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Certified Incident Handler (212-89) (212-89) — Questions 76150

206 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQhard

A web application's logs indicate an attacker successfully performed an XML External Entity (XXE) injection. What was likely the source of this vulnerability?

A.Lack of CSRF tokens in POST requests
B.SQL injection in a login form
C.Insecure configuration of the XML parser
D.Missing input sanitization in a search field
AnswerC

XXE is caused by parsers that allow the processing of external entities, often enabled by default in older configurations.

Why this answer

XXE occurs when an XML parser is configured to resolve external entities, allowing access to local files.

77
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO criteria must a first responder satisfy when choosing a tool for a toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.The tool must run on a cloud-based server.
B.The tool must be known to have minimal impact on the target system.
C.The tool must be fully documented and trusted.
D.The tool must be proprietary and expensive.
E.The tool must be able to delete the malware.
AnswersB, C

Minimizing the footprint is a primary forensic requirement.

Why this answer

Tools must be trusted and cause minimal impact on the subject system.

78
MCQmedium

During a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) incident, you notice the WAF is blocking legitimate user sessions. What is the most effective tuning step to prevent false positives while maintaining protection?

A.Disable the entire XSS protection rule set
B.Implement a negative security model
C.Create a granular exclusion for the specific parameter triggering the alert
D.Switch the WAF from Blocking mode to Transparent mode
AnswerC

Exclusions allow legitimate traffic through while maintaining the primary security posture.

Why this answer

Creating a targeted exception for a specific URI or parameter prevents over-blocking while keeping the signature active for the rest of the application.

79
MCQhard

You are preparing a final report for an incident. Which element is mandatory for ensuring the report serves as a valid document for future insurance or legal claims?

A.Verification and sign-off by the relevant stakeholders and legal counsel
B.A copy of all emails sent by the attacker
C.A detailed technical guide on how to configure the firewall
D.A list of every employee's salary grade
AnswerA

Official sign-off provides the accountability needed for legal and insurance validity.

Why this answer

The report must be signed by the incident lead and reviewed by legal to serve as an official, admissible document.

80
MCQmedium

A user reports a 'missing' file that was present earlier. What is the first thing you should check in a forensic triage?

A.The recycle bin.
B.The backup server.
C.The user's email.
D.File system logs or audit logs for file deletion events.
AnswerD

This provides definitive proof of what happened to the file.

Why this answer

Checking the file system journals or event logs (Event ID 4663 for file deletion) is the first step to understand if a file was deleted.

81
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE categories of stakeholders should be considered for notification in a major data breach?

Select 3 answers
A.The local coffee shop staff.
B.Legal and Compliance departments.
C.Privacy Officer.
D.IT Management.
E.The company's external social media followers.
AnswersB, C, D

Legal must be involved for liability and notification requirements.

Why this answer

Legal, IT Management, and the Privacy Officer are critical stakeholders during a breach.

82
MCQeasy

A system has been infected by a worm that is spreading across the network. What is the most immediate action to stop the spread?

A.Update the BIOS on all machines
B.Block propagation ports at the network level
C.Disable the internet gateway
D.Email all users to reboot
AnswerB

Blocking the ports used by the worm prevents it from reaching new hosts.

Why this answer

Isolating the affected segments or blocking the ports used for the worm's propagation (e.g., SMB/445) is essential to stop lateral movement.

83
MCQeasy

An organization is establishing an Incident Response (IR) team. According to NIST, which team structure is most suitable for a large, globally distributed organization that requires localized response capability with centralized oversight?

A.Centralized IR Team
B.Virtual IR Team
C.Outsourced IR Team
D.Distributed IR Team
AnswerD

This structure balances local autonomy for rapid response with centralized coordination for consistency.

Why this answer

A distributed team structure allows local teams to respond quickly to regional incidents while reporting to a centralized hub for unified policy enforcement.

84
MCQmedium

You are handling a ransomware incident. Which step should be taken before attempting any file recovery?

A.Reimage the machine.
B.Delete all encrypted files.
C.Identify and preserve the encrypted samples and memory state.
D.Pay the ransom.
AnswerC

This allows for analysis of the malware and potential recovery of keys.

Why this answer

It is critical to preserve the existing state for potential forensic analysis or decryptor key extraction before trying to recover files.

85
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are common indicators of a phishing email?

