this answer

This is a common issue when the 'Safe Checks' are enabled or when the SSH service is configured to allow legacy protocols that trigger incorrect plugin attribution in the vulnerability database.

21
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Linux server and want to use 'iptables' to block all incoming traffic from a specific subnet (192.168.10.0/24). Which command is correct?

A.iptables -I OUTPUT -d 192.168.10.0/24 -j REJECT
B.iptables -A FORWARD -s 192.168.10.0/24 -j DROP
C.iptables -A INPUT -d 192.168.10.0/24 -j DROP
D.iptables -A INPUT -s 192.168.10.0/24 -j DROP
AnswerD

This is the correct command structure for blocking a subnet in the INPUT chain.

Why this answer

The 'iptables -A INPUT -s [network] -j DROP' syntax correctly appends a rule to the INPUT chain to drop traffic from the specified source.

22
Multi-Selecthard

You are evaluating a third-party application's access requirements. Which THREE of the following are considered 'Least Privilege' implementations?

Select 3 answers
A.Using a dedicated service account instead of a personal user account for application processes.
B.Defining an IAM policy that allows 's3:GetObject' only for the specific bucket used by the app.
C.Granting the application access to all internal databases 'just in case' it needs them later.
D.Granting the application service account 'Owner' role on the entire Azure Subscription.
E.Using 'Condition' keys in IAM to restrict access to requests originating from the corporate IP range.
AnswersA, B, E

Service accounts should be unique to the application to ensure accountability and scoping.

Why this answer

Least privilege requires granting only the absolute minimum permissions needed for a task, using granular roles, and scoping access by resource.

23
MCQeasy

During an audit, you need to classify assets based on their criticality. Which of the following is the best example of a 'High' classification for an asset?

A.A central database containing customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and credit card data.
B.A guest Wi-Fi access point used for public internet access.
C.A local printer used for departmental documents.
D.An internal employee breakroom display showing weather and news.
AnswerA

Storing PII and financial data makes the asset critical due to regulatory and business impacts.

Why this answer

Assets that hold PII, financial data, or are critical to core business functions are universally classified as 'High'.

24
MCQhard

A vulnerability report shows that your web application is susceptible to 'Clickjacking'. Which HTTP header should you implement to mitigate this?

A.Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *
B.Strict-Transport-Security: max-age=31536000
C.X-Content-Type-Options: nosniff
D.X-Frame-Options: DENY
AnswerD

The 'DENY' value prevents the page from being displayed in a frame, effectively mitigating clickjacking.

Why this answer

The 'X-Frame-Options' header (or the more modern 'Content-Security-Policy: frame-ancestors') prevents a site from being rendered within an iframe on an external site.

25
MCQmedium

You are configuring a SIEM alert to trigger when a user account is locked out. Which Windows Event ID should your filter target?

A.Event ID 4625
B.Event ID 4740
C.Event ID 4728
D.Event ID 4624
AnswerB

This is the correct event ID for an account lockout.

Why this answer

Event ID 4740 is the standard Windows Security log event for an account lockout.

26
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring security monitoring for a database. Which THREE events should you definitely log to ensure compliance and detect malicious activity?

Select 3 answers
A.Successful and failed login attempts.
B.Changes to database user privileges or schema (e.g., 'GRANT' commands).
C.The specific hardware temperature of the server.
D.The number of active user sessions in the connection pool.
E.Large-scale data exports or queries affecting sensitive tables.
AnswersA, B, E

Necessary to detect brute-force or unauthorized access attempts.

Why this answer

Monitoring administrative changes, authentication success/failure, and data access are the pillars of database security logging.

27
Multi-Selecthard

You are hardening a web server. Which TWO of the following steps are critical for 'Endpoint Hardening' of the web service itself?

Select 2 answers
A.Changing the administrator's wallpaper to the company logo.
B.Configuring the server to auto-restart every 10 minutes.
C.Replacing the server's RAM with larger capacity sticks.
D.Disabling unused modules (e.g., WebDAV, directory listing) in the web server configuration.
E.Removing default 'welcome' pages and sample applications.
AnswersD, E

Reducing the attack surface by disabling unnecessary modules is a fundamental hardening step.

Why this answer

Disabling unnecessary features and removing default configuration files are standard hardening steps to reduce the attack surface.

28
MCQmedium

You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Endpoint (MDE) to restrict USB storage access on corporate-managed Windows endpoints. Which policy setting should you configure in the Microsoft Intune Endpoint Security portal to ensure only authorized hardware IDs are permitted while blocking all others?

A.Modify the 'Administrative Templates' to set 'Prevent installation of removable devices'.
B.Set the 'USB Connection' state to 'Restricted' within the Defender for Endpoint configuration baseline.
C.Enable 'Removable Storage Access: Allow write access' and add the specific Hardware IDs to the 'Allow access to specific hardware IDs' setting.
D.Configure the 'Allow installation of devices that match any of these device IDs' policy.
AnswerC

This is the correct path in the Endpoint Security Device Control profile to restrict access while providing an allow-list for specific hardware.

Why this answer

In Intune, the 'Removable Storage Access' settings under 'Device Control' allow for granular control over USB access, specifically allowing the specification of Hardware IDs for allow-listing.

29
MCQhard

You are hardening a Linux server and want to disable all unused network ports. Which command would be best to identify listening ports and their associated processes?

A.lsof -i | grep LISTEN
B.ps aux | grep port
C.netstat -an | grep LISTEN
D.ss -tulpn
AnswerD

This command shows all TCP/UDP listening ports and the process ID (PID) owning the port.

Why this answer

'ss' (socket statistics) with the '-tulpn' flags is the modern, preferred tool over the deprecated 'netstat' for viewing listening sockets with process IDs.

30
MCQeasy

You are reviewing a list of vulnerabilities found by an automated scanner. Which type of vulnerability would be considered the most critical to remediate first?

A.Unsupported software version that has no known exploits.
B.Remote Code Execution (RCE) on an internet-facing application.
C.Information Disclosure of internal server paths.
D.Insecure cookie attributes (missing HttpOnly).
AnswerB

RCE on an internet-facing asset is the highest priority due to ease of exploitation and impact.

Why this answer

An RCE (Remote Code Execution) vulnerability allows an attacker to execute arbitrary code with the privileges of the application, representing the highest possible threat.

31
Multi-Selecthard

You are analyzing logs to detect a 'Lateral Movement' attack. Which THREE of the following behaviors are common indicators?

Select 3 answers
A.A user logging into 20 different workstations in 5 minutes.
B.An administrator logging into the domain controller once at 9:00 AM.
C.The user changing their desktop background image.
D.A sudden spike in RPC/WMI traffic between two internal servers.
E.Multiple successful logins using the same set of credentials from a single internal source IP.
AnswersA, D, E

This 'horizontal' movement pattern is a hallmark of credential harvesting/lateral movement.

Why this answer

Lateral movement often involves using legitimate tools like PowerShell or WMI (Living off the Land) to move between systems using captured credentials.

32
MCQmedium

You are setting up a secure baseline for a new server. You need to ensure the operating system logs are sent to a centralized logging server. Which service should you configure?

A.rsyslog
B.NTP
C.DHCP
D.SNMP Trap
AnswerA

rsyslog is the standard service for collecting and forwarding system logs.

Why this answer

Syslog (or Syslog-ng/rsyslog) is the standard protocol and service for forwarding logs from a Linux server to a central collection point.

Ready to test yourself?

Try a timed practice session using only Securing Assets questions.