Select 3 answers
A.Urgent or threatening language requiring immediate action
B.Mismatch between the display name and actual sender address
C.The email uses standard corporate branding
D.The URL visible in the text does not match the actual hyperlink
E.The email is sent during business hours
AnswersA, B, D

Urgency is used to bypass critical thinking.

Why this answer

Suspicious sender domains, mismatched URLs, and sense of urgency are primary phishing indicators.

86
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are effective methods for protecting backup systems from being encrypted by ransomware?

Select 3 answers
A.Restricting backup service account permissions
B.Storing backups on the same server as the primary data
C.Using immutable storage solutions
D.Using an easy-to-guess password for the backup drive
E.Implementing air-gapped backup storage
AnswersA, C, E

Least privilege prevents ransomware from accessing and deleting backups.

Why this answer

Backups should be immutable, physically or logically isolated (air-gapped), and have strictly controlled access to prevent modification or deletion by ransomware.

87
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions are essential when performing log review after a web application attack?

Select 3 answers
A.Delete all log entries older than 24 hours to save space
B.Correlate logs from the web server, WAF, and backend database
C.Only review logs from the last hour of the incident
D.Ensure log files have not been tampered with using checksums
E.Search logs for known attack signatures like common injection patterns
AnswersB, D, E

Cross-log correlation is vital to see the full attack path.

Why this answer

Log review requires correlation, integrity protection, and proper scope analysis.

88
MCQhard

You are dealing with a legal hold request for data related to an investigation. How should you handle the data retention policy for this specific case?

A.Export the data to a public cloud storage service
B.Follow the standard 90-day retention policy
C.Suspend the automatic deletion for the affected data
D.Delete the data and generate an audit log
AnswerC

A legal hold requires the preservation of all potentially relevant data, overriding standard deletion cycles.

Why this answer

A legal hold overrides existing retention policies, preventing the automatic deletion of relevant data.

89
MCQmedium

Which technique should an incident responder use to prevent an infected host from spreading ransomware via SMB to other segments in the network?

A.Disable DNS resolution on the host
B.Enable DHCP snooping
C.Flush the ARP cache
D.Implement ACLs to block TCP 445 between segments
AnswerD

Blocking the SMB port prevents the lateral propagation of ransomware.

Why this answer

Blocking TCP 445 (SMB) at the boundary between network segments is the most effective way to stop worm-like lateral movement.

90
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following techniques would an attacker likely use to hide lateral movement traffic within a network?

Select 2 answers
A.Masquerading malicious traffic on common ports like 443
B.Using clear-text Telnet for all communication
C.Sending traffic exclusively during business hours
D.Disabling all logging on the source host
E.Embedding data within encrypted SSH tunnels
AnswersA, E

Using standard ports makes malicious traffic blend in with web traffic.

Why this answer

Encrypted tunnels (SSH/TLS) and protocol masquerading are the primary ways to hide lateral movement.

91
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an email with a suspicious attachment. You notice the file name is 'invoice.pdf.exe'. What does this indicate?

A.The file is a double-extension obfuscation attempt
B.The file is a legitimate script file
C.The file is encrypted with a password
D.The file is a genuine PDF that requires an executable
AnswerA

Windows often hides the final extension.

Why this answer

The double extension is a common technique to trick users into executing a binary file.

92
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common signs of a compromised switch in a local area network?

Select 2 answers
A.Unrecognized trunk ports enabled
B.Normal spanning-tree convergence
C.Decreased CPU usage on the switch
D.Unexpected MAC address table growth (MAC flooding)
E.Stable port security status
AnswersA, D

Unauthorized trunk ports allow VLAN hopping attacks.

Why this answer

MAC flooding and unauthorized trunking are common signs of layer 2 switch compromise.

93
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are critical requirements for maintaining a valid Chain of Custody?

Select 3 answers
A.A log of all software installed on the investigator's machine
B.Verifying that the evidence was not tampered with during transport
C.A copy of the attacker's original IP address
D.A chronological record of who had possession of the evidence
E.Detailed documentation of where the evidence was stored
AnswersB, D, E

Integrity verification is a core part of the chain of custody process.

Why this answer

The chain of custody requires documenting the 'who, what, where, and when' of evidence possession.

94
MCQeasy

During an incident, you need to isolate a compromised workstation from the network immediately. Which action is the most effective containment strategy while preserving volatile memory?

A.Shut down the computer immediately
B.Disconnect the network cable
C.Delete the suspicious files
D.Run a full antivirus scan
AnswerB

This provides immediate containment without losing volatile evidence.

Why this answer

Disconnecting the network cable or disabling the network interface card via BIOS/Switch port prevents C2 communication while keeping the system powered on for memory forensics.

95
MCQeasy

When performing manual phishing triage, which action should an analyst perform first after identifying a suspicious URL in an email body?

A.Click the URL to inspect the landing page
B.Block the sender domain immediately
C.Run the URL against an automated sandbox analysis tool
D.Forward the email to the user for confirmation
AnswerC

Safe detonation is the primary first step.

Why this answer

Before interaction, you must detonate in a sandbox to ensure safety.

96
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO pieces of information must be collected to successfully track a session hijacking attack across multiple log sources?

Select 2 answers
A.The BIOS version of the server
B.The session ID/cookie value
C.The web server's MAC address
D.The server's physical location
E.The exact timestamp of the requests
AnswersB, E

The session ID is the common key used to track the user's activity across logs.

Why this answer

Linking sessions across logs requires a common identifier like a session cookie or ID and the associated timestamp.

97
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are key components of a network-based containment strategy?

Select 3 answers
A.Isolation of the compromised segment from the rest of the network
B.Forced termination of active sessions
C.Implementation of egress filtering at the perimeter
D.Increasing the DHCP lease time
E.Installing new hardware across the network
AnswersA, B, C

Isolation stops the spread of the attack.

Why this answer

Isolation, traffic filtering, and session termination are the key components of containment.

98
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common indicators that an incident should be declared?

Select 2 answers
A.A scheduled software update being pushed to clients
B.Unusual or unauthorized system access patterns
C.An increase in system CPU usage during scheduled maintenance
D.Unexplained loss of service or system availability
E.An employee requesting a password reset
AnswersB, D

Unauthorized access is a clear indicator of a security incident.

Why this answer

Evidence of unauthorized access or service disruption are clear triggers for declaring an incident.

99
MCQmedium

During a malware incident response, you identify a suspicious process with PID 4452 using Sysinternals Process Explorer. You need to verify the file's reputation before isolation. Which action allows you to do this directly within the tool?

A.Use the 'Find Handle or DLL' search bar for the file name
B.Select the process and click Options > Check VirusTotal
C.Right-click the process and select 'Verify Signature'
D.Navigate to View > Lower Pane View > Handles
AnswerB

This feature connects to VirusTotal to report the malware status.

Why this answer

Process Explorer provides a 'Check VirusTotal' feature under the Options menu to automatically submit file hashes to VirusTotal for reputation verification.

100
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common sources for incident identification?

Select 2 answers
A.Randomly checking employee browser history
B.Cleaning the office breakroom
C.Alerts from IDS or SIEM systems
D.The daily lunch menu
E.Reports from internal users or employees
AnswersC, E

Security monitoring tools are designed to surface suspicious activity.

Why this answer

Alerts from security tools and reports from users are the most common ways incidents are found.

101
MCQhard

You are performing forensic analysis on a suspicious file. You need to determine if it is a packed executable. Which tool is most effective for viewing the file's section headers to identify anomalies?

A.PEview
B.Wireshark
C.Process Explorer
D.Regedit
AnswerA

PEview provides a view of the PE structure to identify non-standard sections.

Why this answer

PEview or CFF Explorer allows for detailed inspection of the Portable Executable structure, including section headers which often reveal abnormal names (e.g., UPX) for packed files.

102
MCQmedium

A security analyst is investigating lateral movement using PowerShell Remoting (WinRM). Which Windows Event Log should be prioritized to confirm the execution of remote commands?

A.Application Log
B.Security Log
C.System Log
D.Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational
AnswerD

This log contains detailed PowerShell execution history.

Why this answer

Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational (Event ID 4104) logs the actual script block execution, which is vital for detecting malicious PowerShell commands.

103
MCQhard

You are managing chain of custody for a physical server seized during an investigation. What is the most critical action to ensure the evidence remains admissible in court?

A.Taking photographs of the server location
B.Logging every individual who accessed, transported, or stored the device
C.Using an anti-static bag for transport
D.Hashing the drive contents immediately
AnswerB

The chronological log of possession is the legal definition of chain of custody.

Why this answer

Maintaining a verifiable, gapless log of every person who touched the evidence is the core requirement of chain of custody.

104
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a non-volatile data source?

A.Processor Cache.
B.Network state table.
C.Hard Disk Drive.
D.System RAM.
AnswerC

Storage drives retain data after power is removed.

Why this answer

Hard drives and flash storage are non-volatile because they retain data when power is removed.

105
MCQhard

You suspect an incident involves an insider threat. Which step should be taken FIRST to preserve the integrity of the potential evidence while minimizing system downtime?

A.Change the root password to lock out the attacker
B.Delete the suspicious user account
C.Reboot the compromised system to clear malicious memory
D.Capture a bit-stream image of the storage media
AnswerD

A bit-stream image is the gold standard for evidence preservation before analysis.

Why this answer

Creating a forensic image ensures that the current state is preserved before any volatile data is lost or system state changes.

106
MCQmedium

You are using a SIEM to correlate events during an investigation. What is the primary advantage of correlation in incident analysis?

A.It reduces the amount of storage required for logs
B.It links related alerts to show the attack progression
C.It automatically blocks all suspicious traffic
D.It replaces the need for human analysis
AnswerB

Correlation identifies patterns across disparate logs to reconstruct the incident.

Why this answer

Correlation links disparate events across different devices to reveal the full attack path.

107
MCQmedium

You are choosing a destination for forensic image storage. What is the most critical characteristic of this storage?

A.Write-protection and tamper-evident logging
B.Fast read/write speeds
C.Cloud-based accessibility
D.High storage capacity
AnswerA

Evidence integrity relies on preventing unauthorized modification.

Why this answer

The storage must be write-blocked or read-only once data is written to ensure the evidence cannot be altered.

108
MCQmedium

You are auditing Apache logs to detect potential OS command injection. Which characters should you search for in the access logs?

A.'%20', '+', and '='
B.'{', '}', and '$'
C.'<', '>', and '/'
D.';', '|', '&', and '`'
AnswerD

These are command separators and execution characters used to append unauthorized commands to input.

Why this answer

Characters like pipe, semicolon, and backticks are common metacharacters used to chain commands in OS command injection.

109
MCQmedium

You are performing initial containment on a cloud-based AWS EC2 instance. The instance is under a DDoS attack. What is the most effective way to isolate this specific resource?

A.Stop the EC2 instance immediately.
B.Remove the VPC from the region.
C.Delete the EC2 instance.
D.Modify the assigned Security Group to restrict all inbound/outbound traffic.
AnswerD

This isolates the instance while preserving the running state for memory capture.

Why this answer

Modifying the Security Group to deny all ingress and egress is the fastest way to isolate the instance at the network level in AWS.

110
MCQeasy

An analyst is drafting an email to a user who reported a phishing attempt. What is the most important tone to maintain?

A.Professional, calm, and informative
B.Accusatory, to discourage clicking
C.Technical and jargon-heavy
D.Alarmist, to ensure they remain scared
AnswerA

This promotes trust and cooperation.

Why this answer

The tone should be professional, reassuring, and helpful to encourage future reporting.

111
MCQmedium

During an investigation into lateral movement, you notice an unusual RDP connection from a workstation to a domain controller. Which Wireshark filter would be most effective in isolating only the RDP traffic associated with that specific source IP to identify potential credential dumping activity?

A.tcp.flags.syn == 1 && ip.src == 192.168.1.50
B.data.data == 3389
C.rdp.data && ip.dst == 192.168.1.50
D.tcp.port == 3389 && ip.src == 192.168.1.50
AnswerD

This filter correctly isolates traffic on the default RDP port originating from the suspected workstation.

Why this answer

Filtering by protocol and source IP is essential to isolate traffic. tcp.port == 3389 isolates RDP, while ip.src filters the origin.

112
MCQeasy

A developer reports that a specific user is receiving 500 Internal Server Errors. Where is the first place to look to determine if this is an incident?

A.Error logs
B.Firewall logs
C.DNS logs
D.Access logs
AnswerA

Application error logs provide the necessary context on why the request failed (e.g., code exception).

Why this answer

The server's application error log contains the traceback and specific exception details for 500 errors, which often reveal if an attacker is triggering crashes.

113
MCQhard

You are performing a triage on a server and see unauthorized outbound connections to a foreign IP. What is the best way to determine which process initiated the connection?

A.ping the IP address.
B.Run 'netstat -ano' to map the connection to a PID.
C.Check the ARP table.
D.Use 'ipconfig /all'.
AnswerB

This shows the Process ID (PID) responsible for the connection.

Why this answer

'netstat -ano' or 'lsof -i' are used, but specifically 'netstat -ano' associates the PID with the connection.

114
MCQmedium

An attacker is using a specific User-Agent to scan your web application. How do you block them effectively?

A.Create a WAF rule to block requests with the specific User-Agent string
B.Disable all directory indexing on the server
C.Change the web server listening port
D.Update the server's hosts file
AnswerA

Most WAFs allow filtering based on HTTP request headers like User-Agent.

Why this answer

Creating a WAF rule to drop requests matching that specific User-Agent string is the most direct and efficient mitigation.

115
MCQhard

A web application is vulnerable to session fixation. What is the primary indicator of this attack in the logs?

A.High volume of requests to the login page without POST data
B.The same session ID is associated with two different IP addresses within a short timeframe
C.A sudden spike in failed login attempts
D.A user session ID remains identical before and after a successful authentication event
AnswerD

The failure to regenerate the session ID upon authentication is the definition of a session fixation vulnerability.

Why this answer

Session fixation involves an attacker setting a victim's session ID before they log in. Observing the same session ID used by a guest and then by an authenticated user is the indicator.

116
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common network-based indicators of a compromised host attempting to perform network discovery?

Select 2 answers
A.Increase in DHCP release messages
B.High volume of TCP SYN packets to multiple ports
C.High volume of ARP requests to the entire subnet
D.Multiple HTTP 404 errors
E.Frequent DNS queries for internal hostnames
AnswersB, C

TCP SYN scanning is a standard method for discovering open ports.

Why this answer

Port scanning and ARP scanning are the most common ways to discover network topology.

117
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary objectives of the 'Lessons Learned' phase?

Select 2 answers
A.Deleting all incident records to protect privacy
B.Assigning financial bonuses to the team
C.Updating policies and procedures to prevent recurrence
D.Testing the backup power supply of the building
E.Identifying security gaps in the current response process
AnswersC, E

Process improvement ensures future incidents are mitigated or avoided.

Why this answer

Lessons learned aims to improve future response and document findings for management.

118
Multi-Selecthard

When responding to a SQL injection incident, which TWO areas of the database server logs should be prioritized for review?

Select 2 answers
A.Operating system kernel logs
B.Database backup completion logs
C.Database user activity/audit logs
D.Network interface statistics
E.Database query execution logs
AnswersC, E

These show if the attacker is attempting to escalate privileges or access unauthorized data.

Why this answer

Database logs and audit logs provide the necessary visibility into query execution and unauthorized access.

119
MCQeasy

During an incident, why is it important to keep the 'Incident Log' updated in real-time?

A.To provide an accurate, chronological record for the final report
B.To keep the team busy
C.To allow management to monitor the team's progress
D.To comply with IT service desk ticket requirements
AnswerA

Real-time updates prevent the loss of detail that occurs if one relies on memory later.

Why this answer

A real-time log ensures an accurate, contemporaneous record of actions, which is vital for later analysis and legal defense.

120
Multi-Selectmedium

You are assembling a 'First Responder Toolkit' for a remote incident team. Which THREE items are essential for collecting volatile data and ensuring legal defensibility on a Windows system?

Select 3 answers
A.Tamper-evident bags for physical evidence.
B.Network vulnerability scanner (e.g., Nessus).
C.Hardware write-blocker (e.g., Tableau).
D.A live response toolkit containing statically linked binaries.
E.Packet sniffing software to install on the target host.
AnswersA, C, D

Required for maintaining a defensible chain of custody.

Why this answer

To preserve evidence, you need a write-blocker for disks, a trusted forensic toolkit for memory, and tamper-evident storage.

121
MCQmedium

You discover a suspicious scheduled task on a server. Which Windows tool allows you to export this task for analysis without relying on the GUI?

A.schtasks /query /v
B.regedit.exe
C.netsh
D.Task Scheduler GUI.
AnswerA

This command provides a verbose output of all scheduled tasks for analysis.

Why this answer

The 'schtasks' command-line tool is the standard way to query and manage tasks in Windows without triggering GUI-based auditing changes.

122
MCQmedium

When documenting evidence for a forensic investigation, you are required to establish a chain of custody. Which information is considered mandatory for each entry in the chain of custody log to satisfy legal requirements?

A.Name of the person transferring the evidence, the receiver, date/time, and the specific storage location.
B.The name of the software used to perform the collection.
C.The BIOS serial number and hard drive firmware version.
D.The hash values of the collected files.
AnswerA

This fulfills the legal definition of maintaining an unbroken chain of custody.

Why this answer

Legal standards require clear documentation of who handled the evidence, when, and the specific action taken.

123
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO log file attributes are essential for identifying the source of an attack coming through a load balancer?

Select 2 answers
A.Server uptime count
B.X-Forwarded-For header
C.Local time of the web server
D.The load balancer's internal management port
E.Original Request-URI
AnswersB, E

This header contains the original client IP address.

Why this answer

Since a load balancer sits between the client and the server, preserving the client's IP and original request path is critical.

124
MCQhard

During an incident, a responder needs to capture the ARP cache to identify potential local spoofing. Which tool provides this information?

A.ipconfig /displaydns
B.route print
C.arp -a
D.netstat -s
AnswerC

This displays the current ARP cache entries.

Why this answer

The 'arp -a' command shows the current Address Resolution Protocol cache on a Windows or Linux system.

125
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a symptom of an 'Email Forwarding Rule' attack?

A.The user's inbox is empty
B.Emails are being forwarded to an external address
C.The mailbox reached its size limit
D.The password was changed
AnswerB

This is the hallmark of the attack.

Why this answer

Attackers set up auto-forwarding rules to intercept sensitive business communications without the user's knowledge.

126
MCQhard

An attacker is using a slow-rate HTTP POST request to exhaust server resources. Which ModSecurity directive should be adjusted to mitigate this behavior?

A.SecDataDir
B.SecRuleEngine DetectionOnly
C.SecResponseBodyLimit
D.SecRequestBodyLimit
AnswerD

This limits the size of the request body, preventing resource exhaustion via oversized or slow POST requests.

Why this answer

ModSecurity's 'SecRequestBodyLimit' and 'SecRequestBodyNoFilesLimit' manage the size and rate of incoming request bodies.

127
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE indicators in a web access log suggest a directory traversal attempt?

Select 3 answers
A.Repeated access to sensitive files like 'passwd' or 'config.php'
B.URL parameters containing system file paths
C.Presence of '../' sequences
D.Requests for CSS files
E.High number of image file requests
AnswersA, B, C

Targeting sensitive files is a primary goal of directory traversal.

Why this answer

Traversal attempts use specific patterns to move outside the intended root directory.

128
MCQmedium

You are assessing the effectiveness of a containment strategy for a worm spreading through the network. What is the most effective metric to use?

A.Total time spent by the IR team
B.Number of emails sent by the IR team
C.The rate of new successful infections
D.Total number of systems scanned
AnswerC

A decrease in the infection rate confirms the effectiveness of containment.

Why this answer

The rate of new infections is the most direct indicator of whether the containment strategy is successfully stopping the spread.

129
Multi-Selectmedium

During the triage of a Linux server, you suspect a rootkit is intercepting system calls. Which THREE actions are appropriate for the first responder to perform to gather evidence of the rootkit?

Select 3 answers
A.Compare the md5sum of critical binaries against a known-good baseline.
B.Capture a full memory dump for offline analysis with Volatility.
C.Reinstall the OS immediately to ensure cleanliness.
D.Run 'chkdsk' to look for file system errors.
E.Run 'lsmod' to identify suspicious or unsigned kernel modules.
AnswersA, B, E

This detects binary-based rootkits that replace common utilities like 'ps' or 'netstat'.

Why this answer

Collecting memory, inspecting binary integrity, and reviewing kernel modules are key methods for detecting rootkits.

130
MCQhard

An analyst identifies that an email originated from an unauthorized IP address despite passing SPF. What is the most likely cause?

A.The user's computer is infected
B.The SPF record is too broad
C.The domain has no DMARC record
D.The mail server was misconfigured
AnswerB

Broad SPF records allow unauthorized senders.

Why this answer

If SPF passes but the IP is wrong, it is likely the attacker is using an email service that is part of the same SPF-authorized infrastructure (like a shared cloud provider).

131
MCQeasy

As a first responder, you arrive at a compromised workstation showing signs of active malware beaconing. Which action should be performed first according to the Order of Volatility?

A.Create a bit-stream image of the hard drive.
B.Perform a physical memory dump using FTK Imager.
C.Power down the machine to stop the malware.
D.Disconnect the network cable from the workstation.
AnswerB

Capturing volatile RAM is the highest priority in the Order of Volatility.

Why this answer

Memory (RAM) is the most volatile component and must be captured before it is overwritten or lost during a shutdown.

132
MCQhard

When analyzing an XSS attack, you find that the payload is being injected through a hidden form field. Which WAF policy is best suited to block this?

A.Implement strict field-level input validation for the specific hidden form parameter
B.Enable IP reputation blocking
C.Enable URL encoding normalization
D.Set the WAF to block all POST requests
AnswerA

Restricting the allowed content for the specific hidden field mitigates the risk while allowing other traffic.

Why this answer

WAFs with 'Input Validation' or 'Request Body Inspection' can be configured to enforce strict rules on specific form fields, including hidden ones.

133
MCQhard

You are using YARA to detect a specific strain of ransomware. You want to match a file if it contains a specific hex string OR a specific string value. How do you construct this in your rule?

A.condition: $a + $b
B.condition: $a != $b
C.condition: $a && $b
D.condition: $a or $b
AnswerD

The 'or' operator allows for flexible matching logic.

Why this answer

YARA uses the 'or' operator within the condition section to evaluate multiple criteria, allowing a match if either condition is met.

134
MCQmedium

You need to capture forensic data from a Windows machine using a remote agent. What is the risk of using built-in administrative tools like PowerShell for this?

A.They leave significant forensic footprints on the target system.
B.They are always blocked by the firewall.
C.They cannot collect binary data.
D.They require the system to be offline.
AnswerA

Using native tools modifies system logs, which can complicate the investigation.

Why this answer

Native tools leave extensive traces in the event logs and process history, which might overwrite evidence or alert the attacker.

135
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following could be considered 'indicators of compromise' (IOCs) for an email incident?

Select 3 answers
A.Malicious URL within the email body
B.The name of the email service provider
C.Sender IP address
D.MD5 or SHA-256 hash of an attachment
E.The user's password
AnswersA, C, D

Common phishing IOC.

Why this answer

Sender IP addresses, malicious URLs, and file hashes are standard IOCs.

136
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items should be included in an incident report following a successful SQL injection attack?

Select 3 answers
A.A list of potentially affected data or databases
B.The personal name of the person who discovered the attack
C.The exact physical address of the data center
D.The specific attack vector and payload used
E.The remediation steps performed to close the vulnerability
AnswersA, D, E

Assessing the scope of data exposure is the most critical part of an incident report.

Why this answer

An incident report needs to document what happened, the scope of the impact, and the remediation steps taken.

137
MCQhard

You are performing a live memory analysis using Volatility 3. You suspect a rootkit is hiding processes. Which plugin should you run to compare the process list from the EPROCESS block with the thread scheduler's list?

A.windows.netscan
B.windows.modules
C.windows.vadyarascan
D.windows.psscan
AnswerD

psscan finds processes by scanning for EPROCESS structures, exposing hidden processes.

Why this answer

The 'psxview' plugin in older versions or 'pslist' vs 'psscan' comparison helps identify hidden processes. In Volatility 3, 'windows.psscan' is used to find processes that are not linked in the active process list.

138
MCQeasy

During the 'Recovery' phase of the malware incident, what must be done to ensure the environment is safe before reconnecting the restored systems?

A.Perform a vulnerability scan
B.Delete all user profiles
C.Upgrade the OS to the latest version
D.Reformat all external hard drives
AnswerA

Scanning ensures the original attack vectors are no longer available.

Why this answer

Vulnerability scanning confirms that the original entry points or vulnerabilities used by the malware have been patched or mitigated.

139
MCQhard

You suspect a DNS tunneling attack for data exfiltration. In your DNS server logs, which characteristic is the strongest indicator of a tunnel rather than standard recursive lookups?

A.High volume of A records
B.Requests for PTR records
C.Unusually long, high-entropy subdomains
D.Queries to root hints
AnswerC

High-entropy strings are a hallmark of encoded data within DNS queries.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling often uses non-standard, long, or high-entropy subdomains to encode data.

140
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an incident where a user account is being used to exfiltrate data. What is the most immediate action to contain the account?

A.Delete the user account.
B.Delete the user's home directory.
C.Lock the user's computer.
D.Reset the user password and invalidate active sessions.
AnswerD

Invalidating sessions ensures the attacker is kicked out immediately.

Why this answer

Disabling the account is the standard containment measure to stop an active session or further logins.

141
MCQeasy

A user reports their system is running slowly, and you observe a suspicious file in 'C:\Users\[User]\AppData\Local\Temp'. What is the most appropriate first step in your investigation?

A.Re-image the computer
B.Delete the file immediately
C.Execute the file in a debugger
D.Calculate the file hash
AnswerD

Hashing allows for quick verification of known malicious signatures.

Why this answer

Calculating the file hash is the first step to verify the file's reputation against known databases like VirusTotal before performing intrusive analysis.

142
MCQhard

You are performing an incident investigation involving a suspected insider threat. Under GDPR compliance, you must ensure that your data collection methods adhere to the 'data minimization' principle. Which action best aligns with this requirement?

A.Perform a full disk image of the suspect's entire workstation and cloud storage account
B.Collect only specific log entries and application artifacts related to the suspicious activity
C.Install a keylogger on the workstation to monitor all user activity indefinitely
D.Request a full dump of the company-wide SQL database to search for activity
AnswerB

Targeted collection minimizes the exposure of unrelated personal information while still gathering sufficient evidence.

Why this answer

Data minimization requires collecting only what is necessary for the investigation, avoiding the wholesale harvesting of unrelated user traffic or personal files.

143
MCQmedium

You are performing log correlation in a SIEM. You want to match Windows Event ID 4624 (Logon) with network traffic. Which field is the primary 'join key' to correlate the event with a specific network flow?

A.Source IP Address
B.Target Username
C.Process Name
D.Event Correlation ID
AnswerA

The Source IP connects the network connection event to the resulting logon process.

Why this answer

Source IP address is the common attribute between a Windows logon log and a network flow record.

144
MCQmedium

During a suspected data breach, you must collect volatile memory. Which tool and command is the industry-standard starting point for capturing an image of RAM in a Windows-based incident?

A.Netstat -an
B.Windows Task Manager dump
C.FTK Imager Memory Capture
D.WinPcap capture
AnswerC

FTK Imager is the standard tool for capturing RAM images safely.

Why this answer

FTK Imager is widely used for creating forensic images of volatile memory on Windows systems.

145
Multi-Selecthard

When reviewing network traffic for C2 communication, which THREE of the following indicators are commonly observed?

Select 3 answers
A.Connections from local users to a printer
B.Periodic connections (beaconing) to a specific IP
C.Traffic on non-standard ports (e.g., HTTPS on port 8080)
D.High volume of legitimate DNS traffic
E.Connections to recently registered domains
AnswersB, C, E

Malware frequently beacons to C2 servers on a fixed schedule.

Why this answer

Beaconing patterns, unusual protocol usage, and connections to newly registered domains are standard indicators of C2 activity.

146
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following tools would be most effective for performing live memory forensics on a compromised Windows workstation?

Select 3 answers
A.CCleaner
B.WinPmem
C.Magnet RAM Capture
D.Windows Update
E.Volatility 3
AnswersB, C, E

This is a reliable tool for memory acquisition on Windows.

Why this answer

Volatility, WinPmem, and Magnet RAM Capture are all specialized tools for volatile memory acquisition and analysis.

147
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following sources of information are most helpful for building an Indicators of Compromise (IoC) list during an investigation?

Select 2 answers
A.EDR security event logs
B.HR handbook
C.Office printer logs
D.Firewall logs
E.Cafeteria menus
AnswersA, D

These logs provide host-based IoCs like file hashes and process paths.

Why this answer

Network logs and EDR logs provide the most direct evidence of a malware's activity, such as C2 communication and file system changes.

148
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions are recommended for evidence preservation in a digital incident?

Select 2 answers
A.Reboot the system to clear temporary files.
B.Calculate cryptographic hashes for all collected files.
C.Modify file permissions to prevent further access.
D.Maintain a formal chain of custody log for all evidence.
E.Delete all temporary logs to save space.
AnswersB, D

Hashing is the standard for ensuring evidence integrity.

Why this answer

Hashing ensures integrity, and chain of custody ensures legal admissibility.

149
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are appropriate communication channels to keep users informed during an email phishing incident?

Select 3 answers
A.Individual user personal phone numbers
B.Corporate security intranet portal
C.Public social media accounts
D.Official company-wide security alert email
E.Internal helpdesk ticketing system status page
AnswersB, D, E

Appropriate for awareness.

Why this answer

Company-wide announcements, helpdesk tickets, and security awareness portals are appropriate channels.

150
MCQeasy

Which team should be notified first in the event of a confirmed external data breach involving customer PII?

A.The local news media
B.The marketing department
C.The software development team
D.Legal and Privacy officers
AnswerD

Data breaches trigger legal reporting requirements that must be handled immediately.

Why this answer

Legal and Data Privacy teams must be involved early to handle regulatory compliance and notifications.

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